UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s hydrogen-powered train initiative: The ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ scheme primarily aims to replace diesel locomotives on heritage and non-electrified routes. The hydrogen fuel cells in these trains generate electricity by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen from the air, producing harmless water vapour. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of the ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ scheme is to deploy hydrogen-powered trains on heritage circuits and routes that are not yet electrified. This aligns with the broader goal of reducing the carbon footprint of Indian Railways by replacing diesel-run trains with a greener alternative. Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrogen fuel cells work by facilitating an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, not nitrogen. This process generates electricity, heat, and water (H2O) as the only byproduct, making it a zero-emission technology. The involvement of nitrogen is not part of this core reaction. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of the ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ scheme is to deploy hydrogen-powered trains on heritage circuits and routes that are not yet electrified. This aligns with the broader goal of reducing the carbon footprint of Indian Railways by replacing diesel-run trains with a greener alternative. Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrogen fuel cells work by facilitating an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, not nitrogen. This process generates electricity, heat, and water (H2O) as the only byproduct, making it a zero-emission technology. The involvement of nitrogen is not part of this core reaction.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s hydrogen-powered train initiative:

• The ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ scheme primarily aims to replace diesel locomotives on heritage and non-electrified routes.

• The hydrogen fuel cells in these trains generate electricity by reacting hydrogen with nitrogen from the air, producing harmless water vapour.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of the ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ scheme is to deploy hydrogen-powered trains on heritage circuits and routes that are not yet electrified. This aligns with the broader goal of reducing the carbon footprint of Indian Railways by replacing diesel-run trains with a greener alternative.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Hydrogen fuel cells work by facilitating an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, not nitrogen. This process generates electricity, heat, and water (H2O) as the only byproduct, making it a zero-emission technology. The involvement of nitrogen is not part of this core reaction.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kargil War (1999): Statement I: Operation Vijay was launched as a counter-offensive to evict Pakistani intruders from Indian territory. Statement II: A primary strategic objective of the Pakistani infiltration was to sever the NH-1A highway, thereby cutting off Ladakh from the rest of India. Statement III: During the conflict, the Indian Armed Forces crossed the Line of Control (LoC) to neutralize enemy supply lines. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I. (c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct: Operation Vijay was the codename for the Indian military’s counter-offensive launched in May 1999 to reclaim the high-altitude posts occupied by Pakistani soldiers and militants in the Kargil sector. Statement II is correct: The infiltration was strategically planned by Pakistan to capture commanding heights overlooking the vital National Highway 1A (NH-1A). Severing this highway would have isolated the Ladakh region, including Siachen, from Kashmir and the rest of India, creating a significant strategic disadvantage for India. This hostile action directly necessitated the launch of Operation Vijay, thus Statement II serves as a correct explanation for Statement I. Statement III is incorrect: A defining feature of India’s military conduct during the Kargil War was its restraint in not crossing the Line of Control (LoC). Despite the strategic and tactical challenges this posed, India upheld its commitment to international norms and confined its military operations strictly to its side of the LoC. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct: Operation Vijay was the codename for the Indian military’s counter-offensive launched in May 1999 to reclaim the high-altitude posts occupied by Pakistani soldiers and militants in the Kargil sector. Statement II is correct: The infiltration was strategically planned by Pakistan to capture commanding heights overlooking the vital National Highway 1A (NH-1A). Severing this highway would have isolated the Ladakh region, including Siachen, from Kashmir and the rest of India, creating a significant strategic disadvantage for India. This hostile action directly necessitated the launch of Operation Vijay, thus Statement II serves as a correct explanation for Statement I. Statement III is incorrect: A defining feature of India’s military conduct during the Kargil War was its restraint in not crossing the Line of Control (LoC). Despite the strategic and tactical challenges this posed, India upheld its commitment to international norms and confined its military operations strictly to its side of the LoC.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kargil War (1999):

Statement I: Operation Vijay was launched as a counter-offensive to evict Pakistani intruders from Indian territory.

Statement II: A primary strategic objective of the Pakistani infiltration was to sever the NH-1A highway, thereby cutting off Ladakh from the rest of India.

Statement III: During the conflict, the Indian Armed Forces crossed the Line of Control (LoC) to neutralize enemy supply lines.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

• (c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct: Operation Vijay was the codename for the Indian military’s counter-offensive launched in May 1999 to reclaim the high-altitude posts occupied by Pakistani soldiers and militants in the Kargil sector.

• Statement II is correct: The infiltration was strategically planned by Pakistan to capture commanding heights overlooking the vital National Highway 1A (NH-1A). Severing this highway would have isolated the Ladakh region, including Siachen, from Kashmir and the rest of India, creating a significant strategic disadvantage for India. This hostile action directly necessitated the launch of Operation Vijay, thus Statement II serves as a correct explanation for Statement I.

• Statement III is incorrect: A defining feature of India’s military conduct during the Kargil War was its restraint in not crossing the Line of Control (LoC). Despite the strategic and tactical challenges this posed, India upheld its commitment to international norms and confined its military operations strictly to its side of the LoC.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements: The scheme is mandatory for all workers in the unorganised sector aged 18-40 years with a valid bank account. The Central Government provides a co-contribution of 50% of the subscriber’s contribution, up to a maximum of ₹2,000 per annum, for the entire duration of the policy. Upon the death of the subscriber after the age of 60, the pension ceases, and the accumulated corpus is paid to the nominee. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary scheme, not mandatory. It is designed to encourage savings for old age among workers in the unorganised sector, but there is no compulsion to join. Statement 2 is incorrect: The government’s co-contribution feature had specific conditions and was not for the entire policy duration. It contributed 50% of the subscriber’s contribution or ₹1,000 per year, whichever was lower. This was applicable only for eligible subscribers who joined the scheme between June 2015 and March 2016, and the co-contribution was made for a limited period of five years (2015-2020). Statement 3 is incorrect: A key feature of APY is the benefit provided to the spouse. Upon the death of the subscriber (after age 60), the spouse is entitled to receive the same pension amount for their lifetime. The accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee only after the death of both the subscriber and the spouse. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary scheme, not mandatory. It is designed to encourage savings for old age among workers in the unorganised sector, but there is no compulsion to join. Statement 2 is incorrect: The government’s co-contribution feature had specific conditions and was not for the entire policy duration. It contributed 50% of the subscriber’s contribution or ₹1,000 per year, whichever was lower. This was applicable only for eligible subscribers who joined the scheme between June 2015 and March 2016, and the co-contribution was made for a limited period of five years (2015-2020). Statement 3 is incorrect: A key feature of APY is the benefit provided to the spouse. Upon the death of the subscriber (after age 60), the spouse is entitled to receive the same pension amount for their lifetime. The accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee only after the death of both the subscriber and the spouse.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements:

• The scheme is mandatory for all workers in the unorganised sector aged 18-40 years with a valid bank account.

• The Central Government provides a co-contribution of 50% of the subscriber’s contribution, up to a maximum of ₹2,000 per annum, for the entire duration of the policy.

• Upon the death of the subscriber after the age of 60, the pension ceases, and the accumulated corpus is paid to the nominee.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary scheme, not mandatory. It is designed to encourage savings for old age among workers in the unorganised sector, but there is no compulsion to join.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The government’s co-contribution feature had specific conditions and was not for the entire policy duration. It contributed 50% of the subscriber’s contribution or ₹1,000 per year, whichever was lower. This was applicable only for eligible subscribers who joined the scheme between June 2015 and March 2016, and the co-contribution was made for a limited period of five years (2015-2020).

• Statement 3 is incorrect: A key feature of APY is the benefit provided to the spouse. Upon the death of the subscriber (after age 60), the spouse is entitled to receive the same pension amount for their lifetime. The accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee only after the death of both the subscriber and the spouse.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY): The scheme provides a wage-based incentive to employers exclusively in the manufacturing sector for hiring new employees. For a first-time employee, the government provides an incentive equivalent to two months of their EPF wage, credited directly to their bank account upon joining. The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Finance and targets the creation of over 5 crore new jobs by 2027. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides incentives for employers in all sectors, although there is a special focus on the manufacturing sector. For instance, the incentive tenure for manufacturing is extended to 4 years, compared to 2 years for other sectors, but it is not exclusive to manufacturing. Statement 2 is incorrect: The incentive for first-time employees is equivalent to one-month’s EPF wage (capped at ₹15,000). Furthermore, this payment is made in two separate instalments: the first after 6 months of continuous service and the second after 12 months of service, contingent upon completing a financial literacy module. It is not paid in a lump sum upon joining. Statement 3 is incorrect: The PM-VBRY is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. The stated target of the scheme is the creation of over 5 crore new jobs, not 5 crore. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides incentives for employers in all sectors, although there is a special focus on the manufacturing sector. For instance, the incentive tenure for manufacturing is extended to 4 years, compared to 2 years for other sectors, but it is not exclusive to manufacturing. Statement 2 is incorrect: The incentive for first-time employees is equivalent to one-month’s EPF wage (capped at ₹15,000). Furthermore, this payment is made in two separate instalments: the first after 6 months of continuous service and the second after 12 months of service, contingent upon completing a financial literacy module. It is not paid in a lump sum upon joining. Statement 3 is incorrect: The PM-VBRY is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. The stated target of the scheme is the creation of over 5 crore new jobs, not 5 crore.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY):

• The scheme provides a wage-based incentive to employers exclusively in the manufacturing sector for hiring new employees.

• For a first-time employee, the government provides an incentive equivalent to two months of their EPF wage, credited directly to their bank account upon joining.

• The scheme is administered by the Ministry of Finance and targets the creation of over 5 crore new jobs by 2027.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme provides incentives for employers in all sectors, although there is a special focus on the manufacturing sector. For instance, the incentive tenure for manufacturing is extended to 4 years, compared to 2 years for other sectors, but it is not exclusive to manufacturing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The incentive for first-time employees is equivalent to one-month’s EPF wage (capped at ₹15,000). Furthermore, this payment is made in two separate instalments: the first after 6 months of continuous service and the second after 12 months of service, contingent upon completing a financial literacy module. It is not paid in a lump sum upon joining.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The PM-VBRY is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. The stated target of the scheme is the creation of over 5 crore new jobs, not 5 crore.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The recent recognition of Palestinian statehood by France is significant primarily because: (a) It makes France the first European Union member to recognize Palestine. (b) It marks the first such recognition by a permanent member of the UN Security Council and a G7 nation. (c) It guarantees Palestine's full membership status at the United Nations. (d) It follows a binding resolution from the International Court of Justice (ICJ) mandating all G7 nations to recognize Palestine. Correct Solution: B (a) is incorrect: Several other EU members, such as Sweden, Cyprus, Spain, Ireland, and Norway (non-EU but European), have already recognized Palestine. France is not the first. (b) is correct: France is a permanent member of the UN Security Council (P5) and a member of the Group of Seven (G7) industrialized nations. Its decision to recognize Palestine is a major diplomatic shift and sets a precedent within these powerful global blocs, potentially influencing the policies of other Western nations. (c) is incorrect: Recognition by individual countries, even a powerful one like France, does not automatically grant full UN membership. Full membership requires a recommendation from the UN Security Council (where any permanent member can use a veto) followed by a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly. (d) is incorrect: While the ICJ recently deemed the Israeli occupation unlawful, it has not issued a binding resolution that mandates statehood recognition by any country or group of countries. France’s decision was a sovereign political one, driven by factors like the humanitarian crisis in Gaza and a desire to revive the two-state solution. Incorrect Solution: B (a) is incorrect: Several other EU members, such as Sweden, Cyprus, Spain, Ireland, and Norway (non-EU but European), have already recognized Palestine. France is not the first. (b) is correct: France is a permanent member of the UN Security Council (P5) and a member of the Group of Seven (G7) industrialized nations. Its decision to recognize Palestine is a major diplomatic shift and sets a precedent within these powerful global blocs, potentially influencing the policies of other Western nations. (c) is incorrect: Recognition by individual countries, even a powerful one like France, does not automatically grant full UN membership. Full membership requires a recommendation from the UN Security Council (where any permanent member can use a veto) followed by a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly. (d) is incorrect: While the ICJ recently deemed the Israeli occupation unlawful, it has not issued a binding resolution that mandates statehood recognition by any country or group of countries. France’s decision was a sovereign political one, driven by factors like the humanitarian crisis in Gaza and a desire to revive the two-state solution.

#### 5. Question

The recent recognition of Palestinian statehood by France is significant primarily because:

• (a) It makes France the first European Union member to recognize Palestine.

• (b) It marks the first such recognition by a permanent member of the UN Security Council and a G7 nation.

• (c) It guarantees Palestine's full membership status at the United Nations.

• (d) It follows a binding resolution from the International Court of Justice (ICJ) mandating all G7 nations to recognize Palestine.

Solution: B

• (a) is incorrect: Several other EU members, such as Sweden, Cyprus, Spain, Ireland, and Norway (non-EU but European), have already recognized Palestine. France is not the first.

• (b) is correct: France is a permanent member of the UN Security Council (P5) and a member of the Group of Seven (G7) industrialized nations. Its decision to recognize Palestine is a major diplomatic shift and sets a precedent within these powerful global blocs, potentially influencing the policies of other Western nations.

• (c) is incorrect: Recognition by individual countries, even a powerful one like France, does not automatically grant full UN membership. Full membership requires a recommendation from the UN Security Council (where any permanent member can use a veto) followed by a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly.

• (d) is incorrect: While the ICJ recently deemed the Israeli occupation unlawful, it has not issued a binding resolution that mandates statehood recognition by any country or group of countries. France’s decision was a sovereign political one, driven by factors like the humanitarian crisis in Gaza and a desire to revive the two-state solution.

Solution: B

• (a) is incorrect: Several other EU members, such as Sweden, Cyprus, Spain, Ireland, and Norway (non-EU but European), have already recognized Palestine. France is not the first.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Rajendra Chola I: He inherited a powerful empire from his father, Rajaraja Chola I, and extended its influence from the Ganga river in the north to Southeast Asia. His naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire was primarily a cultural mission to spread Dravidian architectural styles. He established a new capital at Gangaikonda Cholapuram and constructed the Cholagangam Tank, showcasing advanced hydraulic engineering. His administration weakened the local village assemblies (sabhas) to centralize power within the monarchy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Rajendra Chola I (1014–1044 CE) inherited a formidable state from his father and was a great conqueror in his own right. He launched a successful campaign up to the Ganga in North India and a historic naval expedition to Southeast Asia, establishing the Chola empire as a major military and maritime power. Statement 2 is incorrect: The naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire in 1025 CE was a strategic military and economic campaign. Its primary goal was to break Srivijaya’s control over the maritime trade routes, particularly the Malacca Strait, to benefit Tamil merchant guilds. While cultural exchange was a byproduct, the main driver was economic and geopolitical dominance, not cultural propagation. Statement 3 is correct: To commemorate his victory over the Pala dynasty of Bengal, he founded the new capital city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram. There, he built a magnificent temple and also commissioned the Cholagangam Tank, a massive artificial lake for irrigation that was an engineering marvel of its time. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chola administration, including under Rajendra Chola I, is known for strengthening local self-governance. He continued the practice of empowering village assemblies (sabhas and urs), which played a crucial role in local administration, revenue collection, and justice. Power was effectively decentralized at the village level. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Rajendra Chola I (1014–1044 CE) inherited a formidable state from his father and was a great conqueror in his own right. He launched a successful campaign up to the Ganga in North India and a historic naval expedition to Southeast Asia, establishing the Chola empire as a major military and maritime power. Statement 2 is incorrect: The naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire in 1025 CE was a strategic military and economic campaign. Its primary goal was to break Srivijaya’s control over the maritime trade routes, particularly the Malacca Strait, to benefit Tamil merchant guilds. While cultural exchange was a byproduct, the main driver was economic and geopolitical dominance, not cultural propagation. Statement 3 is correct: To commemorate his victory over the Pala dynasty of Bengal, he founded the new capital city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram. There, he built a magnificent temple and also commissioned the Cholagangam Tank, a massive artificial lake for irrigation that was an engineering marvel of its time. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chola administration, including under Rajendra Chola I, is known for strengthening local self-governance. He continued the practice of empowering village assemblies (sabhas and urs), which played a crucial role in local administration, revenue collection, and justice. Power was effectively decentralized at the village level.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Rajendra Chola I:

• He inherited a powerful empire from his father, Rajaraja Chola I, and extended its influence from the Ganga river in the north to Southeast Asia.

• His naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire was primarily a cultural mission to spread Dravidian architectural styles.

• He established a new capital at Gangaikonda Cholapuram and constructed the Cholagangam Tank, showcasing advanced hydraulic engineering.

• His administration weakened the local village assemblies (sabhas) to centralize power within the monarchy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Rajendra Chola I (1014–1044 CE) inherited a formidable state from his father and was a great conqueror in his own right. He launched a successful campaign up to the Ganga in North India and a historic naval expedition to Southeast Asia, establishing the Chola empire as a major military and maritime power.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The naval expedition against the Srivijaya empire in 1025 CE was a strategic military and economic campaign. Its primary goal was to break Srivijaya’s control over the maritime trade routes, particularly the Malacca Strait, to benefit Tamil merchant guilds. While cultural exchange was a byproduct, the main driver was economic and geopolitical dominance, not cultural propagation.

• Statement 3 is correct: To commemorate his victory over the Pala dynasty of Bengal, he founded the new capital city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram. There, he built a magnificent temple and also commissioned the Cholagangam Tank, a massive artificial lake for irrigation that was an engineering marvel of its time.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chola administration, including under Rajendra Chola I, is known for strengthening local self-governance. He continued the practice of empowering village assemblies (sabhas and urs), which played a crucial role in local administration, revenue collection, and justice. Power was effectively decentralized at the village level.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The AstroSat observatory’s study of the black hole GRS 1915+105 is considered a breakthrough because it: (a) was the first time a stellar-mass black hole was discovered within the Milky Way. (b) provided the first direct visual image of a black hole's event horizon. (c) captured the dynamic, real-time oscillations of the plasma corona, confirming theoretical models. (d) proved that high-frequency QPOs are generated by the companion star, not the black hole. Correct Solution: C The significance of the AstroSat mission’s findings lies in its observational evidence supporting existing theories. (c) is correct. The key breakthrough was that AstroSat, India’s first multi-wavelength space observatory, was able to observe the rapid changes in the black hole’s immediate environment. It captured the real-time flickering and oscillation of the plasma corona as it changed states. This provided strong observational proof for the theory that links these corona dynamics to the high-frequency Quasi-periodic Oscillations (QPOs) seen in the X-ray emissions, a major step in understanding the physics near a black hole. Incorrect Solution: C The significance of the AstroSat mission’s findings lies in its observational evidence supporting existing theories. (c) is correct. The key breakthrough was that AstroSat, India’s first multi-wavelength space observatory, was able to observe the rapid changes in the black hole’s immediate environment. It captured the real-time flickering and oscillation of the plasma corona as it changed states. This provided strong observational proof for the theory that links these corona dynamics to the high-frequency Quasi-periodic Oscillations (QPOs) seen in the X-ray emissions, a major step in understanding the physics near a black hole.

#### 7. Question

The AstroSat observatory’s study of the black hole GRS 1915+105 is considered a breakthrough because it:

• (a) was the first time a stellar-mass black hole was discovered within the Milky Way.

• (b) provided the first direct visual image of a black hole's event horizon.

• (c) captured the dynamic, real-time oscillations of the plasma corona, confirming theoretical models.

• (d) proved that high-frequency QPOs are generated by the companion star, not the black hole.

Solution: C

The significance of the AstroSat mission’s findings lies in its observational evidence supporting existing theories.

• (c) is correct. The key breakthrough was that AstroSat, India’s first multi-wavelength space observatory, was able to observe the rapid changes in the black hole’s immediate environment. It captured the real-time flickering and oscillation of the plasma corona as it changed states. This provided strong observational proof for the theory that links these corona dynamics to the high-frequency Quasi-periodic Oscillations (QPOs) seen in the X-ray emissions, a major step in understanding the physics near a black hole.

Solution: C

The significance of the AstroSat mission’s findings lies in its observational evidence supporting existing theories.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geographical and political context of Palestine: The territory of Palestine comprises the West Bank, the Gaza Strip, and West Jerusalem. The 1947 UN Partition Plan proposed the creation of two states, an Arab state and a Jewish state, which were both successfully established. The Palestinian Authority governs the Gaza Strip, while Hamas controls the West Bank. The Balfour Declaration of 1917 by the British government supported the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Palestinian territories are generally understood to comprise the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, with East Jerusalem (not West Jerusalem) as the claimed capital. West Jerusalem is under Israeli control. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the UN Partition Plan of 1947 proposed two states, only the Jewish state of Israel was realized in 1948. The proposed Arab state was not established due to the outbreak of the 1948 Arab-Israeli War. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Palestinian Authority (PA), led by the Fatah party, has administrative control over parts of the West Bank. The Gaza Strip has been governed by Hamas since 2007 after a conflict with Fatah. Statement 4 is correct: The Balfour Declaration, issued in 1917 by the British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour, was a public statement of British support for the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine, which was then an Ottoman region. This declaration was a pivotal moment in the history of the region. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Palestinian territories are generally understood to comprise the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, with East Jerusalem (not West Jerusalem) as the claimed capital. West Jerusalem is under Israeli control. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the UN Partition Plan of 1947 proposed two states, only the Jewish state of Israel was realized in 1948. The proposed Arab state was not established due to the outbreak of the 1948 Arab-Israeli War. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Palestinian Authority (PA), led by the Fatah party, has administrative control over parts of the West Bank. The Gaza Strip has been governed by Hamas since 2007 after a conflict with Fatah. Statement 4 is correct: The Balfour Declaration, issued in 1917 by the British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour, was a public statement of British support for the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine, which was then an Ottoman region. This declaration was a pivotal moment in the history of the region.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geographical and political context of Palestine:

• The territory of Palestine comprises the West Bank, the Gaza Strip, and West Jerusalem.

• The 1947 UN Partition Plan proposed the creation of two states, an Arab state and a Jewish state, which were both successfully established.

• The Palestinian Authority governs the Gaza Strip, while Hamas controls the West Bank.

• The Balfour Declaration of 1917 by the British government supported the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Palestinian territories are generally understood to comprise the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, with East Jerusalem (not West Jerusalem) as the claimed capital. West Jerusalem is under Israeli control.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: While the UN Partition Plan of 1947 proposed two states, only the Jewish state of Israel was realized in 1948. The proposed Arab state was not established due to the outbreak of the 1948 Arab-Israeli War.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Palestinian Authority (PA), led by the Fatah party, has administrative control over parts of the West Bank. The Gaza Strip has been governed by Hamas since 2007 after a conflict with Fatah.

• Statement 4 is correct: The Balfour Declaration, issued in 1917 by the British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour, was a public statement of British support for the establishment of a “national home for the Jewish people” in Palestine, which was then an Ottoman region. This declaration was a pivotal moment in the history of the region.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ initiative is projected to have a power capacity of 1200 HP per engine. This capacity is significant because it: (a) matches the power output of the most powerful diesel locomotives currently used by Indian Railways. (b) is the minimum power required to operate on steep gradients in heritage, mountainous routes. (c) is reported to be the highest power capacity for a hydrogen train engine globally. (d) allows the train to operate without the need for onboard battery storage systems. Correct Solution: C (c) is correct. The 1200 HP power capacity makes it the world’s most powerful hydrogen train engine. This highlights India’s technological achievement in this domain, surpassing the power capacities of hydrogen trains developed and deployed in other countries, positioning India as a potential leader in this niche technology. Incorrect Solution: C (c) is correct. The 1200 HP power capacity makes it the world’s most powerful hydrogen train engine. This highlights India’s technological achievement in this domain, surpassing the power capacities of hydrogen trains developed and deployed in other countries, positioning India as a potential leader in this niche technology.

#### 9. Question

The ‘Hydrogen for Heritage’ initiative is projected to have a power capacity of 1200 HP per engine. This capacity is significant because it:

• (a) matches the power output of the most powerful diesel locomotives currently used by Indian Railways.

• (b) is the minimum power required to operate on steep gradients in heritage, mountainous routes.

• (c) is reported to be the highest power capacity for a hydrogen train engine globally.

• (d) allows the train to operate without the need for onboard battery storage systems.

Solution: C

(c) is correct. The 1200 HP power capacity makes it the world’s most powerful hydrogen train engine. This highlights India’s technological achievement in this domain, surpassing the power capacities of hydrogen trains developed and deployed in other countries, positioning India as a potential leader in this niche technology.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Atal Pension Yojana (APY): Statement-I: Eligibility for receiving the Central Government’s co-contribution under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was contingent on the subscriber not being an income taxpayer. Statement-II: The scheme’s design aimed to focus its fiscal support on individuals with lower incomes and those outside the purview of other formal statutory social security schemes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. One of the key conditions for being eligible for the government’s co-contribution (which was available for those who joined in 2015-16) was that the subscriber should not be an income taxpayer. Another condition was not being covered by any other statutory social security scheme. Statement-II is also correct. The overarching goal of the APY is to extend social security to the unorganised sector. The co-contribution component was specifically designed as an incentive to attract the most vulnerable sections. By limiting this benefit to non-taxpayers and those without existing social security coverage, the government ensured that its financial support was targeted and did not subsidize individuals who were already in a better financial position or covered by other schemes. Statement-II provides the precise policy rationale for the rule mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. One of the key conditions for being eligible for the government’s co-contribution (which was available for those who joined in 2015-16) was that the subscriber should not be an income taxpayer. Another condition was not being covered by any other statutory social security scheme. Statement-II is also correct. The overarching goal of the APY is to extend social security to the unorganised sector. The co-contribution component was specifically designed as an incentive to attract the most vulnerable sections. By limiting this benefit to non-taxpayers and those without existing social security coverage, the government ensured that its financial support was targeted and did not subsidize individuals who were already in a better financial position or covered by other schemes. Statement-II provides the precise policy rationale for the rule mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Atal Pension Yojana (APY):

Statement-I: Eligibility for receiving the Central Government’s co-contribution under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) was contingent on the subscriber not being an income taxpayer.

Statement-II: The scheme’s design aimed to focus its fiscal support on individuals with lower incomes and those outside the purview of other formal statutory social security schemes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. One of the key conditions for being eligible for the government’s co-contribution (which was available for those who joined in 2015-16) was that the subscriber should not be an income taxpayer. Another condition was not being covered by any other statutory social security scheme.

• Statement-II is also correct. The overarching goal of the APY is to extend social security to the unorganised sector. The co-contribution component was specifically designed as an incentive to attract the most vulnerable sections. By limiting this benefit to non-taxpayers and those without existing social security coverage, the government ensured that its financial support was targeted and did not subsidize individuals who were already in a better financial position or covered by other schemes.

• Statement-II provides the precise policy rationale for the rule mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the precise policy rationale for the rule mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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