UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about polio disease and its effects: Polio primarily affects adults and is rarely seen in children under five. Polio is highly infectious and affects the nervous system, potentially causing paralysis. All types of polio infections lead to visible symptoms and paralysis in infected individuals. Polio has no known impact on the respiratory system. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 2 is correct, as polio is highly infectious and attacks the nervous system, which can result in paralysis or even death. Statement 1 is incorrect; polio primarily affects children under five years of age. Statement 3 is also incorrect, as many polio infections are asymptomatic, and only a small percentage of cases lead to visible symptoms or paralysis. Statement 4 is incorrect because polio can affect the respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory complications in severe cases. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 2 is correct, as polio is highly infectious and attacks the nervous system, which can result in paralysis or even death. Statement 1 is incorrect; polio primarily affects children under five years of age. Statement 3 is also incorrect, as many polio infections are asymptomatic, and only a small percentage of cases lead to visible symptoms or paralysis. Statement 4 is incorrect because polio can affect the respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory complications in severe cases.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about polio disease and its effects:

• Polio primarily affects adults and is rarely seen in children under five.

• Polio is highly infectious and affects the nervous system, potentially causing paralysis.

• All types of polio infections lead to visible symptoms and paralysis in infected individuals.

• Polio has no known impact on the respiratory system.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

Statement 2 is correct, as polio is highly infectious and attacks the nervous system, which can result in paralysis or even death.

Statement 1 is incorrect; polio primarily affects children under five years of age.

Statement 3 is also incorrect, as many polio infections are asymptomatic, and only a small percentage of cases lead to visible symptoms or paralysis.

Statement 4 is incorrect because polio can affect the respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory complications in severe cases.

Solution: A

Statement 2 is correct, as polio is highly infectious and attacks the nervous system, which can result in paralysis or even death.

Statement 1 is incorrect; polio primarily affects children under five years of age.

Statement 3 is also incorrect, as many polio infections are asymptomatic, and only a small percentage of cases lead to visible symptoms or paralysis.

Statement 4 is incorrect because polio can affect the respiratory muscles, potentially causing respiratory complications in severe cases.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Nal Sarovar: Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in the state of Gujarat. It is known for its migratory bird population and has been designated a Ramsar site. Nal Sarovar is the largest lake in Northeast India. It is primarily a freshwater lake, with minimal saline properties. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct, as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in Gujarat. Statement 2 is also correct; it is famous for its migratory bird population and is designated as a Ramsar site. Statement 3 is incorrect, as Nal Sarovar is located in Gujarat, not Northeast India. Statement 4 is incorrect as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake, not freshwater. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct, as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in Gujarat. Statement 2 is also correct; it is famous for its migratory bird population and is designated as a Ramsar site. Statement 3 is incorrect, as Nal Sarovar is located in Gujarat, not Northeast India. Statement 4 is incorrect as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake, not freshwater.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Nal Sarovar:

• Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in the state of Gujarat.

• It is known for its migratory bird population and has been designated a Ramsar site.

• Nal Sarovar is the largest lake in Northeast India.

• It is primarily a freshwater lake, with minimal saline properties.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct, as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in Gujarat.

Statement 2 is also correct; it is famous for its migratory bird population and is designated as a Ramsar site. Statement 3 is incorrect, as Nal Sarovar is located in Gujarat, not Northeast India.

Statement 4 is incorrect as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake, not freshwater.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct, as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake located in Gujarat.

Statement 2 is also correct; it is famous for its migratory bird population and is designated as a Ramsar site. Statement 3 is incorrect, as Nal Sarovar is located in Gujarat, not Northeast India.

Statement 4 is incorrect as Nal Sarovar is a saline lake, not freshwater.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the unique features of Dal Lake? (a) A lake with no islands or notable scenic landmarks (b) Known for its expansive sand dunes and minimal water flow (c) Famous for floating gardens, shikara markets, and Mughal gardens along its shore (d) A dry lake located in the desert region of Jammu and Kashmir Correct Solution: C Dal Lake, often called the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir,” is famous for its floating gardens, vibrant floating market, and scenic Mughal gardens along the shoreline. It also has iconic houseboats and historical islands. Option a) is incorrect, as Dal Lake is not a dry lake. Option b) is incorrect as Dal Lake lacks sand dunes and features ample water flow. Option d) is incorrect since Dal Lake contains notable islands like Char Chinari and Sone Lank. Incorrect Solution: C Dal Lake, often called the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir,” is famous for its floating gardens, vibrant floating market, and scenic Mughal gardens along the shoreline. It also has iconic houseboats and historical islands. Option a) is incorrect, as Dal Lake is not a dry lake. Option b) is incorrect as Dal Lake lacks sand dunes and features ample water flow. Option d) is incorrect since Dal Lake contains notable islands like Char Chinari and Sone Lank.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes the unique features of Dal Lake?

• (a) A lake with no islands or notable scenic landmarks

• (b) Known for its expansive sand dunes and minimal water flow

• (c) Famous for floating gardens, shikara markets, and Mughal gardens along its shore

• (d) A dry lake located in the desert region of Jammu and Kashmir

Solution: C

Dal Lake, often called the “Jewel in the crown of Kashmir,” is famous for its floating gardens, vibrant floating market, and scenic Mughal gardens along the shoreline. It also has iconic houseboats and historical islands.

Option a) is incorrect, as Dal Lake is not a dry lake.

Option b) is incorrect as Dal Lake lacks sand dunes and features ample water flow.

Option d) is incorrect since Dal Lake contains notable islands like Char Chinari and Sone Lank.

Solution: C

Option a) is incorrect, as Dal Lake is not a dry lake.

Option b) is incorrect as Dal Lake lacks sand dunes and features ample water flow.

Option d) is incorrect since Dal Lake contains notable islands like Char Chinari and Sone Lank.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the PM Internship Scheme: The scheme aims to provide 1 crore youth with work experience over five years. It offers internships in sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles. The stipend is entirely funded by the companies offering the internships. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the PM Internship Scheme targets providing 1 crore youth with hands-on work experience over five years. Statement 2 is also correct as the internships are offered across various sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the stipend is not entirely funded by the companies. The government contributes ₹4,500 of the ₹5,000 monthly stipend, and the remaining ₹500 is provided by the companies. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct; the PM Internship Scheme targets providing 1 crore youth with hands-on work experience over five years. Statement 2 is also correct as the internships are offered across various sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles. However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the stipend is not entirely funded by the companies. The government contributes ₹4,500 of the ₹5,000 monthly stipend, and the remaining ₹500 is provided by the companies.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the PM Internship Scheme:

• The scheme aims to provide 1 crore youth with work experience over five years.

• It offers internships in sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles.

• The stipend is entirely funded by the companies offering the internships.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; the PM Internship Scheme targets providing 1 crore youth with hands-on work experience over five years.

Statement 2 is also correct as the internships are offered across various sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles.

However, Statement 3 is incorrect because the stipend is not entirely funded by the companies. The government contributes ₹4,500 of the ₹5,000 monthly stipend, and the remaining ₹500 is provided by the companies.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct; the PM Internship Scheme targets providing 1 crore youth with hands-on work experience over five years.

Statement 2 is also correct as the internships are offered across various sectors like agriculture, pharmaceuticals, and automobiles.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for backward classes? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) (c) Article 21 (d) Article 19(1)(a) Correct Solution: B Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, including Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). These provisions serve as a basis for affirmative action and reservations, enabling governments to create policies that promote equity and social justice. Articles 14, 21, and 19(1)(a) address other fundamental rights such as equality, personal liberty, and freedom of speech, but they do not specifically provide for backward classes. Incorrect Solution: B Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, including Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). These provisions serve as a basis for affirmative action and reservations, enabling governments to create policies that promote equity and social justice. Articles 14, 21, and 19(1)(a) address other fundamental rights such as equality, personal liberty, and freedom of speech, but they do not specifically provide for backward classes.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for backward classes?

• (a) Article 14

• (b) Article 15(4) and Article 16(4)

• (c) Article 21

• (d) Article 19(1)(a)

Solution: B

Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, including Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). These provisions serve as a basis for affirmative action and reservations, enabling governments to create policies that promote equity and social justice.

Articles 14, 21, and 19(1)(a) address other fundamental rights such as equality, personal liberty, and freedom of speech, but they do not specifically provide for backward classes.

Solution: B

Articles 14, 21, and 19(1)(a) address other fundamental rights such as equality, personal liberty, and freedom of speech, but they do not specifically provide for backward classes.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The CBD’s sole focus is on conserving endangered species. Sustainable use of biodiversity resources is not included in the CBD’s goals. The CBD excludes benefit-sharing from genetic resources as part of its framework. The CBD does not address biodiversity-related issues in national policies. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) None Correct Solution: d) The CBD has three main objectives: the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources. Statement 1 is incorrect as the CBD’s goals are broad, addressing not only endangered species but also ecosystem conservation and genetic diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect because sustainable use of biodiversity resources is one of the primary goals of the CBD. Statement 3 is incorrect as benefit-sharing from genetic resources is a crucial component of the CBD. Statement 4 is also incorrect because the CBD encourages the integration of biodiversity conservation and sustainable use into national policy frameworks. Incorrect Solution: d) The CBD has three main objectives: the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources. Statement 1 is incorrect as the CBD’s goals are broad, addressing not only endangered species but also ecosystem conservation and genetic diversity. Statement 2 is incorrect because sustainable use of biodiversity resources is one of the primary goals of the CBD. Statement 3 is incorrect as benefit-sharing from genetic resources is a crucial component of the CBD. Statement 4 is also incorrect because the CBD encourages the integration of biodiversity conservation and sustainable use into national policy frameworks.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

• The CBD’s sole focus is on conserving endangered species.

• Sustainable use of biodiversity resources is not included in the CBD’s goals.

• The CBD excludes benefit-sharing from genetic resources as part of its framework.

• The CBD does not address biodiversity-related issues in national policies.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

Solution: d)

The CBD has three main objectives: the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the CBD’s goals are broad, addressing not only endangered species but also ecosystem conservation and genetic diversity.

Statement 2 is incorrect because sustainable use of biodiversity resources is one of the primary goals of the CBD.

Statement 3 is incorrect as benefit-sharing from genetic resources is a crucial component of the CBD.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because the CBD encourages the integration of biodiversity conservation and sustainable use into national policy frameworks.

Solution: d)

The CBD has three main objectives: the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components, and the equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.

Statement 1 is incorrect as the CBD’s goals are broad, addressing not only endangered species but also ecosystem conservation and genetic diversity.

Statement 2 is incorrect because sustainable use of biodiversity resources is one of the primary goals of the CBD.

Statement 3 is incorrect as benefit-sharing from genetic resources is a crucial component of the CBD.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because the CBD encourages the integration of biodiversity conservation and sustainable use into national policy frameworks.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points What is a primary limitation of millimeter wave (mmWave) transceiver technology in wireless communication? (a) It is incompatible with Internet of Things (IoT) devices due to its size. (b) It has limited range and is easily blocked by physical obstructions. (c) It can only transmit data at low speeds over long distances. (d) It is highly susceptible to interference from other wireless systems. Correct Solution: B The key limitation of mmWave transceiver technology is its limited range, and its signals can be easily blocked by physical objects such as buildings, trees, and even rain. Option (a) is incorrect because mmWave technology can be used with compact antennas, making it compatible with IoT devices. Option (c) is incorrect because mmWave technology is designed for high-speed data transmission over short distances. Option (d) is incorrect as mmWave technology actually has low interference with other systems due to its high frequency range. Incorrect Solution: B The key limitation of mmWave transceiver technology is its limited range, and its signals can be easily blocked by physical objects such as buildings, trees, and even rain. Option (a) is incorrect because mmWave technology can be used with compact antennas, making it compatible with IoT devices. Option (c) is incorrect because mmWave technology is designed for high-speed data transmission over short distances. Option (d) is incorrect as mmWave technology actually has low interference with other systems due to its high frequency range.

#### 7. Question

What is a primary limitation of millimeter wave (mmWave) transceiver technology in wireless communication?

• (a) It is incompatible with Internet of Things (IoT) devices due to its size.

• (b) It has limited range and is easily blocked by physical obstructions.

• (c) It can only transmit data at low speeds over long distances.

• (d) It is highly susceptible to interference from other wireless systems.

Solution: B

The key limitation of mmWave transceiver technology is its limited range, and its signals can be easily blocked by physical objects such as buildings, trees, and even rain.

Option (a) is incorrect because mmWave technology can be used with compact antennas, making it compatible with IoT devices.

Option (c) is incorrect because mmWave technology is designed for high-speed data transmission over short distances.

Option (d) is incorrect as mmWave technology actually has low interference with other systems due to its high frequency range.

Solution: B

The key limitation of mmWave transceiver technology is its limited range, and its signals can be easily blocked by physical objects such as buildings, trees, and even rain.

Option (a) is incorrect because mmWave technology can be used with compact antennas, making it compatible with IoT devices.

Option (c) is incorrect because mmWave technology is designed for high-speed data transmission over short distances.

Option (d) is incorrect as mmWave technology actually has low interference with other systems due to its high frequency range.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): The Cartagena Protocol solely addresses climate change adaptation in biodiversity conservation. The Nagoya Protocol emphasizes marine biodiversity conservation exclusively. Both protocols are independent of the CBD and do not require CBD membership for participation. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety focuses on regulating the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs) to protect biodiversity, not climate change adaptation, making statement 1 incorrect. The Nagoya Protocol addresses access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing rather than marine biodiversity conservation exclusively, making statement 2 incorrect. Finally, both the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols are supplementary agreements under the CBD, and membership in the CBD is generally required to participate in these protocols, making statement 3 incorrect. These protocols are vital components of the CBD, focusing on biosafety and benefit-sharing, respectively, enhancing the convention’s scope in biodiversity management. Incorrect Solution: D The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety focuses on regulating the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs) to protect biodiversity, not climate change adaptation, making statement 1 incorrect. The Nagoya Protocol addresses access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing rather than marine biodiversity conservation exclusively, making statement 2 incorrect. Finally, both the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols are supplementary agreements under the CBD, and membership in the CBD is generally required to participate in these protocols, making statement 3 incorrect. These protocols are vital components of the CBD, focusing on biosafety and benefit-sharing, respectively, enhancing the convention’s scope in biodiversity management.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):

• The Cartagena Protocol solely addresses climate change adaptation in biodiversity conservation.

• The Nagoya Protocol emphasizes marine biodiversity conservation exclusively.

• Both protocols are independent of the CBD and do not require CBD membership for participation.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety focuses on regulating the transboundary movement of living modified organisms (LMOs) to protect biodiversity, not climate change adaptation, making statement 1 incorrect.

The Nagoya Protocol addresses access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing rather than marine biodiversity conservation exclusively, making statement 2 incorrect.

Finally, both the Cartagena and Nagoya Protocols are supplementary agreements under the CBD, and membership in the CBD is generally required to participate in these protocols, making statement 3 incorrect.

These protocols are vital components of the CBD, focusing on biosafety and benefit-sharing, respectively, enhancing the convention’s scope in biodiversity management.

Solution: D

The Nagoya Protocol addresses access to genetic resources and fair benefit-sharing rather than marine biodiversity conservation exclusively, making statement 2 incorrect.

These protocols are vital components of the CBD, focusing on biosafety and benefit-sharing, respectively, enhancing the convention’s scope in biodiversity management.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s rights and obligations on the western rivers under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT): India can use the waters of the western rivers only for irrigation purposes. India is allowed to develop hydroelectric projects on the western rivers. India is obliged to conduct Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) for all hydroelectric projects on the western rivers. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan, India has specific rights and obligations concerning the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab). Statement 1 is incorrect because the Treaty does not restrict India’s use of the western rivers solely to irrigation. India can also utilize these waters for hydroelectric generation and domestic use. Statement 2 is correct because India is permitted to develop hydroelectric projects on the western rivers, provided these projects meet certain design and operational restrictions to ensure they do not adversely impact the flow of water into Pakistan. Statement 3 is also incorrect; while conducting Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) is a recommended global practice, the Treaty does not explicitly mandate them for hydroelectric projects on these rivers. Incorrect Solution: A Under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan, India has specific rights and obligations concerning the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab). Statement 1 is incorrect because the Treaty does not restrict India’s use of the western rivers solely to irrigation. India can also utilize these waters for hydroelectric generation and domestic use. Statement 2 is correct because India is permitted to develop hydroelectric projects on the western rivers, provided these projects meet certain design and operational restrictions to ensure they do not adversely impact the flow of water into Pakistan. Statement 3 is also incorrect; while conducting Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) is a recommended global practice, the Treaty does not explicitly mandate them for hydroelectric projects on these rivers.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s rights and obligations on the western rivers under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT):

• India can use the waters of the western rivers only for irrigation purposes.

• India is allowed to develop hydroelectric projects on the western rivers.

• India is obliged to conduct Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) for all hydroelectric projects on the western rivers.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan, India has specific rights and obligations concerning the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Treaty does not restrict India’s use of the western rivers solely to irrigation. India can also utilize these waters for hydroelectric generation and domestic use.

• Statement 2 is correct because India is permitted to develop hydroelectric projects on the western rivers, provided these projects meet certain design and operational restrictions to ensure they do not adversely impact the flow of water into Pakistan.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; while conducting Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) is a recommended global practice, the Treaty does not explicitly mandate them for hydroelectric projects on these rivers.

Solution: A

• Under the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) between India and Pakistan, India has specific rights and obligations concerning the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab).

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements on the no-harm rule in international law: The no-harm rule is an explicit provision in the Indus Waters Treaty. It requires states to prevent all potential harm to neighbouring states from transboundary projects. It is considered a due diligence obligation under customary international law. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The no-harm rule in international law is a principle that requires states to exercise due diligence to avoid causing significant harm to other states through activities within their jurisdiction, particularly when these activities have transboundary impacts. Statement 3 is correct as this rule is considered a due diligence obligation under customary international law, meaning states must take reasonable steps to prevent significant harm to neighbouring states. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) does not explicitly incorporate the no-harm rule; it primarily focuses on water sharing rather than broader environmental obligations. Statement 2 is also incorrect since the no-harm rule does not mandate the prevention of all potential harm, only of “significant harm,” balancing state sovereignty with responsibilities to other states. Incorrect Solution: B The no-harm rule in international law is a principle that requires states to exercise due diligence to avoid causing significant harm to other states through activities within their jurisdiction, particularly when these activities have transboundary impacts. Statement 3 is correct as this rule is considered a due diligence obligation under customary international law, meaning states must take reasonable steps to prevent significant harm to neighbouring states. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) does not explicitly incorporate the no-harm rule; it primarily focuses on water sharing rather than broader environmental obligations. Statement 2 is also incorrect since the no-harm rule does not mandate the prevention of all potential harm, only of “significant harm,” balancing state sovereignty with responsibilities to other states.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements on the no-harm rule in international law:

• The no-harm rule is an explicit provision in the Indus Waters Treaty.

• It requires states to prevent all potential harm to neighbouring states from transboundary projects.

• It is considered a due diligence obligation under customary international law.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The no-harm rule in international law is a principle that requires states to exercise due diligence to avoid causing significant harm to other states through activities within their jurisdiction, particularly when these activities have transboundary impacts.

• Statement 3 is correct as this rule is considered a due diligence obligation under customary international law, meaning states must take reasonable steps to prevent significant harm to neighbouring states.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) does not explicitly incorporate the no-harm rule; it primarily focuses on water sharing rather than broader environmental obligations.

• Statement 2 is also incorrect since the no-harm rule does not mandate the prevention of all potential harm, only of “significant harm,” balancing state sovereignty with responsibilities to other states.

Solution: B

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