UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Maha MedTech Mission: It is an exclusive collaboration between the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). The mission’s primary objective is to promote the export of high-cost medical devices to developed nations. A key component of the mission is the establishment of enabling frameworks, such as MedTech Mitra, to assist innovators with regulatory clearances. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission is not an exclusive collaboration. It is jointly launched by three entities: the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission’s aim is not export-focused. Instead, it aims to reduce India’s dependence on high-cost medical imports and strengthen domestic manufacturing capacity. The goal is to enhance access and affordability of medical technology within India, aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat Statement 3 is correct. The mission includes the creation of “Enabling Frameworks” to support innovators. This explicitly includes the MedTech Mitra platform for guiding regulatory clearances and the Patent Mitra for intellectual property protection, facilitating the lab-to-market translation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission is not an exclusive collaboration. It is jointly launched by three entities: the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission’s aim is not export-focused. Instead, it aims to reduce India’s dependence on high-cost medical imports and strengthen domestic manufacturing capacity. The goal is to enhance access and affordability of medical technology within India, aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat Statement 3 is correct. The mission includes the creation of “Enabling Frameworks” to support innovators. This explicitly includes the MedTech Mitra platform for guiding regulatory clearances and the Patent Mitra for intellectual property protection, facilitating the lab-to-market translation.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Maha MedTech Mission:

• It is an exclusive collaboration between the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

• The mission’s primary objective is to promote the export of high-cost medical devices to developed nations.

• A key component of the mission is the establishment of enabling frameworks, such as MedTech Mitra, to assist innovators with regulatory clearances.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The mission is not an exclusive collaboration. It is jointly launched by three entities: the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission’s aim is not export-focused. Instead, it aims to reduce India’s dependence on high-cost medical imports and strengthen domestic manufacturing capacity. The goal is to enhance access and affordability of medical technology within India, aligned with the Atmanirbhar Bharat

Statement 3 is correct. The mission includes the creation of “Enabling Frameworks” to support innovators. This explicitly includes the MedTech Mitra platform for guiding regulatory clearances and the Patent Mitra for intellectual property protection, facilitating the lab-to-market translation.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the formation of tropical cyclones: The Coriolis effect, which initiates the storm’s rotation, causes winds to spiral in a clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere. The presence of high vertical wind shear is a primary condition that is conducive to the intensification of cyclonic storms. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Coriolis effect causes winds to spiral anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cyclone formation requires low vertical wind shear. High vertical wind shear (a significant change in wind speed or direction with altitude) would disrupt the vertical structure of the storm, shearing it apart and preventing intensification. Conducive conditions include warm ocean temperatures, high humidity, and low wind shear. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Coriolis effect causes winds to spiral anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Statement 2 is incorrect. Cyclone formation requires low vertical wind shear. High vertical wind shear (a significant change in wind speed or direction with altitude) would disrupt the vertical structure of the storm, shearing it apart and preventing intensification. Conducive conditions include warm ocean temperatures, high humidity, and low wind shear.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the formation of tropical cyclones:

• The Coriolis effect, which initiates the storm’s rotation, causes winds to spiral in a clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere.

• The presence of high vertical wind shear is a primary condition that is conducive to the intensification of cyclonic storms.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Coriolis effect causes winds to spiral anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Cyclone formation requires low vertical wind shear. High vertical wind shear (a significant change in wind speed or direction with altitude) would disrupt the vertical structure of the storm, shearing it apart and preventing intensification. Conducive conditions include warm ocean temperatures, high humidity, and low wind shear.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Coriolis effect causes winds to spiral anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points The GSAT-7R (CMS-03) satellite is of strategic importance to India primarily because it: (a) is the first operational satellite launched using the new LVM-3 vehicle, proving the launcher's capability. (b) provides robust, encrypted, multi-band communication links for the armed forces, enhancing network-centric warfare capabilities. (c) facilitates public broadband connectivity and DTH services across the entire Indian Ocean Region, boosting the digital economy. (d) is an advanced Earth observation satellite designed for high-resolution weather forecasting and maritime disaster management. Correct Solution: B The primary purpose of the GSAT-7R satellite is military. (a) is incorrect. While it uses the LVM-3, this is not its primary strategic importance. The LVM-3 was already proven, notably in the Chandrayaan-3 mission. (b) is correct. GSAT-7R is a next-generation military communication satellite. Its significance lies in providing secure, encrypted, and jam-resistant communication for the Indian Navy, Air Force, and Army. It operates in multiple bands (Ku, Ka, UHF) and strengthens network-centric warfare and interoperability. (c) is incorrect. This describes a civilian communication satellite (like the GSAT series for broadcasting), not the military-specific GSAT-7R. (d) is incorrect. This describes a remote sensing or meteorological satellite (like the INSAT or RISAT series), not a communication satellite. Incorrect Solution: B The primary purpose of the GSAT-7R satellite is military. (a) is incorrect. While it uses the LVM-3, this is not its primary strategic importance. The LVM-3 was already proven, notably in the Chandrayaan-3 mission. (b) is correct. GSAT-7R is a next-generation military communication satellite. Its significance lies in providing secure, encrypted, and jam-resistant communication for the Indian Navy, Air Force, and Army. It operates in multiple bands (Ku, Ka, UHF) and strengthens network-centric warfare and interoperability. (c) is incorrect. This describes a civilian communication satellite (like the GSAT series for broadcasting), not the military-specific GSAT-7R. (d) is incorrect. This describes a remote sensing or meteorological satellite (like the INSAT or RISAT series), not a communication satellite.

#### 3. Question

The GSAT-7R (CMS-03) satellite is of strategic importance to India primarily because it:

• (a) is the first operational satellite launched using the new LVM-3 vehicle, proving the launcher's capability.

• (b) provides robust, encrypted, multi-band communication links for the armed forces, enhancing network-centric warfare capabilities.

• (c) facilitates public broadband connectivity and DTH services across the entire Indian Ocean Region, boosting the digital economy.

• (d) is an advanced Earth observation satellite designed for high-resolution weather forecasting and maritime disaster management.

Solution: B

The primary purpose of the GSAT-7R satellite is military.

• (a) is incorrect. While it uses the LVM-3, this is not its primary strategic importance. The LVM-3 was already proven, notably in the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

• (b) is correct. GSAT-7R is a next-generation military communication satellite. Its significance lies in providing secure, encrypted, and jam-resistant communication for the Indian Navy, Air Force, and Army. It operates in multiple bands (Ku, Ka, UHF) and strengthens network-centric warfare and interoperability.

• (c) is incorrect. This describes a civilian communication satellite (like the GSAT series for broadcasting), not the military-specific GSAT-7R.

• (d) is incorrect. This describes a remote sensing or meteorological satellite (like the INSAT or RISAT series), not a communication satellite.

Solution: B

The primary purpose of the GSAT-7R satellite is military.

• (a) is incorrect. While it uses the LVM-3, this is not its primary strategic importance. The LVM-3 was already proven, notably in the Chandrayaan-3 mission.

• (c) is incorrect. This describes a civilian communication satellite (like the GSAT series for broadcasting), not the military-specific GSAT-7R.

• (d) is incorrect. This describes a remote sensing or meteorological satellite (like the INSAT or RISAT series), not a communication satellite.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Benzene (C₆H₆): It is a volatile, aromatic hydrocarbon that is insoluble in water and possesses a sweet smell. It serves as the structural foundation for pharmaceuticals such as aspirin, sulfa drugs, and antihistamines. Benzene is classified as a known carcinogen, with prolonged exposure primarily linked to bone marrow disorders and leukaemia. In modern electronics, derivatives of benzene are utilized in the development of conducting polymers and OLEDs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) only one b) only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. It accurately describes its key physical properties: colorless, volatile, aromatic, sweet-smelling, and insoluble in water (as it is a nonpolar organic solvent). Statement 2 is correct. It highlights its role as a base for synthesis in pharmaceuticals, including aspirin, sulfa drugs, and antihistamines, all of which are based on aromatic structures. Statement 3 is correct. It identifies its primary limitation and toxicity. Benzene is a well-established carcinogen (cancer-causing agent), with chronic exposure famously linked to bone marrow suppression and blood cancers like leukaemia. Statement 4 is correct. It points to its modern applications beyond traditional chemistry. Its aromatic ring structure is foundational to materials used in conducting polymers and Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) for flexible electronics. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. It accurately describes its key physical properties: colorless, volatile, aromatic, sweet-smelling, and insoluble in water (as it is a nonpolar organic solvent). Statement 2 is correct. It highlights its role as a base for synthesis in pharmaceuticals, including aspirin, sulfa drugs, and antihistamines, all of which are based on aromatic structures. Statement 3 is correct. It identifies its primary limitation and toxicity. Benzene is a well-established carcinogen (cancer-causing agent), with chronic exposure famously linked to bone marrow suppression and blood cancers like leukaemia. Statement 4 is correct. It points to its modern applications beyond traditional chemistry. Its aromatic ring structure is foundational to materials used in conducting polymers and Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) for flexible electronics.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about Benzene (C₆H₆):

• It is a volatile, aromatic hydrocarbon that is insoluble in water and possesses a sweet smell.

• It serves as the structural foundation for pharmaceuticals such as aspirin, sulfa drugs, and antihistamines.

• Benzene is classified as a known carcinogen, with prolonged exposure primarily linked to bone marrow disorders and leukaemia.

• In modern electronics, derivatives of benzene are utilized in the development of conducting polymers and OLEDs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) only one

• b) only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. It accurately describes its key physical properties: colorless, volatile, aromatic, sweet-smelling, and insoluble in water (as it is a nonpolar organic solvent).

• Statement 2 is correct. It highlights its role as a base for synthesis in pharmaceuticals, including aspirin, sulfa drugs, and antihistamines, all of which are based on aromatic structures.

• Statement 3 is correct. It identifies its primary limitation and toxicity. Benzene is a well-established carcinogen (cancer-causing agent), with chronic exposure famously linked to bone marrow suppression and blood cancers like leukaemia.

Statement 4 is correct. It points to its modern applications beyond traditional chemistry. Its aromatic ring structure is foundational to materials used in conducting polymers and Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) for flexible electronics.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. It accurately describes its key physical properties: colorless, volatile, aromatic, sweet-smelling, and insoluble in water (as it is a nonpolar organic solvent).

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Vande Mataram’: It was first published in Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s novel Anandamath. The first public rendition of the song was performed by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress. The Indian National Congress adopted the entire song as India’s National Song to promote secularism. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. “Vande Mataram” was first published in the novel Anandamath in 1882. Statement 2 is correct. The song was first sung publicly by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 Congress Session in Calcutta, marking its entry into the political sphere. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian National Congress (1937) adopted only the first two stanzas as the National Song, not the entire song. This decision was taken precisely to ensure inclusivity and secular appeal, as the later stanzas contained religious imagery that was not universally accepted. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. “Vande Mataram” was first published in the novel Anandamath in 1882. Statement 2 is correct. The song was first sung publicly by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 Congress Session in Calcutta, marking its entry into the political sphere. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian National Congress (1937) adopted only the first two stanzas as the National Song, not the entire song. This decision was taken precisely to ensure inclusivity and secular appeal, as the later stanzas contained religious imagery that was not universally accepted.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Vande Mataram’:

• It was first published in Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay’s novel Anandamath.

• The first public rendition of the song was performed by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.

• The Indian National Congress adopted the entire song as India’s National Song to promote secularism.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. “Vande Mataram” was first published in the novel Anandamath in 1882.

• Statement 2 is correct. The song was first sung publicly by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 Congress Session in Calcutta, marking its entry into the political sphere.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Indian National Congress (1937) adopted only the first two stanzas as the National Song, not the entire song. This decision was taken precisely to ensure inclusivity and secular appeal, as the later stanzas contained religious imagery that was not universally accepted.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. “Vande Mataram” was first published in the novel Anandamath in 1882.

• Statement 2 is correct. The song was first sung publicly by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 Congress Session in Calcutta, marking its entry into the political sphere.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points The development of CRYODIL by ICAR–National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) is a significant advancement for India’s dairy sector primarily because it: (a) allows for the genetic modification of buffalo bulls to enhance milk productivity. (b) introduces a new nutritional supplement for buffalo that directly increases milk yield. (c) enhances the success rate of artificial insemination by providing a stable, cost-effective, and contamination-free semen extender. (d) facilitates the cross-breeding of indigenous buffalo with exotic cattle species. Correct Solution: C (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. CRYODIL is not a genetic tool, a nutritional supplement, or a cross-breeding program. It is a preservation technology. (c) is correct. CRYODIL’s value is in improving breeding efficiency. By being stable (18-month shelf life), cost-effective (indigenous, cheaper than imports), and contamination-free (egg yolk-free), it directly improves the quality of preserved semen. This leads to higher post-thaw motility and fertility, thus boosting the success rate of artificial insemination (AI), which is the cornerstone of modern dairy herd improvement. About CRYODIL: What it is? CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility. Developed by: Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru. Aim: To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India. Features: Long Shelf Life: Preserves semen for up to 18 months without contamination or loss of motility. Microbe-Free Solution: Eliminates risk of microbial contamination associated with egg yolks. Stable Composition: Uses purified whey proteins instead of egg yolk, ensuring consistent semen quality. Cost-Effective: Cheaper and easier to produce compared to imported commercial extenders. Field-Tested Innovation: Successfully tested on 24 buffalo bulls, showing higher post-thaw sperm movement and fertility potential. Incorrect Solution: C (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. CRYODIL is not a genetic tool, a nutritional supplement, or a cross-breeding program. It is a preservation technology. (c) is correct. CRYODIL’s value is in improving breeding efficiency. By being stable (18-month shelf life), cost-effective (indigenous, cheaper than imports), and contamination-free (egg yolk-free), it directly improves the quality of preserved semen. This leads to higher post-thaw motility and fertility, thus boosting the success rate of artificial insemination (AI), which is the cornerstone of modern dairy herd improvement. About CRYODIL: What it is? CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility. Developed by: Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru. Aim: To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India. Features: Long Shelf Life: Preserves semen for up to 18 months without contamination or loss of motility. Microbe-Free Solution: Eliminates risk of microbial contamination associated with egg yolks. Stable Composition: Uses purified whey proteins instead of egg yolk, ensuring consistent semen quality. Cost-Effective: Cheaper and easier to produce compared to imported commercial extenders. Field-Tested Innovation: Successfully tested on 24 buffalo bulls, showing higher post-thaw sperm movement and fertility potential.

#### 6. Question

The development of CRYODIL by ICAR–National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) is a significant advancement for India’s dairy sector primarily because it:

• (a) allows for the genetic modification of buffalo bulls to enhance milk productivity.

• (b) introduces a new nutritional supplement for buffalo that directly increases milk yield.

• (c) enhances the success rate of artificial insemination by providing a stable, cost-effective, and contamination-free semen extender.

• (d) facilitates the cross-breeding of indigenous buffalo with exotic cattle species.

Solution: C

• (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. CRYODIL is not a genetic tool, a nutritional supplement, or a cross-breeding program. It is a preservation technology.

• (c) is correct. CRYODIL’s value is in improving breeding efficiency. By being stable (18-month shelf life), cost-effective (indigenous, cheaper than imports), and contamination-free (egg yolk-free), it directly improves the quality of preserved semen. This leads to higher post-thaw motility and fertility, thus boosting the success rate of artificial insemination (AI), which is the cornerstone of modern dairy herd improvement.

About CRYODIL:

• What it is? CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility.

• CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility.

• Developed by: Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru.

• Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru.

• Aim: To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India.

• To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India.

• Features:

• Long Shelf Life: Preserves semen for up to 18 months without contamination or loss of motility. Microbe-Free Solution: Eliminates risk of microbial contamination associated with egg yolks. Stable Composition: Uses purified whey proteins instead of egg yolk, ensuring consistent semen quality. Cost-Effective: Cheaper and easier to produce compared to imported commercial extenders. Field-Tested Innovation: Successfully tested on 24 buffalo bulls, showing higher post-thaw sperm movement and fertility potential.

• Long Shelf Life: Preserves semen for up to 18 months without contamination or loss of motility.

• Microbe-Free Solution: Eliminates risk of microbial contamination associated with egg yolks.

• Stable Composition: Uses purified whey proteins instead of egg yolk, ensuring consistent semen quality.

• Cost-Effective: Cheaper and easier to produce compared to imported commercial extenders.

• Field-Tested Innovation: Successfully tested on 24 buffalo bulls, showing higher post-thaw sperm movement and fertility potential.

Solution: C

• (a), (b), and (d) are incorrect. CRYODIL is not a genetic tool, a nutritional supplement, or a cross-breeding program. It is a preservation technology.

About CRYODIL:

• What it is? CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility.

• CRYODIL is a ready-to-use, egg yolk-free semen extender designed to preserve buffalo semen for long durations while maintaining fertility and motility.

• Developed by: Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru.

• Developed by scientists at the National Institute of Animal Nutrition and Physiology (NIANP) under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Bengaluru.

• Aim: To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India.

• To provide a safe, efficient, and affordable alternative to traditional egg-yolk-based semen extenders and enhance buffalo breeding efficiency in India.

• Features:

• Long Shelf Life: Preserves semen for up to 18 months without contamination or loss of motility.

• Microbe-Free Solution: Eliminates risk of microbial contamination associated with egg yolks.

• Stable Composition: Uses purified whey proteins instead of egg yolk, ensuring consistent semen quality.

• Cost-Effective: Cheaper and easier to produce compared to imported commercial extenders.

• Field-Tested Innovation: Successfully tested on 24 buffalo bulls, showing higher post-thaw sperm movement and fertility potential.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding East Timor and ASEAN: East Timor is a landlocked nation in Southeast Asia. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established with all ten of its previous members as founding signatories. East Timor’s admission to ASEAN in 2025 marks the bloc’s first-ever expansion since its original formation in 1967. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. East Timor is an island nation, not landlocked. It occupies the eastern half of Timor Island and is bordered by Indonesia to the west and surrounded by sea, including the Timor Sea to the south. Statement 2 is incorrect. ASEAN was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1967 with only five founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. The other five (Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia) joined much later, primarily in the 1980s and 1990s. Statement 3 is incorrect. East Timor’s admission is the bloc’s first expansion since the 1990s (when Cambodia joined), not its first-ever expansion. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. East Timor is an island nation, not landlocked. It occupies the eastern half of Timor Island and is bordered by Indonesia to the west and surrounded by sea, including the Timor Sea to the south. Statement 2 is incorrect. ASEAN was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1967 with only five founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. The other five (Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia) joined much later, primarily in the 1980s and 1990s. Statement 3 is incorrect. East Timor’s admission is the bloc’s first expansion since the 1990s (when Cambodia joined), not its first-ever expansion.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding East Timor and ASEAN:

• East Timor is a landlocked nation in Southeast Asia.

• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established with all ten of its previous members as founding signatories.

• East Timor’s admission to ASEAN in 2025 marks the bloc’s first-ever expansion since its original formation in 1967.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. East Timor is an island nation, not landlocked. It occupies the eastern half of Timor Island and is bordered by Indonesia to the west and surrounded by sea, including the Timor Sea to the south.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. ASEAN was established by the Bangkok Declaration in 1967 with only five founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. The other five (Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia) joined much later, primarily in the 1980s and 1990s.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. East Timor’s admission is the bloc’s first expansion since the 1990s (when Cambodia joined), not its first-ever expansion.

Solution: D

• Statement 3 is incorrect. East Timor’s admission is the bloc’s first expansion since the 1990s (when Cambodia joined), not its first-ever expansion.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following is not an objective or function of the New Development Bank (NDB)? (a) To mobilize long-term resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in EMDCs. (b) To provide an alternative to Western-led lending models with an emphasis on equity and sovereignty. (c) To provide short-term liquidity support to members facing balance of payments crises through currency swaps. (d) To issue financial instruments like green bonds to fund environmentally aligned projects. Correct Solution: C The New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) were established simultaneously by the BRICS nations. Their functions are distinct. The NDB‘s role (options a, b, d) is that of a multilateral development bank: it provides long-term project financing for infrastructure and sustainable development (like the World Bank). It emphasizes equity, no veto power, and local currency financing as an alternative model. It has also issued green bonds. The function described in (c)—providing short-term liquidity support to members facing balance of payments (BOP) problems—is the specific mandate of the CRA. The CRA functions as a financial safety net, similar to the role of the IMF. Therefore, providing short-term BOP support is a function of the CRA, not the NDB. Incorrect Solution: C The New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) were established simultaneously by the BRICS nations. Their functions are distinct. The NDB‘s role (options a, b, d) is that of a multilateral development bank: it provides long-term project financing for infrastructure and sustainable development (like the World Bank). It emphasizes equity, no veto power, and local currency financing as an alternative model. It has also issued green bonds. The function described in (c)—providing short-term liquidity support to members facing balance of payments (BOP) problems—is the specific mandate of the CRA. The CRA functions as a financial safety net, similar to the role of the IMF. Therefore, providing short-term BOP support is a function of the CRA, not the NDB.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following is not an objective or function of the New Development Bank (NDB)?

• (a) To mobilize long-term resources for infrastructure and sustainable development in EMDCs.

• (b) To provide an alternative to Western-led lending models with an emphasis on equity and sovereignty.

• (c) To provide short-term liquidity support to members facing balance of payments crises through currency swaps.

• (d) To issue financial instruments like green bonds to fund environmentally aligned projects.

Solution: C

The New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) were established simultaneously by the BRICS nations. Their functions are distinct.

• The NDB‘s role (options a, b, d) is that of a multilateral development bank: it provides long-term project financing for infrastructure and sustainable development (like the World Bank). It emphasizes equity, no veto power, and local currency financing as an alternative model. It has also issued green bonds.

• The function described in (c)—providing short-term liquidity support to members facing balance of payments (BOP) problems—is the specific mandate of the CRA. The CRA functions as a financial safety net, similar to the role of the IMF. Therefore, providing short-term BOP support is a function of the CRA, not the NDB.

Solution: C

The New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) were established simultaneously by the BRICS nations. Their functions are distinct.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Committee of Experts on Global Geospatial Information Management – Asia and the Pacific (UN-GGIM-AP): Its primary aim is to maximize the socio-economic and environmental value of geospatial data through regional collaboration. India’s election as Co-Chair reflects its growing role in shaping global geospatial policy. The UN-GGIM-AP functions independently, without any partnership with other UN bodies like ESCAP. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. This is the stated aim of the UN-GGIM-AP: to maximize the value of geospatial information for sustainable development, economic growth, and environmental management by promoting regional cooperation, data sharing, and innovation among its 56 member states. Statement 2 is correct. India’s election to a leadership position (Co-Chair) in a significant UN regional body for geospatial information is a clear indicator of its increasing influence and leadership in this strategic domain. It acknowledges India’s contributions to advancing geospatial technology and policy. Statement 3 is incorrect. Since 2018, the UN-ESCAP Secretariat supports UN-GGIM-AP operations. This partnership is crucial for strengthening institutional capacity and facilitating the committee’s work, proving it does not function independently of other UN bodies. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. This is the stated aim of the UN-GGIM-AP: to maximize the value of geospatial information for sustainable development, economic growth, and environmental management by promoting regional cooperation, data sharing, and innovation among its 56 member states. Statement 2 is correct. India’s election to a leadership position (Co-Chair) in a significant UN regional body for geospatial information is a clear indicator of its increasing influence and leadership in this strategic domain. It acknowledges India’s contributions to advancing geospatial technology and policy. Statement 3 is incorrect. Since 2018, the UN-ESCAP Secretariat supports UN-GGIM-AP operations. This partnership is crucial for strengthening institutional capacity and facilitating the committee’s work, proving it does not function independently of other UN bodies.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Committee of Experts on Global Geospatial Information Management – Asia and the Pacific (UN-GGIM-AP):

• Its primary aim is to maximize the socio-economic and environmental value of geospatial data through regional collaboration.

• India’s election as Co-Chair reflects its growing role in shaping global geospatial policy.

• The UN-GGIM-AP functions independently, without any partnership with other UN bodies like ESCAP.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. This is the stated aim of the UN-GGIM-AP: to maximize the value of geospatial information for sustainable development, economic growth, and environmental management by promoting regional cooperation, data sharing, and innovation among its 56 member states.

• Statement 2 is correct. India’s election to a leadership position (Co-Chair) in a significant UN regional body for geospatial information is a clear indicator of its increasing influence and leadership in this strategic domain. It acknowledges India’s contributions to advancing geospatial technology and policy.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Since 2018, the UN-ESCAP Secretariat supports UN-GGIM-AP operations. This partnership is crucial for strengthening institutional capacity and facilitating the committee’s work, proving it does not function independently of other UN bodies.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY): The scheme provides a health cover of ₹5 lakh per annum to every individual belonging to the bottom 40% of the population. The identification of beneficiaries is based primarily on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data. The scheme’s coverage includes pre-existing diseases from the first day of enrolment. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The health cover of ₹5 lakh is per family per year, not per individual. This is a crucial distinction, as the benefit is provided on a family floater basis with no cap on family size. Statement 2 is correct. The eligibility under PM-JAY is “primarily based on SECC-2011 data,” although it has been expanded to include senior citizens aged 70+. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the scheme to provide comprehensive coverage is that “pre-existing diseases are covered from day one.” Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The health cover of ₹5 lakh is per family per year, not per individual. This is a crucial distinction, as the benefit is provided on a family floater basis with no cap on family size. Statement 2 is correct. The eligibility under PM-JAY is “primarily based on SECC-2011 data,” although it has been expanded to include senior citizens aged 70+. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the scheme to provide comprehensive coverage is that “pre-existing diseases are covered from day one.”

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY):

• The scheme provides a health cover of ₹5 lakh per annum to every individual belonging to the bottom 40% of the population.

• The identification of beneficiaries is based primarily on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data.

• The scheme’s coverage includes pre-existing diseases from the first day of enrolment.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The health cover of ₹5 lakh is per family per year, not per individual. This is a crucial distinction, as the benefit is provided on a family floater basis with no cap on family size.

• Statement 2 is correct. The eligibility under PM-JAY is “primarily based on SECC-2011 data,” although it has been expanded to include senior citizens aged 70+.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the scheme to provide comprehensive coverage is that “pre-existing diseases are covered from day one.”

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct. The eligibility under PM-JAY is “primarily based on SECC-2011 data,” although it has been expanded to include senior citizens aged 70+.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the scheme to provide comprehensive coverage is that “pre-existing diseases are covered from day one.”

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