UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Potato Centre (CIP) and its South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC): The International Potato Centre (CIP) is a global research organization headquartered in Lima, Peru. The recently established CIP-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh. One of the primary objectives of CSARC is to develop heat-tolerant and disease-free potato varieties to ensure food security in climate-vulnerable areas. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The International Potato Centre (CIP) is a global research-for-development organization with its headquarters in Lima, Peru. It is part of CGIAR (formerly the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research), a global partnership engaged in research for a food-secure future. Statement 2 is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the CIP-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) in Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh. This location is strategic, given that Uttar Pradesh is one of India’s top potato-producing states. Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of CSARC is to address contemporary agricultural challenges. This includes conducting climate research to develop climate-resilient potato varieties, specifically those that are heat-tolerant and drought-resistant, as well as disease-free. This function is crucial for boosting productivity and ensuring food and nutrition security across South Asia, which faces significant climate-related risks. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The International Potato Centre (CIP) is a global research-for-development organization with its headquarters in Lima, Peru. It is part of CGIAR (formerly the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research), a global partnership engaged in research for a food-secure future. Statement 2 is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the CIP-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) in Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh. This location is strategic, given that Uttar Pradesh is one of India’s top potato-producing states. Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of CSARC is to address contemporary agricultural challenges. This includes conducting climate research to develop climate-resilient potato varieties, specifically those that are heat-tolerant and drought-resistant, as well as disease-free. This function is crucial for boosting productivity and ensuring food and nutrition security across South Asia, which faces significant climate-related risks.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Potato Centre (CIP) and its South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC):

• The International Potato Centre (CIP) is a global research organization headquartered in Lima, Peru.

• The recently established CIP-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) is located in Agra, Uttar Pradesh.

• One of the primary objectives of CSARC is to develop heat-tolerant and disease-free potato varieties to ensure food security in climate-vulnerable areas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The International Potato Centre (CIP) is a global research-for-development organization with its headquarters in Lima, Peru. It is part of CGIAR (formerly the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research), a global partnership engaged in research for a food-secure future.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the CIP-South Asia Regional Centre (CSARC) in Singna, Agra, Uttar Pradesh. This location is strategic, given that Uttar Pradesh is one of India’s top potato-producing states.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key objective of CSARC is to address contemporary agricultural challenges. This includes conducting climate research to develop climate-resilient potato varieties, specifically those that are heat-tolerant and drought-resistant, as well as disease-free. This function is crucial for boosting productivity and ensuring food and nutrition security across South Asia, which faces significant climate-related risks.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the following digital initiatives of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways with their primary function: List-I (Initiative) List-II (Function) A. SAGAR SETU 1. A standardized tariff structure to ensure transparency. B. DRISHTI 2. A unified digital platform for EXIM trade processes. C. DCoE 3. A system for real-time monitoring of project implementation. D. SOR Template 4. A hub for driving digital transformation using AI, IoT, and Blockchain. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 Correct Solution: C SAGAR SETU is described as a unified EXIM digital interface that integrates over 80 ports and 40+ stakeholders to reduce paperwork and promote seamless logistics. This matches with function 2. DRISHTI stands for Data-driven Review Institutional System for Tracking Implementation. Its stated goal is to monitor Maritime India Vision 2030 projects in real time, which directly corresponds to function 3. DCoE (Digital Centre of Excellence) is a partnership to spearhead digital transformation in maritime logistics, specifically by using emerging technologies like AI, IoT, and Blockchain for smart ports. This aligns perfectly with function 4. D. SOR (Scale of Rates) Template is a standardised tariff structure for major ports. Its purpose is to reduce ambiguity, ensure transparency, and allow digital comparison of tariffs, which is described in function 1. Incorrect Solution: C SAGAR SETU is described as a unified EXIM digital interface that integrates over 80 ports and 40+ stakeholders to reduce paperwork and promote seamless logistics. This matches with function 2. DRISHTI stands for Data-driven Review Institutional System for Tracking Implementation. Its stated goal is to monitor Maritime India Vision 2030 projects in real time, which directly corresponds to function 3. DCoE (Digital Centre of Excellence) is a partnership to spearhead digital transformation in maritime logistics, specifically by using emerging technologies like AI, IoT, and Blockchain for smart ports. This aligns perfectly with function 4. D. SOR (Scale of Rates) Template is a standardised tariff structure for major ports. Its purpose is to reduce ambiguity, ensure transparency, and allow digital comparison of tariffs, which is described in function 1.

#### 2. Question

Match the following digital initiatives of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways with their primary function:

List-I (Initiative) | List-II (Function)

A. SAGAR SETU | 1. A standardized tariff structure to ensure transparency.

B. DRISHTI | 2. A unified digital platform for EXIM trade processes.

C. DCoE | 3. A system for real-time monitoring of project implementation.

D. SOR Template | 4. A hub for driving digital transformation using AI, IoT, and Blockchain.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

• (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

• (c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Solution: C

• SAGAR SETU is described as a unified EXIM digital interface that integrates over 80 ports and 40+ stakeholders to reduce paperwork and promote seamless logistics. This matches with function 2.

• DRISHTI stands for Data-driven Review Institutional System for Tracking Implementation. Its stated goal is to monitor Maritime India Vision 2030 projects in real time, which directly corresponds to function 3.

• DCoE (Digital Centre of Excellence) is a partnership to spearhead digital transformation in maritime logistics, specifically by using emerging technologies like AI, IoT, and Blockchain for smart ports. This aligns perfectly with function 4.

• D. SOR (Scale of Rates) Template is a standardised tariff structure for major ports. Its purpose is to reduce ambiguity, ensure transparency, and allow digital comparison of tariffs, which is described in function 1.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With respect to the Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL), consider the following statements: It is India’s first maritime sector-focused Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC), registered with the RBI. SMFCL holds the status of a ‘Navratna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE). It is mandated to finance only large-scale port infrastructure projects under Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models. Its objectives are aligned with the long-term goals of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The SMFCL is explicitly stated to be India’s first maritime sector NBFC, which is registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Its purpose is to cater exclusively to the financial needs of the maritime domain. Statement 2 is incorrect. The SMFCL is classified as a ‘Mini Ratna Category-I’ CPSE, not a ‘Navratna’. The Navratna status is a higher category with greater financial autonomy, which SMFCL does not hold. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of SMFCL is broad and inclusive. It is not limited to large-scale PPP projects. It aims to enable financial inclusion for MSMEs, startups, and educational institutions and will finance innovative projects like green hydrogen and shipbuilding, in addition to acting as a catalyst for PPP models. Statement 4 is correct. The establishment and objectives of SMFCL are aligned with the strategic, long-term national goal of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aims to position India as a global maritime leader. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The SMFCL is explicitly stated to be India’s first maritime sector NBFC, which is registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Its purpose is to cater exclusively to the financial needs of the maritime domain. Statement 2 is incorrect. The SMFCL is classified as a ‘Mini Ratna Category-I’ CPSE, not a ‘Navratna’. The Navratna status is a higher category with greater financial autonomy, which SMFCL does not hold. Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of SMFCL is broad and inclusive. It is not limited to large-scale PPP projects. It aims to enable financial inclusion for MSMEs, startups, and educational institutions and will finance innovative projects like green hydrogen and shipbuilding, in addition to acting as a catalyst for PPP models. Statement 4 is correct. The establishment and objectives of SMFCL are aligned with the strategic, long-term national goal of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aims to position India as a global maritime leader.

#### 3. Question

With respect to the Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL), consider the following statements:

• It is India’s first maritime sector-focused Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC), registered with the RBI.

• SMFCL holds the status of a ‘Navratna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE).

• It is mandated to finance only large-scale port infrastructure projects under Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models.

• Its objectives are aligned with the long-term goals of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The SMFCL is explicitly stated to be India’s first maritime sector NBFC, which is registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Its purpose is to cater exclusively to the financial needs of the maritime domain.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The SMFCL is classified as a ‘Mini Ratna Category-I’ CPSE, not a ‘Navratna’. The Navratna status is a higher category with greater financial autonomy, which SMFCL does not hold.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The mandate of SMFCL is broad and inclusive. It is not limited to large-scale PPP projects. It aims to enable financial inclusion for MSMEs, startups, and educational institutions and will finance innovative projects like green hydrogen and shipbuilding, in addition to acting as a catalyst for PPP models.

• Statement 4 is correct. The establishment and objectives of SMFCL are aligned with the strategic, long-term national goal of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, which aims to position India as a global maritime leader.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls: Statement I: The Election Commission of India has initiated a Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar to weed out ineligible voters. Statement II: This process is enabled by Article 324(1) of the Constitution, which grants the ECI superintendence over elections. Statement III: The legal basis for such a revision is also found in the Representation of the People Act, 1950. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is a factual statement about a specific action taken by the ECI in Bihar. The objective mentioned, weeding out ineligible voters, is the primary purpose of the SIR. Statement II correctly identifies the constitutional source of the ECI’s power. Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India vests the “superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections” in the Election Commission. This broad power is the ultimate authority that enables the ECI to undertake measures like an SIR to ensure the purity of the electoral process. Thus, it explains the authority for the action in Statement I. Statement III correctly identifies the specific statutory provision. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, explicitly provides the legal framework for the ECI to direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency. This act operationalizes the constitutional mandate given under Article 324. Thus, this statement also provides a direct legal explanation for the action in Statement I. Since both the constitutional provision (Article 324) and the statutory law (RPA, 1950) provide the legal and constitutional backing for the SIR, both statements II and III are correct and both explain Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is a factual statement about a specific action taken by the ECI in Bihar. The objective mentioned, weeding out ineligible voters, is the primary purpose of the SIR. Statement II correctly identifies the constitutional source of the ECI’s power. Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India vests the “superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections” in the Election Commission. This broad power is the ultimate authority that enables the ECI to undertake measures like an SIR to ensure the purity of the electoral process. Thus, it explains the authority for the action in Statement I. Statement III correctly identifies the specific statutory provision. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, explicitly provides the legal framework for the ECI to direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency. This act operationalizes the constitutional mandate given under Article 324. Thus, this statement also provides a direct legal explanation for the action in Statement I. Since both the constitutional provision (Article 324) and the statutory law (RPA, 1950) provide the legal and constitutional backing for the SIR, both statements II and III are correct and both explain Statement I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:

Statement I: The Election Commission of India has initiated a Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar to weed out ineligible voters.

Statement II: This process is enabled by Article 324(1) of the Constitution, which grants the ECI superintendence over elections.

Statement III: The legal basis for such a revision is also found in the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is a factual statement about a specific action taken by the ECI in Bihar. The objective mentioned, weeding out ineligible voters, is the primary purpose of the SIR.

• Statement II correctly identifies the constitutional source of the ECI’s power. Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India vests the “superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections” in the Election Commission. This broad power is the ultimate authority that enables the ECI to undertake measures like an SIR to ensure the purity of the electoral process. Thus, it explains the authority for the action in Statement I.

• Statement III correctly identifies the specific statutory provision. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, explicitly provides the legal framework for the ECI to direct a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency. This act operationalizes the constitutional mandate given under Article 324. Thus, this statement also provides a direct legal explanation for the action in Statement I.

Since both the constitutional provision (Article 324) and the statutory law (RPA, 1950) provide the legal and constitutional backing for the SIR, both statements II and III are correct and both explain Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement I is a factual statement about a specific action taken by the ECI in Bihar. The objective mentioned, weeding out ineligible voters, is the primary purpose of the SIR.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Silica gel sachets are commonly placed in packaged consumer goods like electronics and shoes. Statement-II: Silica gel works as a desiccant by being highly porous at the nanoscale, which allows it to absorb water molecules through capillary condensation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It is a common observation that small sachets of silica gel are included in the packaging of a wide range of consumer products, particularly electronics, leather goods (like shoes), and pharmaceuticals. The purpose is to protect these items from moisture damage during shipping and storage. Statement-II is also correct. It accurately describes the working mechanism of silica gel. Its effectiveness as a desiccant (a substance that induces or sustains a state of dryness) stems from its chemical structure. It is composed of silicon dioxide (SiO2) arranged in a vast network of interconnected microscopic pores. This high porosity creates an enormous internal surface area (up to 700 m² per gram), allowing it to adsorb and hold water molecules through a physical process called capillary condensation. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It is a common observation that small sachets of silica gel are included in the packaging of a wide range of consumer products, particularly electronics, leather goods (like shoes), and pharmaceuticals. The purpose is to protect these items from moisture damage during shipping and storage. Statement-II is also correct. It accurately describes the working mechanism of silica gel. Its effectiveness as a desiccant (a substance that induces or sustains a state of dryness) stems from its chemical structure. It is composed of silicon dioxide (SiO2) arranged in a vast network of interconnected microscopic pores. This high porosity creates an enormous internal surface area (up to 700 m² per gram), allowing it to adsorb and hold water molecules through a physical process called capillary condensation. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Silica gel sachets are commonly placed in packaged consumer goods like electronics and shoes.

Statement-II: Silica gel works as a desiccant by being highly porous at the nanoscale, which allows it to absorb water molecules through capillary condensation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. It is a common observation that small sachets of silica gel are included in the packaging of a wide range of consumer products, particularly electronics, leather goods (like shoes), and pharmaceuticals. The purpose is to protect these items from moisture damage during shipping and storage.

• Statement-II is also correct. It accurately describes the working mechanism of silica gel. Its effectiveness as a desiccant (a substance that induces or sustains a state of dryness) stems from its chemical structure. It is composed of silicon dioxide (SiO2) arranged in a vast network of interconnected microscopic pores. This high porosity creates an enormous internal surface area (up to 700 m² per gram), allowing it to adsorb and hold water molecules through a physical process called capillary condensation.

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With respect to the ‘Adamya’ Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV), consider the following statements: It is the first in its class to be equipped with Controllable Pitch Propellers and fully indigenous gearboxes. The vessel was indigenously developed and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. Its primary armament includes a 30mm CRN-91 naval gun and two 12.7mm remote-control guns. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. ‘Adamya’ is highlighted as being the first vessel in its series to feature advanced propulsion technology, specifically Controllable Pitch Propellers (CPPs) and fully indigenous gearboxes. This improves its manoeuvrability and operational efficiency. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘Adamya’ FPV and the eight-vessel series it belongs to were developed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. ‘Adamya’ is highlighted as being the first vessel in its series to feature advanced propulsion technology, specifically Controllable Pitch Propellers (CPPs) and fully indigenous gearboxes. This improves its manoeuvrability and operational efficiency. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘Adamya’ FPV and the eight-vessel series it belongs to were developed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).

#### 6. Question

With respect to the ‘Adamya’ Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV), consider the following statements:

• It is the first in its class to be equipped with Controllable Pitch Propellers and fully indigenous gearboxes.

• The vessel was indigenously developed and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.

• Its primary armament includes a 30mm CRN-91 naval gun and two 12.7mm remote-control guns.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. ‘Adamya’ is highlighted as being the first vessel in its series to feature advanced propulsion technology, specifically Controllable Pitch Propellers (CPPs) and fully indigenous gearboxes. This improves its manoeuvrability and operational efficiency.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ‘Adamya’ FPV and the eight-vessel series it belongs to were developed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Male Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news due to tiger deaths, is geographically located at the tri-junction of which of the following states? (a) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana (b) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra (d) Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu Correct Solution: D The Male Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Its location is of high ecological significance as it lies near the tri-junction of the Eastern Ghats where the borders of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu meet. This strategic position makes it a critical wildlife corridor, connecting several other major protected areas, including the BRT Tiger Reserve and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (in Tamil Nadu) and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. This contiguity is vital for the movement and genetic exchange of large mammals like tigers and elephants. Incorrect Solution: D The Male Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Its location is of high ecological significance as it lies near the tri-junction of the Eastern Ghats where the borders of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu meet. This strategic position makes it a critical wildlife corridor, connecting several other major protected areas, including the BRT Tiger Reserve and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (in Tamil Nadu) and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. This contiguity is vital for the movement and genetic exchange of large mammals like tigers and elephants.

#### 7. Question

The Male Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news due to tiger deaths, is geographically located at the tri-junction of which of the following states?

• (a) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana

• (b) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh

• (c) Karnataka, Goa, and Maharashtra

• (d) Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu

Solution: D

The Male Mahadeshwara (MM) Hills Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. Its location is of high ecological significance as it lies near the tri-junction of the Eastern Ghats where the borders of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu meet. This strategic position makes it a critical wildlife corridor, connecting several other major protected areas, including the BRT Tiger Reserve and Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (in Tamil Nadu) and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. This contiguity is vital for the movement and genetic exchange of large mammals like tigers and elephants.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: India’s rank in the total number of Ramsar sites is first in Asia but third globally. Statement-II: The United Kingdom and Mexico have designated a significantly larger number of wetlands as Ramsar sites compared to India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. With 91 sites, India now has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, and it ranks third globally. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II provides the reason for India’s global ranking. The United Kingdom (with 175 sites) and Mexico (with 142 sites) are the two countries that have more Ramsar sites than India. This directly explains why India, despite being the leader in Asia, is third in the global ranking. So, Statement-II is correct and serves as the direct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. With 91 sites, India now has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, and it ranks third globally. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II provides the reason for India’s global ranking. The United Kingdom (with 175 sites) and Mexico (with 142 sites) are the two countries that have more Ramsar sites than India. This directly explains why India, despite being the leader in Asia, is third in the global ranking. So, Statement-II is correct and serves as the direct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: India’s rank in the total number of Ramsar sites is first in Asia but third globally.

Statement-II: The United Kingdom and Mexico have designated a significantly larger number of wetlands as Ramsar sites compared to India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. With 91 sites, India now has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, and it ranks third globally. So, Statement-I is correct.

Statement-II provides the reason for India’s global ranking. The United Kingdom (with 175 sites) and Mexico (with 142 sites) are the two countries that have more Ramsar sites than India. This directly explains why India, despite being the leader in Asia, is third in the global ranking. So, Statement-II is correct and serves as the direct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. With 91 sites, India now has the highest number of Ramsar sites in Asia, and it ranks third globally. So, Statement-I is correct.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Regarding the Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal, which of the following statements is/are correct? It aims to promote India as a global destination for Medical Value Travel (MVT). The portal is aligned with the policy of allowing 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) through the automatic route in the Ayush sector. Its functionality includes a dynamic dashboard for real-time facilitation of regulatory approvals. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. By boosting investment and infrastructure in the Ayush sector, the portal directly contributes to making India a more attractive destination for Medical Value Travel (MVT). A stronger domestic Ayush ecosystem enhances India’s appeal to global health and wellness tourists. Statement 2 is correct. The portal is designed to leverage and streamline existing government policies. One such key policy is allowing 100% FDI via the automatic route in the Ayush sector. The portal acts as a facilitator to make it easier for investors to take advantage of this policy. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the portal is its user-centric and dynamic nature. It includes a real-time dashboard designed to provide guidance and facilitate the process of getting necessary approvals, thus improving the ease of doing business for investors. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. By boosting investment and infrastructure in the Ayush sector, the portal directly contributes to making India a more attractive destination for Medical Value Travel (MVT). A stronger domestic Ayush ecosystem enhances India’s appeal to global health and wellness tourists. Statement 2 is correct. The portal is designed to leverage and streamline existing government policies. One such key policy is allowing 100% FDI via the automatic route in the Ayush sector. The portal acts as a facilitator to make it easier for investors to take advantage of this policy. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the portal is its user-centric and dynamic nature. It includes a real-time dashboard designed to provide guidance and facilitate the process of getting necessary approvals, thus improving the ease of doing business for investors.

#### 9. Question

Regarding the Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It aims to promote India as a global destination for Medical Value Travel (MVT).

• The portal is aligned with the policy of allowing 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) through the automatic route in the Ayush sector.

• Its functionality includes a dynamic dashboard for real-time facilitation of regulatory approvals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. By boosting investment and infrastructure in the Ayush sector, the portal directly contributes to making India a more attractive destination for Medical Value Travel (MVT). A stronger domestic Ayush ecosystem enhances India’s appeal to global health and wellness tourists.

• Statement 2 is correct. The portal is designed to leverage and streamline existing government policies. One such key policy is allowing 100% FDI via the automatic route in the Ayush sector. The portal acts as a facilitator to make it easier for investors to take advantage of this policy.

Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the portal is its user-centric and dynamic nature. It includes a real-time dashboard designed to provide guidance and facilitate the process of getting necessary approvals, thus improving the ease of doing business for investors.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to World Environment Day 2025, consider the following statements: Statement I: The theme ‘Beat Plastic Pollution’ for World Environment Day 2025 was chosen to build momentum for negotiations on a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty. Statement II: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) had earlier passed a resolution to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The choice of ‘Beat Plastic Pollution’ as the theme for World Environment Day 2025 is not arbitrary. It is strategically timed to promote global cooperation and raise public awareness ahead of the scheduled negotiations for a Global Plastics Treaty. Statement II is correct. The process for a global plastics treaty began with a landmark resolution (5/14) at the fifth session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5.2) in March 2022. This resolution, titled “End plastic pollution: Towards an international legally binding instrument,” mandated the development of the very treaty mentioned in Statement I. Statement II provides the foundational political and legal context that explains the significance and timing of the theme mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The choice of ‘Beat Plastic Pollution’ as the theme for World Environment Day 2025 is not arbitrary. It is strategically timed to promote global cooperation and raise public awareness ahead of the scheduled negotiations for a Global Plastics Treaty. Statement II is correct. The process for a global plastics treaty began with a landmark resolution (5/14) at the fifth session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5.2) in March 2022. This resolution, titled “End plastic pollution: Towards an international legally binding instrument,” mandated the development of the very treaty mentioned in Statement I. Statement II provides the foundational political and legal context that explains the significance and timing of the theme mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 10. Question

With reference to World Environment Day 2025, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The theme ‘Beat Plastic Pollution’ for World Environment Day 2025 was chosen to build momentum for negotiations on a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty.

Statement II: The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) had earlier passed a resolution to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The choice of ‘Beat Plastic Pollution’ as the theme for World Environment Day 2025 is not arbitrary. It is strategically timed to promote global cooperation and raise public awareness ahead of the scheduled negotiations for a Global Plastics Treaty.

• Statement II is correct. The process for a global plastics treaty began with a landmark resolution (5/14) at the fifth session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5.2) in March 2022. This resolution, titled “End plastic pollution: Towards an international legally binding instrument,” mandated the development of the very treaty mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement II provides the foundational political and legal context that explains the significance and timing of the theme mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

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