UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 May 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technology. Statement-I: Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technologies capture carbon dioxide (CO2​) from industrial emissions and convert it into value-added products, contributing to net-zero pathways. Statement-II: CCU is considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies in hard-to-abate sectors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) encompasses a range of technologies designed to capture CO2​ primarily from industrial sources (like cement or steel plants) or even directly from the atmosphere. This captured CO2​ is then utilized to create various products such as synthetic fuels, chemicals (e.g., urea), building materials (e.g., concrete aggregates), or used directly (e.g., in food and beverage). This approach aims to reduce net CO2​ emissions and can play a role in achieving net-zero targets, especially in sectors where emissions are difficult to eliminate entirely. Statement-II is incorrect. While CCU offers a promising pathway for mitigating emissions from hard-to-abate sectors, it is not considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies. Experts and reports emphasize that CCU should complement, not replace, efforts to reduce emissions at the source through energy efficiency, fuel switching, and process innovations. The limitations of CCU, such as energy intensity, market size for CO2​-based products, and variable climate benefits, mean it’s a part of a broader decarbonization toolkit rather than a standalone solution. About Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU): What is CCU? CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products. It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS). How It Works? CCU comprises three key stages: Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air). Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship. Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂. Types of Carbon Capture: Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly). Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants). Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture. Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration). Features of Indian CCU Testbeds: Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration. Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry. Limitations of CCU: Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small. Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC. Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity. Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) encompasses a range of technologies designed to capture CO2​ primarily from industrial sources (like cement or steel plants) or even directly from the atmosphere. This captured CO2​ is then utilized to create various products such as synthetic fuels, chemicals (e.g., urea), building materials (e.g., concrete aggregates), or used directly (e.g., in food and beverage). This approach aims to reduce net CO2​ emissions and can play a role in achieving net-zero targets, especially in sectors where emissions are difficult to eliminate entirely. Statement-II is incorrect. While CCU offers a promising pathway for mitigating emissions from hard-to-abate sectors, it is not considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies. Experts and reports emphasize that CCU should complement, not replace, efforts to reduce emissions at the source through energy efficiency, fuel switching, and process innovations. The limitations of CCU, such as energy intensity, market size for CO2​-based products, and variable climate benefits, mean it’s a part of a broader decarbonization toolkit rather than a standalone solution. About Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU): What is CCU? CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products. It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS). How It Works? CCU comprises three key stages: Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air). Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship. Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂. Types of Carbon Capture: Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly). Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants). Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture. Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration). Features of Indian CCU Testbeds: Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration. Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry. Limitations of CCU: Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small. Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC. Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity. Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technology.
Statement-I: Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technologies capture carbon dioxide (CO2​) from industrial emissions and convert it into value-added products, contributing to net-zero pathways.
Statement-II: CCU is considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies in hard-to-abate sectors.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) encompasses a range of technologies designed to capture CO2​ primarily from industrial sources (like cement or steel plants) or even directly from the atmosphere. This captured CO2​ is then utilized to create various products such as synthetic fuels, chemicals (e.g., urea), building materials (e.g., concrete aggregates), or used directly (e.g., in food and beverage). This approach aims to reduce net CO2​ emissions and can play a role in achieving net-zero targets, especially in sectors where emissions are difficult to eliminate entirely.
Statement-II is incorrect. While CCU offers a promising pathway for mitigating emissions from hard-to-abate sectors, it is not considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies. Experts and reports emphasize that CCU should complement, not replace, efforts to reduce emissions at the source through energy efficiency, fuel switching, and process innovations. The limitations of CCU, such as energy intensity, market size for CO2​-based products, and variable climate benefits, mean it’s a part of a broader decarbonization toolkit rather than a standalone solution.
About Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU):
• What is CCU?
• CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products. It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS).
• CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products.
• It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS).
• How It Works? CCU comprises three key stages:
• CCU comprises three key stages:
• Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air). Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship. Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂.
• Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air).
• Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship.
• Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂.
• Types of Carbon Capture:
• Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly). Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants). Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture. Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration).
• Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly).
• Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants).
• Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture.
• Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration).
• Features of Indian CCU Testbeds:
• Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration. Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry.
• Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement
• NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana)
• IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement
• IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement
• CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement
• IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement
• Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration.
• Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.
• Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry.
• Limitations of CCU:
• Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small. Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC. Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity. Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it.
• Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small.
• Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC.
• Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity.
• Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it.
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) encompasses a range of technologies designed to capture CO2​ primarily from industrial sources (like cement or steel plants) or even directly from the atmosphere. This captured CO2​ is then utilized to create various products such as synthetic fuels, chemicals (e.g., urea), building materials (e.g., concrete aggregates), or used directly (e.g., in food and beverage). This approach aims to reduce net CO2​ emissions and can play a role in achieving net-zero targets, especially in sectors where emissions are difficult to eliminate entirely.
Statement-II is incorrect. While CCU offers a promising pathway for mitigating emissions from hard-to-abate sectors, it is not considered a comprehensive substitute for direct emissions reduction strategies. Experts and reports emphasize that CCU should complement, not replace, efforts to reduce emissions at the source through energy efficiency, fuel switching, and process innovations. The limitations of CCU, such as energy intensity, market size for CO2​-based products, and variable climate benefits, mean it’s a part of a broader decarbonization toolkit rather than a standalone solution.
About Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU):
• What is CCU?
• CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products. It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS).
• CCU refers to technologies that capture carbon dioxide (CO₂) from industrial emissions and utilize it either directly or after converting it into value-added products.
• It is a sub-set of Carbon Capture, Utilisation, and Storage (CCUS).
• How It Works? CCU comprises three key stages:
• CCU comprises three key stages:
• Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air). Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship. Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂.
• Capture – CO₂ is separated from emission sources (e.g., flue gas or air).
• Transport – The captured CO₂ is compressed and transported via pipeline, road, or ship.
• Utilisation – CO₂ is converted into products like synthetic fuels, urea, concrete aggregates, chemicals, or food-grade CO₂.
• Types of Carbon Capture:
• Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly). Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants). Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture. Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration).
• Post-combustion: Captures CO₂ after fuel is burned (retrofit-friendly).
• Pre-combustion: Captures CO₂ before combustion by gasifying fuel (better for new plants).
• Oxy-fuel combustion: Uses pure oxygen to burn fuel, simplifying CO₂ capture.
• Direct Air Capture (DAC): Extracts CO₂ from ambient air using sorbents or solvents (high cost, low concentration).
• Features of Indian CCU Testbeds:
• Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration. Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry.
• Five pilot testbeds to be set up in partnership with top academic and industrial institutions: NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana) IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement
• NCCBM + JK Cement (Haryana)
• IIT Kanpur + JSW Cement
• IIT Bombay + Dalmia Cement
• CSIR-IIP + IIT Tirupati + IISc + JSW Cement
• IIT Madras + BITS Pilani Goa + Ultratech Cement
• Focus: Translational R&D, CO₂ catalysis, vacuum-based gas separation, and industrial integration.
• Funding: Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.
• Strategic intent: Combat EU’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and future-proof Indian industry.
• Limitations of CCU:
• Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small. Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC. Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity. Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it.
• Limited Market Size: CO₂-based product markets are still small.
• Energy Intensity: High energy required, especially in DAC.
• Variable Climate Benefit: Impact depends on source of CO₂, end-product life cycle, and process carbon intensity.
• Not a Substitute for Mitigation: Best used to complement emissions reduction, not replace it.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the recent South Australia algal bloom caused by Karenia mikimotoi: Karenia mikimotoi is a species of non-toxic cyanobacteria. The bloom created oxygen-depleted zones and affected marine life primarily by entangling them. The March 2025 bloom was the largest recorded in South Australia, linked to marine heatwaves. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae, not non-toxic cyanobacteria. Dinoflagellates are a distinct group of protists. While it contains photosynthetic pigments, it is specifically identified as a dinoflagellate that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bloom does create oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones which harm marine life, Karenia mikimotoi also produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) and can block fish gills. The primary impact is through toxicity and anoxia, not merely entanglement, although physical presence might contribute to stress. Statement 3 is correct. March 2025 event marked the largest bloom of *Karenia mikimotoi* in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. It also explicitly links the bloom’s trigger to marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change, and calm sea conditions. This highlights the environmental factors contributing to the severity of the bloom. About South Australia Algal Bloom: What It Is? Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides. Classification: Kingdom: Protista Phylum: Dinoflagellata It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates. Historical Occurrence: First identified in Japan in 1935. Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia. March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. Recent 2025 Bloom: Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula Key Features: Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months. Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths. Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills. Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration. Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches. Impacts: Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished. Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity. Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods. Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers. Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae, not non-toxic cyanobacteria. Dinoflagellates are a distinct group of protists. While it contains photosynthetic pigments, it is specifically identified as a dinoflagellate that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bloom does create oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones which harm marine life, Karenia mikimotoi also produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) and can block fish gills. The primary impact is through toxicity and anoxia, not merely entanglement, although physical presence might contribute to stress. Statement 3 is correct. March 2025 event marked the largest bloom of *Karenia mikimotoi* in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. It also explicitly links the bloom’s trigger to marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change, and calm sea conditions. This highlights the environmental factors contributing to the severity of the bloom. About South Australia Algal Bloom: What It Is? Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides. Classification: Kingdom: Protista Phylum: Dinoflagellata It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates. Historical Occurrence: First identified in Japan in 1935. Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia. March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. Recent 2025 Bloom: Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula Key Features: Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months. Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths. Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills. Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration. Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches. Impacts: Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished. Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity. Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods. Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers. Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the recent South Australia algal bloom caused by Karenia mikimotoi:
• Karenia mikimotoi is a species of non-toxic cyanobacteria.
• The bloom created oxygen-depleted zones and affected marine life primarily by entangling them.
• The March 2025 bloom was the largest recorded in South Australia, linked to marine heatwaves.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae, not non-toxic cyanobacteria. Dinoflagellates are a distinct group of protists. While it contains photosynthetic pigments, it is specifically identified as a dinoflagellate that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs).
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bloom does create oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones which harm marine life, Karenia mikimotoi also produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) and can block fish gills. The primary impact is through toxicity and anoxia, not merely entanglement, although physical presence might contribute to stress.
• Statement 3 is correct. March 2025 event marked the largest bloom of *Karenia mikimotoi* in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. It also explicitly links the bloom’s trigger to marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change, and calm sea conditions. This highlights the environmental factors contributing to the severity of the bloom.
About South Australia Algal Bloom:
• What It Is?
• Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides.
• Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides.
• Classification:
• Kingdom: Protista Phylum: Dinoflagellata It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates.
• Kingdom: Protista
• Phylum: Dinoflagellata
• It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates.
• Historical Occurrence:
• First identified in Japan in 1935. Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia. March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km.
• First identified in Japan in 1935.
• Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia.
• March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km.
• Recent 2025 Bloom:
• Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula
• Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula
• Key Features:
• Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months. Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths. Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills. Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration. Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches.
• Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months.
• Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths.
• Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills.
• Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration.
• Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches.
• Impacts:
• Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished. Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity. Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods. Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers. Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions.
• Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished.
• Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity.
• Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods.
• Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers.
• Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae, not non-toxic cyanobacteria. Dinoflagellates are a distinct group of protists. While it contains photosynthetic pigments, it is specifically identified as a dinoflagellate that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs).
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bloom does create oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones which harm marine life, Karenia mikimotoi also produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) and can block fish gills. The primary impact is through toxicity and anoxia, not merely entanglement, although physical presence might contribute to stress.
• Statement 3 is correct. March 2025 event marked the largest bloom of *Karenia mikimotoi* in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km. It also explicitly links the bloom’s trigger to marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change, and calm sea conditions. This highlights the environmental factors contributing to the severity of the bloom.
About South Australia Algal Bloom:
• What It Is?
• Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides.
• Karenia mikimotoi is a species of toxic dinoflagellate algae that forms harmful algal blooms (HABs), commonly referred to as red tides.
• Classification:
• Kingdom: Protista Phylum: Dinoflagellata It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates.
• Kingdom: Protista
• Phylum: Dinoflagellata
• It contains photosynthetic pigments but lacks protective thecal plates.
• Historical Occurrence:
• First identified in Japan in 1935. Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia. March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km.
• First identified in Japan in 1935.
• Since then, detected in Norway, China, USA (east coast), English Channel, and Australia.
• March 2025 marks the largest bloom in South Australia to date, spanning 4,400 sq. km.
• Recent 2025 Bloom:
• Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula
• Coastline of South Australia, affecting: Kangaroo Island, Fleurieu Peninsula, and Yorke Peninsula
• Key Features:
• Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months. Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths. Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills. Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration. Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches.
• Appears as discoloured, foamy water during warmer months.
• Produces toxins (like gymnocin A & B) with low known toxicity but causes large-scale deaths.
• Creates oxygen-depleted (anoxic) zones and blocks fish gills.
• Affects marine life directly through contact and indirectly through water chemistry alteration.
• Associated with skin irritation, breathing issues, sore eyes in humans near affected beaches.
• Impacts:
• Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished. Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity. Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods. Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers. Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions.
• Marine Life Deaths: Over 200 species, including sharks, rays, octopuses, and crabs perished.
• Ecological Damage: Long-term damage to coastal food chains and biodiversity.
• Economic Disruption: Affects fisheries, tourism, and local livelihoods.
• Public Health Risk: Causes respiratory and skin problems in beachgoers.
• Climate Linkage: Triggered by marine heatwaves, intensified by climate change and calm sea conditions.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane developed by DRDO, consider the following statements: It was primarily developed for industrial wastewater treatment. The membrane’s multi-layered structure enhances its resistance to low-pressure environments. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane was specifically developed by DRDO for seawater desalination, i.e., to produce freshwater from saline seawater, not primarily for industrial wastewater treatment. Statement 2 is incorrect. The multi-layered structure of the membrane is designed to increase durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation and it is characterized by high-pressure resistance, making it suitable for harsh marine environments and the high pressures involved in processes like reverse osmosis. It is not for low-pressure environments. About Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane: What it is? A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers. Developed by: Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur – a premier DRDO lab – in collaboration with the Indian Coast Guard. Key Features: Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities. Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation. High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments. Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months. Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway. Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications About Desalination Process: What it is? Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture. How it Works? Major techniques include: Reverse Osmosis: Most widely used; uses semipermeable membranes to filter out salt; energy-efficient but prone to bacterial contamination. Solar Distillation: Mimics the natural water cycle; environmentally friendly but requires large land areas. Nanofiltration: Uses nanotube membranes with high permeability; removes salts and trace pollutants with lower energy use. Electrodialysis: Moves salts through electrically charged membranes; effective especially for brackish water treatment. Gas Hydrate Formation: Forms solid hydrates by combining gas with seawater; as temperature rises, gas is released, leaving purified water behind. Limitations of Desalination: High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water. Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems. Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions. Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution. Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane was specifically developed by DRDO for seawater desalination, i.e., to produce freshwater from saline seawater, not primarily for industrial wastewater treatment. Statement 2 is incorrect. The multi-layered structure of the membrane is designed to increase durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation and it is characterized by high-pressure resistance, making it suitable for harsh marine environments and the high pressures involved in processes like reverse osmosis. It is not for low-pressure environments. About Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane: What it is? A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers. Developed by: Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur – a premier DRDO lab – in collaboration with the Indian Coast Guard. Key Features: Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities. Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation. High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments. Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months. Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway. Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications About Desalination Process: What it is? Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture. How it Works? Major techniques include: Reverse Osmosis: Most widely used; uses semipermeable membranes to filter out salt; energy-efficient but prone to bacterial contamination. Solar Distillation: Mimics the natural water cycle; environmentally friendly but requires large land areas. Nanofiltration: Uses nanotube membranes with high permeability; removes salts and trace pollutants with lower energy use. Electrodialysis: Moves salts through electrically charged membranes; effective especially for brackish water treatment. Gas Hydrate Formation: Forms solid hydrates by combining gas with seawater; as temperature rises, gas is released, leaving purified water behind. Limitations of Desalination: High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water. Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems. Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions. Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution. Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability.
#### 3. Question
Regarding the Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane developed by DRDO, consider the following statements:
• It was primarily developed for industrial wastewater treatment.
• The membrane’s multi-layered structure enhances its resistance to low-pressure environments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane was specifically developed by DRDO for seawater desalination, i.e., to produce freshwater from saline seawater, not primarily for industrial wastewater treatment.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The multi-layered structure of the membrane is designed to increase durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation and it is characterized by high-pressure resistance, making it suitable for harsh marine environments and the high pressures involved in processes like reverse osmosis. It is not for low-pressure environments.
About Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane:
• What it is?
• A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers.
• A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers.
• Developed by: Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur – a premier DRDO lab – in collaboration with the Indian Coast Guard.
• Key Features:
• Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities. Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation. High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments. Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months. Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway. Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications
• Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities.
• Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation.
• High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments.
• Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months.
• Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway.
• Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications
About Desalination Process:
• What it is?
• Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture.
• Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture.
• How it Works?
Major techniques include:
• Reverse Osmosis: Most widely used; uses semipermeable membranes to filter out salt; energy-efficient but prone to bacterial contamination.
• Solar Distillation: Mimics the natural water cycle; environmentally friendly but requires large land areas.
• Nanofiltration: Uses nanotube membranes with high permeability; removes salts and trace pollutants with lower energy use.
• Electrodialysis: Moves salts through electrically charged membranes; effective especially for brackish water treatment.
• Gas Hydrate Formation: Forms solid hydrates by combining gas with seawater; as temperature rises, gas is released, leaving purified water behind.
• Limitations of Desalination:
• High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water. Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems. Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions. Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution. Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability.
• High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water.
• Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems.
• Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions.
• Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution.
• Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability.
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane was specifically developed by DRDO for seawater desalination, i.e., to produce freshwater from saline seawater, not primarily for industrial wastewater treatment.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The multi-layered structure of the membrane is designed to increase durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation and it is characterized by high-pressure resistance, making it suitable for harsh marine environments and the high pressures involved in processes like reverse osmosis. It is not for low-pressure environments.
About Nanoporous Multi-Layered Polymeric Membrane:
• What it is?
• A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers.
• A high-performance filtration membrane designed to purify seawater by filtering out salts and contaminants using nanoporous polymer layers.
• Developed by: Defence Materials Stores and Research & Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur – a premier DRDO lab – in collaboration with the Indian Coast Guard.
• Key Features:
• Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities. Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation. High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments. Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months. Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway. Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications
• Nanoporous layers: Enable efficient separation of salts and fine impurities.
• Multi-layered structure: Increases durability against high salinity and chloride ion degradation.
• High-pressure resistance: Suitable for harsh marine environments.
• Quick development: Completed in a record 8 months.
• Field-tested: Successfully trialed on an Offshore Patrolling Vessel (OPV) with further 500-hour operational tests underway.
• Scalable: Adaptable for civilian use with minimal modifications
About Desalination Process:
• What it is?
• Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture.
• Desalination is the process of removing dissolved salts and minerals from saline or seawater to produce freshwater for drinking or agriculture.
• How it Works?
Major techniques include:
• Reverse Osmosis: Most widely used; uses semipermeable membranes to filter out salt; energy-efficient but prone to bacterial contamination.
• Solar Distillation: Mimics the natural water cycle; environmentally friendly but requires large land areas.
• Nanofiltration: Uses nanotube membranes with high permeability; removes salts and trace pollutants with lower energy use.
• Electrodialysis: Moves salts through electrically charged membranes; effective especially for brackish water treatment.
• Gas Hydrate Formation: Forms solid hydrates by combining gas with seawater; as temperature rises, gas is released, leaving purified water behind.
• Limitations of Desalination:
• High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water. Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems. Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions. Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution. Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability.
• High Energy Demand: Especially for heating/pressurizing water.
• Brine Disposal: Produces concentrated brine waste harmful to marine ecosystems.
• Cost Issues: Expensive infrastructure and operation, unaffordable for many low-income regions.
• Environmental Impact: Risk of aquifer contamination and marine pollution.
• Solution Pathways: Use of renewables, biotech (e.g., cyanobacteria), and brine reuse in energy or metal recovery can improve sustainability.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about desalination processes. Reverse Osmosis is a highly energy-intensive process compared to Solar Distillation and is rarely used due to its inefficiency. Nanofiltration uses nanotube membranes with high permeability and can remove salts and trace pollutants with higher energy use than Reverse Osmosis. Gas Hydrate Formation for desalination involves combining gas with seawater to form solid hydrates, and upon temperature rise, the gas is released leaving purified water. Brine disposal from desalination plants is generally considered environmentally benign. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most widely used desalination technique and is generally considered more energy-efficient than thermal distillation processes, though still energy-intensive. Solar distillation, while environmentally friendly, is slow and requires large land areas, making RO often preferred for large-scale applications. Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanofiltration does use nanotube membranes and can remove salts and trace pollutants, but it typically operates at lower pressures and thus generally has lower energy use compared to Reverse Osmosis, especially when treating less saline water or for specific ion removal. Statement 3 is correct. Gas Hydrate Formation is an emerging desalination technique where certain gases (like methane or CO2​) are combined with seawater under specific pressure and temperature conditions to form solid, ice-like crystalline structures called gas hydrates. Water molecules form a cage trapping the gas. When these hydrates are separated and the temperature is raised or pressure is reduced, the gas is released (and can be recycled), leaving behind purified water as the ice melts. Statement 4 is incorrect. Brine disposal is a significant environmental concern associated with desalination. This highly concentrated saline wastewater can harm marine ecosystems if discharged directly without proper management, affecting local salinity, temperature, and potentially introducing residual chemicals from the process. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most widely used desalination technique and is generally considered more energy-efficient than thermal distillation processes, though still energy-intensive. Solar distillation, while environmentally friendly, is slow and requires large land areas, making RO often preferred for large-scale applications. Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanofiltration does use nanotube membranes and can remove salts and trace pollutants, but it typically operates at lower pressures and thus generally has lower energy use compared to Reverse Osmosis, especially when treating less saline water or for specific ion removal. Statement 3 is correct. Gas Hydrate Formation is an emerging desalination technique where certain gases (like methane or CO2​) are combined with seawater under specific pressure and temperature conditions to form solid, ice-like crystalline structures called gas hydrates. Water molecules form a cage trapping the gas. When these hydrates are separated and the temperature is raised or pressure is reduced, the gas is released (and can be recycled), leaving behind purified water as the ice melts. Statement 4 is incorrect. Brine disposal is a significant environmental concern associated with desalination. This highly concentrated saline wastewater can harm marine ecosystems if discharged directly without proper management, affecting local salinity, temperature, and potentially introducing residual chemicals from the process.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements about desalination processes.
• Reverse Osmosis is a highly energy-intensive process compared to Solar Distillation and is rarely used due to its inefficiency.
• Nanofiltration uses nanotube membranes with high permeability and can remove salts and trace pollutants with higher energy use than Reverse Osmosis.
• Gas Hydrate Formation for desalination involves combining gas with seawater to form solid hydrates, and upon temperature rise, the gas is released leaving purified water.
• Brine disposal from desalination plants is generally considered environmentally benign.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most widely used desalination technique and is generally considered more energy-efficient than thermal distillation processes, though still energy-intensive. Solar distillation, while environmentally friendly, is slow and requires large land areas, making RO often preferred for large-scale applications.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanofiltration does use nanotube membranes and can remove salts and trace pollutants, but it typically operates at lower pressures and thus generally has lower energy use compared to Reverse Osmosis, especially when treating less saline water or for specific ion removal.
• Statement 3 is correct. Gas Hydrate Formation is an emerging desalination technique where certain gases (like methane or CO2​) are combined with seawater under specific pressure and temperature conditions to form solid, ice-like crystalline structures called gas hydrates. Water molecules form a cage trapping the gas. When these hydrates are separated and the temperature is raised or pressure is reduced, the gas is released (and can be recycled), leaving behind purified water as the ice melts.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. Brine disposal is a significant environmental concern associated with desalination. This highly concentrated saline wastewater can harm marine ecosystems if discharged directly without proper management, affecting local salinity, temperature, and potentially introducing residual chemicals from the process.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most widely used desalination technique and is generally considered more energy-efficient than thermal distillation processes, though still energy-intensive. Solar distillation, while environmentally friendly, is slow and requires large land areas, making RO often preferred for large-scale applications.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Nanofiltration does use nanotube membranes and can remove salts and trace pollutants, but it typically operates at lower pressures and thus generally has lower energy use compared to Reverse Osmosis, especially when treating less saline water or for specific ion removal.
• Statement 3 is correct. Gas Hydrate Formation is an emerging desalination technique where certain gases (like methane or CO2​) are combined with seawater under specific pressure and temperature conditions to form solid, ice-like crystalline structures called gas hydrates. Water molecules form a cage trapping the gas. When these hydrates are separated and the temperature is raised or pressure is reduced, the gas is released (and can be recycled), leaving behind purified water as the ice melts.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. Brine disposal is a significant environmental concern associated with desalination. This highly concentrated saline wastewater can harm marine ecosystems if discharged directly without proper management, affecting local salinity, temperature, and potentially introducing residual chemicals from the process.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Mahadayi River, consider the following statements: It originates in the Western Ghats of Goa and flows eastwards into Karnataka. The Kalasa-Banduri project aims to divert Mahadayi water to the Godavari basin. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located along the banks of the Mahadayi River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka, within the Western Ghats. It then flows westward into Goa before emptying into the Arabian Sea. It does not originate in Goa and flow into Karnataka. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalasa-Banduri Nala project aims to divert water from the Mahadayi’s tributaries (Kalasa and Banduri) to the Malaprabha river basin, which is a tributary of the Krishna River system, not the Godavari basin. The project is intended to meet drinking water needs in drought-prone districts of northern Karnataka. Statement 3 is correct. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, a notable estuarine mangrove habitat, is located on Chorão Island in the Mandovi River (the name Mahadayi is known by in Goa). This is a well-known feature associated with the river in Goa. About Mahadayi River: What it is? Mahadayi (also called Mandovi or Mhadei) is a rain-fed interstate river known as Goa’s lifeline, vital for drinking water, agriculture, biodiversity, and economy. Origin: Originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka. States it flows through: Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa. Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa. Tributaries: Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém. The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers. Mouth: Empties into the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa, near Mormugao Harbour. Features of the River: Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island. Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises). Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge. Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77). What is the Dispute? Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag). Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river. The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act. About Kalasa-Banduri Project: A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system). Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka, within the Western Ghats. It then flows westward into Goa before emptying into the Arabian Sea. It does not originate in Goa and flow into Karnataka. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalasa-Banduri Nala project aims to divert water from the Mahadayi’s tributaries (Kalasa and Banduri) to the Malaprabha river basin, which is a tributary of the Krishna River system, not the Godavari basin. The project is intended to meet drinking water needs in drought-prone districts of northern Karnataka. Statement 3 is correct. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, a notable estuarine mangrove habitat, is located on Chorão Island in the Mandovi River (the name Mahadayi is known by in Goa). This is a well-known feature associated with the river in Goa. About Mahadayi River: What it is? Mahadayi (also called Mandovi or Mhadei) is a rain-fed interstate river known as Goa’s lifeline, vital for drinking water, agriculture, biodiversity, and economy. Origin: Originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka. States it flows through: Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa. Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa. Tributaries: Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém. The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers. Mouth: Empties into the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa, near Mormugao Harbour. Features of the River: Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island. Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises). Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge. Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77). What is the Dispute? Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag). Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river. The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act. About Kalasa-Banduri Project: A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system). Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka.
#### 5. Question
With reference to the Mahadayi River, consider the following statements:
• It originates in the Western Ghats of Goa and flows eastwards into Karnataka.
• The Kalasa-Banduri project aims to divert Mahadayi water to the Godavari basin.
• The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located along the banks of the Mahadayi River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• b) 1 and 2 only
• c) 2 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka, within the Western Ghats. It then flows westward into Goa before emptying into the Arabian Sea. It does not originate in Goa and flow into Karnataka.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalasa-Banduri Nala project aims to divert water from the Mahadayi’s tributaries (Kalasa and Banduri) to the Malaprabha river basin, which is a tributary of the Krishna River system, not the Godavari basin. The project is intended to meet drinking water needs in drought-prone districts of northern Karnataka.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, a notable estuarine mangrove habitat, is located on Chorão Island in the Mandovi River (the name Mahadayi is known by in Goa). This is a well-known feature associated with the river in Goa.
About Mahadayi River:
• What it is? Mahadayi (also called Mandovi or Mhadei) is a rain-fed interstate river known as Goa’s lifeline, vital for drinking water, agriculture, biodiversity, and economy.
• Origin: Originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka.
• States it flows through: Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa. Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa.
• Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa.
• Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa.
• Tributaries: Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém. The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers.
• Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém.
• The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers.
• Mouth: Empties into the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa, near Mormugao Harbour.
• Features of the River: Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island. Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises). Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge. Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77).
• Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island.
• Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises).
• Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge.
• Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77).
• What is the Dispute? Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag). Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river. The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
• Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag).
• Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river.
• The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
• About Kalasa-Banduri Project: A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system). Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka.
• A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system).
• Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahadayi River originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka, within the Western Ghats. It then flows westward into Goa before emptying into the Arabian Sea. It does not originate in Goa and flow into Karnataka.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Kalasa-Banduri Nala project aims to divert water from the Mahadayi’s tributaries (Kalasa and Banduri) to the Malaprabha river basin, which is a tributary of the Krishna River system, not the Godavari basin. The project is intended to meet drinking water needs in drought-prone districts of northern Karnataka.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary, a notable estuarine mangrove habitat, is located on Chorão Island in the Mandovi River (the name Mahadayi is known by in Goa). This is a well-known feature associated with the river in Goa.
About Mahadayi River:
• What it is? Mahadayi (also called Mandovi or Mhadei) is a rain-fed interstate river known as Goa’s lifeline, vital for drinking water, agriculture, biodiversity, and economy.
• Origin: Originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Belagavi district, Karnataka.
• States it flows through: Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa. Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa.
• Flows through Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Goa.
• Total length: 111 km — 35 km in Karnataka, 1 km in Maharashtra, 76 km in Goa.
• Tributaries: Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém. The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers.
• Major tributaries: Kalasa, Banduri, Mapusa, Ragada, Nanuz, Valvoti, Nerul, St. Inez Creek, Dudhsagar, Kotrachi Nadi, Rio de Ourém.
• The Cumbarjua Canal links Mahadayi and Zuari rivers.
• Mouth: Empties into the Arabian Sea at Panaji, Goa, near Mormugao Harbour.
• Features of the River: Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island. Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises). Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge. Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77).
• Known for Dudhsagar Falls, Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary on Chorão Island.
• Supports navigation, iron ore mining transport, and tourism (Mandovi cruises).
• Hosts three parallel bridges including the Atal Setu, Goa’s tallest bridge.
• Catchment area: 2,032 km² (Goa – 1,580; Karnataka – 375; Maharashtra – 77).
• What is the Dispute? Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag). Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river. The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
• Karnataka seeks to divert Mahadayi water for drinking needs in drought-prone districts (Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, Gadag).
• Goa opposes it, citing ecological harm to its wildlife sanctuaries and dependence on the river.
• The issue led to the formation of Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (MWDT) under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
• About Kalasa-Banduri Project: A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system). Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka.
• A Karnataka-proposed project from the 1980s to divert water from Mahadayi (Kalasa & Banduri tributaries) to the Malaprabha basin (Krishna River system).
• Aims to meet drinking water demands in northern Karnataka.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Jnanpith Award: Only Indian citizens are eligible for the award. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, but not English. Once a writer receives the award for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next five years. The award is sometimes conferred posthumously for exceptional contributions to Indian literature. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. A key eligibility criterion for the Jnanpith Award is that only Indian citizens are eligible. Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Additionally, English was included as an eligible language from the 49th Jnanpith Award onwards. Amitav Ghosh was the first English writer to receive this award in 2019. Statement 3 is incorrect. While there is a rule regarding language ineligibility, it is not for five years. Once an award is conferred for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next three years. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Jnanpith Award is not conferred posthumously. It is intended to honor living writers for their outstanding contribution to literature. What is the Jnanpith Award? India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature. Established in: 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, founded by industrialist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain. Objective: To honour literary excellence in Indian languages and promote the cultural and intellectual heritage of India. Historical Background: Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961). First award conferred in 1965. Eligibility Criteria: Only Indian citizens are eligible. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award). A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded. Selection Process: Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country. Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals. Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact. Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision. Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. A key eligibility criterion for the Jnanpith Award is that only Indian citizens are eligible. Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Additionally, English was included as an eligible language from the 49th Jnanpith Award onwards. Amitav Ghosh was the first English writer to receive this award in 2019. Statement 3 is incorrect. While there is a rule regarding language ineligibility, it is not for five years. Once an award is conferred for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next three years. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Jnanpith Award is not conferred posthumously. It is intended to honor living writers for their outstanding contribution to literature. What is the Jnanpith Award? India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature. Established in: 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, founded by industrialist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain. Objective: To honour literary excellence in Indian languages and promote the cultural and intellectual heritage of India. Historical Background: Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961). First award conferred in 1965. Eligibility Criteria: Only Indian citizens are eligible. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award). A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded. Selection Process: Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country. Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals. Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact. Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision. Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Jnanpith Award:
• Only Indian citizens are eligible for the award.
• The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, but not English.
• Once a writer receives the award for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next five years.
• The award is sometimes conferred posthumously for exceptional contributions to Indian literature.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is correct. A key eligibility criterion for the Jnanpith Award is that only Indian citizens are eligible.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Additionally, English was included as an eligible language from the 49th Jnanpith Award onwards. Amitav Ghosh was the first English writer to receive this award in 2019.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While there is a rule regarding language ineligibility, it is not for five years. Once an award is conferred for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next three years.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Jnanpith Award is not conferred posthumously. It is intended to honor living writers for their outstanding contribution to literature.
• What is the Jnanpith Award? India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
• India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
• Established in: 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, founded by industrialist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain.
• Objective: To honour literary excellence in Indian languages and promote the cultural and intellectual heritage of India.
• Historical Background: Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961). First award conferred in 1965.
• Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961).
• First award conferred in 1965.
• Eligibility Criteria: Only Indian citizens are eligible. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award). A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded.
• Only Indian citizens are eligible.
• The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award).
• A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded.
• Selection Process: Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country. Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals. Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact. Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision. Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
• Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country.
• Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals.
• Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts.
• LACs are reconstituted every 3 years.
• Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals.
• Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact.
• Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution.
• Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact.
• Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision.
• Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity.
• Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision.
• Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
• Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque.
• Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh),
• Citation and plaque.
• Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is correct. A key eligibility criterion for the Jnanpith Award is that only Indian citizens are eligible.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Additionally, English was included as an eligible language from the 49th Jnanpith Award onwards. Amitav Ghosh was the first English writer to receive this award in 2019.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While there is a rule regarding language ineligibility, it is not for five years. Once an award is conferred for a work in a particular language, that language becomes ineligible for consideration for the next three years.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Jnanpith Award is not conferred posthumously. It is intended to honor living writers for their outstanding contribution to literature.
• What is the Jnanpith Award? India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
• India’s highest literary honour, awarded annually for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
• Established in: 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, founded by industrialist Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain.
• Objective: To honour literary excellence in Indian languages and promote the cultural and intellectual heritage of India.
• Historical Background: Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961). First award conferred in 1965.
• Idea conceived on Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain’s 50th birthday (22 May 1961).
• First award conferred in 1965.
• Eligibility Criteria: Only Indian citizens are eligible. The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award). A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded.
• Only Indian citizens are eligible.
• The award is open to all Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, and English. (from the 49th award).
• A language becomes ineligible for 3 years once awarded.
• Selection Process: Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country. Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals. Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact. Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision. Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
• Proposals Invited: From universities, literary bodies, critics, and readers across the country.
• Language Advisory Committees (LACs): Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts. LACs are reconstituted every 3 years. Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals.
• Each language has a 3-member committee of literary experts.
• LACs are reconstituted every 3 years.
• Free to consider names beyond submitted proposals.
• Evaluation Criteria: Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution. Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact.
• Comprehensive assessment of an author’s entire literary contribution.
• Must reflect contemporary relevance and cultural impact.
• Selection Board: Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity. Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision.
• Comprises 7 to 11 eminent scholars of high integrity.
• Recommendations from LACs are reviewed for final decision.
• Award Details: Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque. Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
• Award Components: Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh), Citation and plaque.
• Cash prize (currently ₹11 lakh),
• Citation and plaque.
• Earlier awarded for a specific work (first 17 awards); now recognizes overall literary contribution.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s surplus transfer to the government: The RBI, being a commercial entity, transfers its annual profits to the government as a dividend payment. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF) mandates a fixed Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) at 6.0% of the RBI’s balance sheet. Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, allows the RBI to transfer its surplus to the government without making any prior provisions for bad debts or staff benefits. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI is not a commercial entity, and the transfer of its net profit to the Central Government is termed as surplus transfer, not dividend payment. This distinction is important as RBI’s primary objective is not profit generation but monetary stability and economic management. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), based on the Bimal Jalan Committee recommendations, guides the RBI’s risk provisioning. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) is maintained within a range, not a fixed percentage. Initially, this range was 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. However, this framework is subject to periodic review. For FY 2024-25, the CRB range was revised and expanded to 4.5%-7.5%, and the RBI Central Board decided to maintain it at 7.5% for that year’s transfer, demonstrating flexibility. Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, governs the allocation of surplus profits. It explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, staff benefits and superannuation, and other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Prior provisions are therefore a prerequisite. What is Surplus Transfer? The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions. This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity. Legal Framework: Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934. The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Major Sources of RBI’s Income: RBI earns income primarily through: Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems. Key Expenditures of RBI: Printing of currency notes. Staff salaries and retirement benefits. Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions. How is the RBI Surplus Transfer Amount Decided? Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee. Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus. Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June). Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI is not a commercial entity, and the transfer of its net profit to the Central Government is termed as surplus transfer, not dividend payment. This distinction is important as RBI’s primary objective is not profit generation but monetary stability and economic management. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), based on the Bimal Jalan Committee recommendations, guides the RBI’s risk provisioning. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) is maintained within a range, not a fixed percentage. Initially, this range was 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. However, this framework is subject to periodic review. For FY 2024-25, the CRB range was revised and expanded to 4.5%-7.5%, and the RBI Central Board decided to maintain it at 7.5% for that year’s transfer, demonstrating flexibility. Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, governs the allocation of surplus profits. It explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, staff benefits and superannuation, and other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Prior provisions are therefore a prerequisite. What is Surplus Transfer? The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions. This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity. Legal Framework: Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934. The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Major Sources of RBI’s Income: RBI earns income primarily through: Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems. Key Expenditures of RBI: Printing of currency notes. Staff salaries and retirement benefits. Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions. How is the RBI Surplus Transfer Amount Decided? Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee. Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus. Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June).
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s surplus transfer to the government:
• The RBI, being a commercial entity, transfers its annual profits to the government as a dividend payment.
• The Economic Capital Framework (ECF) mandates a fixed Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) at 6.0% of the RBI’s balance sheet.
• Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, allows the RBI to transfer its surplus to the government without making any prior provisions for bad debts or staff benefits.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI is not a commercial entity, and the transfer of its net profit to the Central Government is termed as surplus transfer, not dividend payment. This distinction is important as RBI’s primary objective is not profit generation but monetary stability and economic management.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), based on the Bimal Jalan Committee recommendations, guides the RBI’s risk provisioning. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) is maintained within a range, not a fixed percentage. Initially, this range was 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. However, this framework is subject to periodic review. For FY 2024-25, the CRB range was revised and expanded to 4.5%-7.5%, and the RBI Central Board decided to maintain it at 7.5% for that year’s transfer, demonstrating flexibility.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, governs the allocation of surplus profits. It explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, staff benefits and superannuation, and other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Prior provisions are therefore a prerequisite.
• What is Surplus Transfer?
• The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions. This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity.
• The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions.
• This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity.
• Legal Framework:
• Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934. The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
• The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Bad and doubtful debts,
• Depreciation in assets,
• Staff benefits and superannuation,
• And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Major Sources of RBI’s Income: RBI earns income primarily through:
• RBI earns income primarily through:
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks.
• Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds.
• Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations).
• Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments.
• Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Key Expenditures of RBI:
• Printing of currency notes. Staff salaries and retirement benefits. Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions.
• Printing of currency notes.
• Staff salaries and retirement benefits.
• Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions.
• How is the RBI Surplus Transfer Amount Decided?
• Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee. Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus. Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June).
• Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee.
• Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet.
• Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus.
• Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June).
Solution: d)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI is not a commercial entity, and the transfer of its net profit to the Central Government is termed as surplus transfer, not dividend payment. This distinction is important as RBI’s primary objective is not profit generation but monetary stability and economic management.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Economic Capital Framework (ECF), based on the Bimal Jalan Committee recommendations, guides the RBI’s risk provisioning. The Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) is maintained within a range, not a fixed percentage. Initially, this range was 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. However, this framework is subject to periodic review. For FY 2024-25, the CRB range was revised and expanded to 4.5%-7.5%, and the RBI Central Board decided to maintain it at 7.5% for that year’s transfer, demonstrating flexibility.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934, governs the allocation of surplus profits. It explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, staff benefits and superannuation, and other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India. Prior provisions are therefore a prerequisite.
• What is Surplus Transfer?
• The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions. This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity.
• The RBI transfers its net profit—i.e., total income minus expenditure—to the Central Government, after making necessary provisions.
• This process is termed as surplus transfer and not dividend payment, since RBI is not a commercial entity.
• Legal Framework:
• Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934. The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Governed by Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
• The Act mandates that, after making provisions for: Bad and doubtful debts, Depreciation in assets, Staff benefits and superannuation, And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Bad and doubtful debts,
• Depreciation in assets,
• Staff benefits and superannuation,
• And other routine banking contingencies, the remaining surplus must be transferred to the Government of India.
• Major Sources of RBI’s Income: RBI earns income primarily through:
• RBI earns income primarily through:
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks. Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds. Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations). Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments. Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Interest from foreign assets like bonds, treasury bills, and deposits with other central banks.
• Interest on domestic securities, mainly government bonds.
• Short-term lending to banks (e.g., repo operations).
• Commission for managing borrowings of Central and State governments.
• Service charges for managing the currency and payment systems.
• Key Expenditures of RBI:
• Printing of currency notes. Staff salaries and retirement benefits. Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions.
• Printing of currency notes.
• Staff salaries and retirement benefits.
• Commission to banks and primary dealers involved in public debt transactions.
• How is the RBI Surplus Transfer Amount Decided?
• Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee. Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet. Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus. Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June).
• Based on Economic Capital Framework (ECF): Adopted on August 26, 2019, following the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee.
• Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) Range: Risk provisioning is maintained within 5.5%–6.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet.
• Surplus = Income – Expenditure – Risk Provisions: After accounting for operational expenses and CRB provisioning, the remaining balance is the transferable surplus.
• Approved by RBI Central Board: Final decision taken in the Board meeting post financial year-end (July–June).
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Who was the first Laureate of the World Food Prize, recognized for pioneering India’s Green Revolution? (a) Norman Borlaug (b) Mariangela Hungria (c) S. Swaminathan (d) Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain Correct Solution: c) The first Laureate of the World Food Prize was Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, who received the award in 1987. He was recognized for his instrumental role in pioneering India’s Green Revolution, which significantly boosted agricultural production in the country. Norman Borlaug, a Nobel Laureate, established the World Food Prize in 1986, but he was the founder, not the first recipient. Mariangela Hungria is the 2025 World Food Prize Laureate, recognized for her work on biological nitrogen fixation. Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain was the founder of the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, which established the Jnanpith Award, a literary honor, and is not directly associated with the World Food Prize. About World Food Prize: What is It? The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility. Established: In 1986 by Nobel Laureate Norman Borlaug, supported initially by General Foods Corporation. Administered by: World Food Prize Foundation, headquartered at the Hall of Laureates, Des Moines, Iowa, USA. First Laureate: S. Swaminathan (1987) – Pioneer of India’s Green Revolution. Award Features: $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass. Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium. Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation. Incorrect Solution: c) The first Laureate of the World Food Prize was Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, who received the award in 1987. He was recognized for his instrumental role in pioneering India’s Green Revolution, which significantly boosted agricultural production in the country. Norman Borlaug, a Nobel Laureate, established the World Food Prize in 1986, but he was the founder, not the first recipient. Mariangela Hungria is the 2025 World Food Prize Laureate, recognized for her work on biological nitrogen fixation. Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain was the founder of the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, which established the Jnanpith Award, a literary honor, and is not directly associated with the World Food Prize. About World Food Prize: What is It? The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility. Established: In 1986 by Nobel Laureate Norman Borlaug, supported initially by General Foods Corporation. Administered by: World Food Prize Foundation, headquartered at the Hall of Laureates, Des Moines, Iowa, USA. First Laureate: S. Swaminathan (1987) – Pioneer of India’s Green Revolution. Award Features: $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass. Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium. Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation.
#### 8. Question
Who was the first Laureate of the World Food Prize, recognized for pioneering India’s Green Revolution?
• (a) Norman Borlaug
• (b) Mariangela Hungria
• (c) S. Swaminathan
• (d) Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain
Solution: c)
• The first Laureate of the World Food Prize was Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, who received the award in 1987. He was recognized for his instrumental role in pioneering India’s Green Revolution, which significantly boosted agricultural production in the country.
• Norman Borlaug, a Nobel Laureate, established the World Food Prize in 1986, but he was the founder, not the first recipient.
• Mariangela Hungria is the 2025 World Food Prize Laureate, recognized for her work on biological nitrogen fixation.
• Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain was the founder of the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, which established the Jnanpith Award, a literary honor, and is not directly associated with the World Food Prize.
About World Food Prize:
• What is It?
• The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility.
• The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility.
• Established: In 1986 by Nobel Laureate Norman Borlaug, supported initially by General Foods Corporation.
• Administered by: World Food Prize Foundation, headquartered at the Hall of Laureates, Des Moines, Iowa, USA.
• First Laureate: S. Swaminathan (1987) – Pioneer of India’s Green Revolution.
• Award Features:
• $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass. Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium. Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation.
• $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass.
• Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium.
• Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation.
Solution: c)
• The first Laureate of the World Food Prize was Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, who received the award in 1987. He was recognized for his instrumental role in pioneering India’s Green Revolution, which significantly boosted agricultural production in the country.
• Norman Borlaug, a Nobel Laureate, established the World Food Prize in 1986, but he was the founder, not the first recipient.
• Mariangela Hungria is the 2025 World Food Prize Laureate, recognized for her work on biological nitrogen fixation.
• Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain was the founder of the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust, which established the Jnanpith Award, a literary honor, and is not directly associated with the World Food Prize.
About World Food Prize:
• What is It?
• The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility.
• The World Food Prize is the most prestigious global award recognizing contributions to enhancing food quantity, quality, and accessibility.
• Established: In 1986 by Nobel Laureate Norman Borlaug, supported initially by General Foods Corporation.
• Administered by: World Food Prize Foundation, headquartered at the Hall of Laureates, Des Moines, Iowa, USA.
• First Laureate: S. Swaminathan (1987) – Pioneer of India’s Green Revolution.
• Award Features:
• $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass. Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium. Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation.
• $500,000 cash prize, diploma, and commemorative sculpture by Saul Bass.
• Awarded annually in Des Moines, Iowa, during the Borlaug Dialogue Symposium.
• Recognizes individuals in agriculture, nutrition, food technology, policy, soil science, and hunger alleviation.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil: The revolution primarily focused on the use of genetically modified seeds to enhance crop yields. Key microorganisms involved in this revolution include Rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense, which aid in biological nitrogen fixation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil, led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focused on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants, rather than genetically modified seeds. The core was harnessing natural biological processes. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this revolution was Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), which utilized microorganisms like Rhizobia and *Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form absorbable by soil and plants. Dr. Hungria’s research showed that combining and applying both brasilense and rhizobia could significantly boost yields. About *Micro Green Revolution: What is It? A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants. Key Features: Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form. Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil. Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains. Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil, led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focused on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants, rather than genetically modified seeds. The core was harnessing natural biological processes. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this revolution was Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), which utilized microorganisms like Rhizobia and *Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form absorbable by soil and plants. Dr. Hungria’s research showed that combining and applying both brasilense and rhizobia could significantly boost yields. About *Micro Green Revolution: What is It? A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants. Key Features: Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form. Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil. Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains. Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil:
• The revolution primarily focused on the use of genetically modified seeds to enhance crop yields.
• Key microorganisms involved in this revolution include Rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense, which aid in biological nitrogen fixation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (c) Both 1 and 2
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil, led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focused on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants, rather than genetically modified seeds. The core was harnessing natural biological processes.
• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this revolution was Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), which utilized microorganisms like Rhizobia and *Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form absorbable by soil and plants. Dr. Hungria’s research showed that combining and applying both brasilense* and rhizobia could significantly boost yields.
About Micro Green Revolution:
• What is It?
• A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants.
• A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants.
• Key Features:
• Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form. Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil. Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains. Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage.
• Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form.
• Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil.
• Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains.
• Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025).
• Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains.
• Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The ‘Micro Green Revolution’ in Brazil, led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focused on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants, rather than genetically modified seeds. The core was harnessing natural biological processes.
• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this revolution was Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), which utilized microorganisms like Rhizobia and *Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form absorbable by soil and plants. Dr. Hungria’s research showed that combining and applying both brasilense* and rhizobia could significantly boost yields.
About Micro Green Revolution:
• What is It?
• A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants.
• A movement led by microbiologist Mariangela Hungria, focusing on biological solutions to agricultural productivity, particularly microbial seed and soil inoculants.
• Key Features:
• Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form. Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil. Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains. Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage.
• Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF): Using microorganisms like rhizobia and Azospirillum brasilense to naturally convert atmospheric nitrogen into soil-absorbable form.
• Reduced chemical fertilizer dependency: Saving farmers up to $40 billion annually in Brazil.
• Enhanced crop productivity: Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025). Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains.
• Soybean yield surged from 15 million tonnes (1979) to 173 million tonnes (2025).
• Common beans and pastures saw significant yield gains.
• Restoring degraded lands: First microbial inoculants for pasture grasses, improving biomass and livestock forage.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Narayanpatna goat, consider the following statements: It is a native goat breed primarily found in the plains of coastal Odisha. The breed is characterized by consistently pure white coat colour and absence of horns in both sexes. It plays a significant economic role for tribal communities, serving as a source of meat and income, with women and children actively involved in its rearing. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Narayanpatna goat is native to Odisha’s Eastern Ghats, specifically reared by tribal communities in the hilly, forested terrains of Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput district in Southern Odisha, not the coastal plains. Statement 2 is incorrect. The physical traits of the Narayanpatna goat include a variety of coat colours, often white with black or brown patches, but also pure shades of white, black, or brown. Both sexes typically possess curved horns. A consistently pure white coat and absence of horns are not characteristic features. Statement 3 is correct. The Narayanpatna goat is of significant economic importance to the local tribal communities. It serves as a crucial source of meat and income, acts as a financial buffer during crop failures, and is part of cultural exchanges. Importantly, women and children play active roles in rearing these goats, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods. About Narayanpatna Goat: What is It? A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha. Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions. Native Region: Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats. Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate. Key Features: Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg. Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity. Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention. Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Narayanpatna goat is native to Odisha’s Eastern Ghats, specifically reared by tribal communities in the hilly, forested terrains of Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput district in Southern Odisha, not the coastal plains. Statement 2 is incorrect. The physical traits of the Narayanpatna goat include a variety of coat colours, often white with black or brown patches, but also pure shades of white, black, or brown. Both sexes typically possess curved horns. A consistently pure white coat and absence of horns are not characteristic features. Statement 3 is correct. The Narayanpatna goat is of significant economic importance to the local tribal communities. It serves as a crucial source of meat and income, acts as a financial buffer during crop failures, and is part of cultural exchanges. Importantly, women and children play active roles in rearing these goats, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods. About Narayanpatna Goat: What is It? A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha. Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions. Native Region: Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats. Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate. Key Features: Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg. Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity. Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention. Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
#### 10. Question
With reference to the Narayanpatna goat, consider the following statements:
• It is a native goat breed primarily found in the plains of coastal Odisha.
• The breed is characterized by consistently pure white coat colour and absence of horns in both sexes.
• It plays a significant economic role for tribal communities, serving as a source of meat and income, with women and children actively involved in its rearing.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Narayanpatna goat is native to Odisha’s Eastern Ghats, specifically reared by tribal communities in the hilly, forested terrains of Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput district in Southern Odisha, not the coastal plains.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The physical traits of the Narayanpatna goat include a variety of coat colours, often white with black or brown patches, but also pure shades of white, black, or brown. Both sexes typically possess curved horns. A consistently pure white coat and absence of horns are not characteristic features.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Narayanpatna goat is of significant economic importance to the local tribal communities. It serves as a crucial source of meat and income, acts as a financial buffer during crop failures, and is part of cultural exchanges. Importantly, women and children play active roles in rearing these goats, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
About Narayanpatna Goat:
• What is It?
• A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha. Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions.
• A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha.
• Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions.
• Native Region:
• Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats. Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate.
• Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats.
• Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate.
• Key Features:
• Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg. Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity. Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention. Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
• Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg.
• Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades.
• Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame.
• Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg.
• Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity.
• First kidding at 16–18 months.
• Kidding interval: 8–10 months.
• Twins are common, increasing productivity.
• Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention.
• Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites.
• Requires minimal veterinary intervention.
• Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
• Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages.
• Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures.
• Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Narayanpatna goat is native to Odisha’s Eastern Ghats, specifically reared by tribal communities in the hilly, forested terrains of Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput district in Southern Odisha, not the coastal plains.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The physical traits of the Narayanpatna goat include a variety of coat colours, often white with black or brown patches, but also pure shades of white, black, or brown. Both sexes typically possess curved horns. A consistently pure white coat and absence of horns are not characteristic features.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Narayanpatna goat is of significant economic importance to the local tribal communities. It serves as a crucial source of meat and income, acts as a financial buffer during crop failures, and is part of cultural exchanges. Importantly, women and children play active roles in rearing these goats, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
About Narayanpatna Goat:
• What is It?
• A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha. Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions.
• A non-descriptive native goat breed reared by tribal communities in Koraput district, Southern Odisha.
• Known for its hardiness, reproductive efficiency, and adaptability to harsh agro-climatic conditions.
• Native Region:
• Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats. Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate.
• Found in Narayanpatna and Bandhugaon blocks of Koraput (Odisha), within the Eastern Ghats.
• Reared under extensive, low-input systems in hilly, forested terrains with tropical monsoon climate.
• Key Features:
• Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg. Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity. Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention. Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
• Physical Traits: Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades. Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame. Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg.
• Medium-to-large size; coat colours vary from white with black/brown patches to pure shades.
• Curved horns, drooping ears, and robust frame.
• Bucks weigh 30–35 kg, does 25–30 kg.
• Reproductive Traits: First kidding at 16–18 months. Kidding interval: 8–10 months. Twins are common, increasing productivity.
• First kidding at 16–18 months.
• Kidding interval: 8–10 months.
• Twins are common, increasing productivity.
• Disease Resistance: Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites. Requires minimal veterinary intervention.
• Naturally selected for resistance to common endo- and ecto-parasites.
• Requires minimal veterinary intervention.
• Economic Importance: Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages. Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures. Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
• Source of meat, income, and cultural exchange during rituals and marriages.
• Acts as a financial buffer during crop failures.
• Women and children play active roles in rearing, promoting gender-inclusive livelihoods.
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