UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding South China Sea. Statement-I: The South China Sea’s economic importance is derived not only from its role as a major global trade route but also from its significant undersea hydrocarbon reserves. Statement-II: The presence of deep basins like the China Sea Basin and extensive continental shelves like the Sunda Shelf creates geological conditions favourable for the formation and accumulation of oil and natural gas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It identifies two primary reasons for the sea’s economic importance: its function as a critical artery for global shipping and its wealth in natural resources, specifically mentioning “rich marine biodiversity, oil reserves.” Statement-II is correct. It provides a geological explanation for the presence of these resources. The existence of deep basins and extensive, shallow continental shelves are classic indicators of potential hydrocarbon deposits. Sedimentary layers in such regions are ideal for the formation and trapping of oil and gas over geological time. Statement-II directly explains a key part of Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It identifies two primary reasons for the sea’s economic importance: its function as a critical artery for global shipping and its wealth in natural resources, specifically mentioning “rich marine biodiversity, oil reserves.” Statement-II is correct. It provides a geological explanation for the presence of these resources. The existence of deep basins and extensive, shallow continental shelves are classic indicators of potential hydrocarbon deposits. Sedimentary layers in such regions are ideal for the formation and trapping of oil and gas over geological time. Statement-II directly explains a key part of Statement-I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding South China Sea.

Statement-I: The South China Sea’s economic importance is derived not only from its role as a major global trade route but also from its significant undersea hydrocarbon reserves.

Statement-II: The presence of deep basins like the China Sea Basin and extensive continental shelves like the Sunda Shelf creates geological conditions favourable for the formation and accumulation of oil and natural gas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. It identifies two primary reasons for the sea’s economic importance: its function as a critical artery for global shipping and its wealth in natural resources, specifically mentioning “rich marine biodiversity, oil reserves.”

• Statement-II is correct. It provides a geological explanation for the presence of these resources. The existence of deep basins and extensive, shallow continental shelves are classic indicators of potential hydrocarbon deposits. Sedimentary layers in such regions are ideal for the formation and trapping of oil and gas over geological time.

Statement-II directly explains a key part of Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II directly explains a key part of Statement-I.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The measles virus is highly contagious, with an airborne transmission mechanism. Potential long-term complications of measles include pneumonia, encephalitis, and loss of immune memory. The MMR vaccine is a single-dose vaccine that confers lifelong immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Measles is caused by a highly contagious virus, the Measles morbillivirus. Its primary mode of transmission is airborne, through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The virus can remain suspended in the air for up to two hours. Statement 2 is correct. While often considered a childhood illness, measles can lead to severe and sometimes life-threatening complications. These include acute conditions like pneumonia (the most common cause of death in young children with measles) and encephalitis (brain swelling), as well as long-term issues like deafness, blindness, and “immune amnesia” (loss of immune memory), which leaves the child vulnerable to other infections. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccine is highly effective, but the standard, recommended schedule for full immunity consists of two doses. The first dose is typically given at 12–15 months of age, and the second dose is given at 4–6 years of age. A single dose does not provide sufficient or lifelong protection. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Measles is caused by a highly contagious virus, the Measles morbillivirus. Its primary mode of transmission is airborne, through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The virus can remain suspended in the air for up to two hours. Statement 2 is correct. While often considered a childhood illness, measles can lead to severe and sometimes life-threatening complications. These include acute conditions like pneumonia (the most common cause of death in young children with measles) and encephalitis (brain swelling), as well as long-term issues like deafness, blindness, and “immune amnesia” (loss of immune memory), which leaves the child vulnerable to other infections. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccine is highly effective, but the standard, recommended schedule for full immunity consists of two doses. The first dose is typically given at 12–15 months of age, and the second dose is given at 4–6 years of age. A single dose does not provide sufficient or lifelong protection.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The measles virus is highly contagious, with an airborne transmission mechanism.

• Potential long-term complications of measles include pneumonia, encephalitis, and loss of immune memory.

• The MMR vaccine is a single-dose vaccine that confers lifelong immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Measles is caused by a highly contagious virus, the Measles morbillivirus. Its primary mode of transmission is airborne, through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs or sneezes. The virus can remain suspended in the air for up to two hours.

• Statement 2 is correct. While often considered a childhood illness, measles can lead to severe and sometimes life-threatening complications. These include acute conditions like pneumonia (the most common cause of death in young children with measles) and encephalitis (brain swelling), as well as long-term issues like deafness, blindness, and “immune amnesia” (loss of immune memory), which leaves the child vulnerable to other infections.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccine is highly effective, but the standard, recommended schedule for full immunity consists of two doses. The first dose is typically given at 12–15 months of age, and the second dose is given at 4–6 years of age. A single dose does not provide sufficient or lifelong protection.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Match the following Chola rulers with their significant contributions. List-I (Ruler) List-II (Contribution) A. Rajaraja Chola I 1. Naval expedition to the Ganga River and Srivijaya B. Rajendra Chola I 2. Focus on internal administration and revenue reforms C. Kulottunga Chola I 3. Construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-3, B-2, C-1 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2 (d) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: C Rajaraja Chola I is correctly matched with 3. Construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur. This temple, also known as Rajarajeshvaram, is a masterpiece of Dravidian architecture and a testament to his power and devotion to Shaivism. He also strengthened the Chola navy and began the expansion into Sri Lanka. Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja I, is correctly matched with 1. Naval expedition to the Ganga River and Srivijaya. He surpassed his father’s military achievements, famously leading his army to the Gangetic plains, earning the title ‘Gangaikonda’. His navy launched a successful expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom (in Sumatra), demonstrating Chola maritime supremacy across the Bay of Bengal. He also built the city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Kulottunga Chola I is correctly matched with 2. Focus on internal administration and revenue reforms. While he also had military campaigns, his reign is particularly noted for consolidating the empire and focusing on governance. He initiated a massive land survey and settlement which was crucial for revenue administration and earned him the title Sungam Tavirtta Cholan (the one who abolished tolls). Incorrect Solution: C Rajaraja Chola I is correctly matched with 3. Construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur. This temple, also known as Rajarajeshvaram, is a masterpiece of Dravidian architecture and a testament to his power and devotion to Shaivism. He also strengthened the Chola navy and began the expansion into Sri Lanka. Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja I, is correctly matched with 1. Naval expedition to the Ganga River and Srivijaya. He surpassed his father’s military achievements, famously leading his army to the Gangetic plains, earning the title ‘Gangaikonda’. His navy launched a successful expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom (in Sumatra), demonstrating Chola maritime supremacy across the Bay of Bengal. He also built the city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Kulottunga Chola I is correctly matched with 2. Focus on internal administration and revenue reforms. While he also had military campaigns, his reign is particularly noted for consolidating the empire and focusing on governance. He initiated a massive land survey and settlement which was crucial for revenue administration and earned him the title Sungam Tavirtta Cholan (the one who abolished tolls).

#### 3. Question

Match the following Chola rulers with their significant contributions.

List-I (Ruler) | List-II (Contribution)

A. Rajaraja Chola I | 1. Naval expedition to the Ganga River and Srivijaya

B. Rajendra Chola I | 2. Focus on internal administration and revenue reforms

C. Kulottunga Chola I | 3. Construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: C

• Rajaraja Chola I is correctly matched with 3. Construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur. This temple, also known as Rajarajeshvaram, is a masterpiece of Dravidian architecture and a testament to his power and devotion to Shaivism. He also strengthened the Chola navy and began the expansion into Sri Lanka.

• Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja I, is correctly matched with 1. Naval expedition to the Ganga River and Srivijaya. He surpassed his father’s military achievements, famously leading his army to the Gangetic plains, earning the title ‘Gangaikonda’. His navy launched a successful expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom (in Sumatra), demonstrating Chola maritime supremacy across the Bay of Bengal. He also built the city of Gangaikonda Cholapuram.

• Kulottunga Chola I is correctly matched with 2. Focus on internal administration and revenue reforms. While he also had military campaigns, his reign is particularly noted for consolidating the empire and focusing on governance. He initiated a massive land survey and settlement which was crucial for revenue administration and earned him the title Sungam Tavirtta Cholan (the one who abolished tolls).

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With respect to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs), consider the following statements: The construction of hydropower projects in the Himalayas can decrease GLOF risk by regulating water flow from glacial lakes. Heavy rainfall and cloudburst events can act as triggers for GLOFs by rapidly increasing water volume in moraine-dammed lakes. Internal seepage, or piping, within a moraine dam strengthens its structure over time through sediment compaction. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Unregulated construction of hydropower projects and other infrastructure near fragile glacial zones is considered an anthropogenic cause that increases GLOF risk. Such activities can disturb and destabilize the delicate moraine structures, potentially triggering a dam collapse. The destruction of the Teesta-III Dam in the 2023 Sikkim GLOF highlighted this vulnerability. Statement 2 is correct. Intense precipitation events like heavy rainfall or cloudbursts can dramatically and suddenly increase the volume of water in a glacial lake. This rapid influx of water raises the lake level and exerts immense hydrostatic pressure on the moraine dam. If the pressure exceeds the structural integrity of the loose dam, it can lead to a catastrophic breach, triggering a GLOF. The 2013 Kedarnath disaster was a tragic example where a cloudburst contributed to a GLOF. Statement 3 is incorrect. Internal seepage, also known as piping, is a process where water finds pathways through the moraine dam material. Instead of strengthening the structure, this process progressively erodes the dam from within, washing away fine particles and creating channels. This internal erosion weakens the dam’s structural integrity over time, making it more susceptible to failure. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Unregulated construction of hydropower projects and other infrastructure near fragile glacial zones is considered an anthropogenic cause that increases GLOF risk. Such activities can disturb and destabilize the delicate moraine structures, potentially triggering a dam collapse. The destruction of the Teesta-III Dam in the 2023 Sikkim GLOF highlighted this vulnerability. Statement 2 is correct. Intense precipitation events like heavy rainfall or cloudbursts can dramatically and suddenly increase the volume of water in a glacial lake. This rapid influx of water raises the lake level and exerts immense hydrostatic pressure on the moraine dam. If the pressure exceeds the structural integrity of the loose dam, it can lead to a catastrophic breach, triggering a GLOF. The 2013 Kedarnath disaster was a tragic example where a cloudburst contributed to a GLOF. Statement 3 is incorrect. Internal seepage, also known as piping, is a process where water finds pathways through the moraine dam material. Instead of strengthening the structure, this process progressively erodes the dam from within, washing away fine particles and creating channels. This internal erosion weakens the dam’s structural integrity over time, making it more susceptible to failure.

#### 4. Question

With respect to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs), consider the following statements:

• The construction of hydropower projects in the Himalayas can decrease GLOF risk by regulating water flow from glacial lakes.

• Heavy rainfall and cloudburst events can act as triggers for GLOFs by rapidly increasing water volume in moraine-dammed lakes.

• Internal seepage, or piping, within a moraine dam strengthens its structure over time through sediment compaction.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Unregulated construction of hydropower projects and other infrastructure near fragile glacial zones is considered an anthropogenic cause that increases GLOF risk. Such activities can disturb and destabilize the delicate moraine structures, potentially triggering a dam collapse. The destruction of the Teesta-III Dam in the 2023 Sikkim GLOF highlighted this vulnerability.

• Statement 2 is correct. Intense precipitation events like heavy rainfall or cloudbursts can dramatically and suddenly increase the volume of water in a glacial lake. This rapid influx of water raises the lake level and exerts immense hydrostatic pressure on the moraine dam. If the pressure exceeds the structural integrity of the loose dam, it can lead to a catastrophic breach, triggering a GLOF. The 2013 Kedarnath disaster was a tragic example where a cloudburst contributed to a GLOF.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Internal seepage, also known as piping, is a process where water finds pathways through the moraine dam material. Instead of strengthening the structure, this process progressively erodes the dam from within, washing away fine particles and creating channels. This internal erosion weakens the dam’s structural integrity over time, making it more susceptible to failure.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Match the following terms associated with Chola administration and economy with their correct description and domain. List-I (Term) List-II (Description) List-III (Domain) 1. Ur A. An assembly of Brahmin landowners i. Commerce 2. Manigramam B. A local village assembly ii. Administration 3. Sabha C. A prominent merchant guild iii. Judiciary Select the correct matching: (a) 1-B-i, 2-A-ii, 3-C-iii (b) 1-A-ii, 2-B-iii, 3-C-i (c) 1-B-ii, 2-C-i, 3-A-ii (d) 1-C-ii, 2-A-i, 3-B-iii Correct Solution: C Ur (1) was a general assembly found in non-Brahmin villages. It was a local village assembly (B) primarily concerned with local governance and land management, making its domain Administration (ii). Manigramam (2) was one of the most significant and powerful merchant guilds during the Chola period, alongside others like the Ayyavole 500. It was a merchant guild (C) that was deeply involved in both domestic and extensive overseas trade, placing its domain squarely in Commerce (i). Sabha (3), also known as Mahasabha, was a more formal and exclusive assembly found in agraharas or villages granted to Brahmins. It was an assembly of Brahmin landowners (A). Like the Ur, its functions were related to local governance, as detailed in the Uthiramerur inscriptions, making its domain Administration (ii). Incorrect Solution: C Ur (1) was a general assembly found in non-Brahmin villages. It was a local village assembly (B) primarily concerned with local governance and land management, making its domain Administration (ii). Manigramam (2) was one of the most significant and powerful merchant guilds during the Chola period, alongside others like the Ayyavole 500. It was a merchant guild (C) that was deeply involved in both domestic and extensive overseas trade, placing its domain squarely in Commerce (i). Sabha (3), also known as Mahasabha, was a more formal and exclusive assembly found in agraharas or villages granted to Brahmins. It was an assembly of Brahmin landowners (A). Like the Ur, its functions were related to local governance, as detailed in the Uthiramerur inscriptions, making its domain Administration (ii).

#### 5. Question

Match the following terms associated with Chola administration and economy with their correct description and domain.

List-I (Term) | List-II (Description) | List-III (Domain)

1.Ur | A. An assembly of Brahmin landowners | i. Commerce
2.Manigramam | B. A local village assembly | ii. Administration
3.Sabha | C. A prominent merchant guild | iii. Judiciary

Select the correct matching:

• (a) 1-B-i, 2-A-ii, 3-C-iii

• (b) 1-A-ii, 2-B-iii, 3-C-i

• (c) 1-B-ii, 2-C-i, 3-A-ii

• (d) 1-C-ii, 2-A-i, 3-B-iii

Solution: C

• Ur (1) was a general assembly found in non-Brahmin villages. It was a local village assembly (B) primarily concerned with local governance and land management, making its domain Administration (ii).

• Manigramam (2) was one of the most significant and powerful merchant guilds during the Chola period, alongside others like the Ayyavole 500. It was a merchant guild (C) that was deeply involved in both domestic and extensive overseas trade, placing its domain squarely in Commerce (i).

• Sabha (3), also known as Mahasabha, was a more formal and exclusive assembly found in agraharas or villages granted to Brahmins. It was an assembly of Brahmin landowners (A). Like the Ur, its functions were related to local governance, as detailed in the Uthiramerur inscriptions, making its domain Administration (ii).

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the characteristics of a Tsunami, consider the following statements: In the deep ocean, a tsunami wave has a very high amplitude but travels at a relatively low speed. The arrival of the wave crest always precedes the arrival of the trough at the coastline. A tsunami event typically consists of a single, massive wave, with its destructive power concentrated in the initial impact. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: In deep ocean water, a tsunami has a very low amplitude (often just 30–50 cm) and travels at extremely high speeds (up to 800–900 km/h). Its destructive potential is derived from the enormous volume of water and energy it carries over a long wavelength, not its height in deep water. Statement 2 is incorrect: The arrival sequence of a tsunami wave is not fixed. Often, the trough of the wave arrives first, causing a phenomenon known as the “drawback effect,” where the sea level recedes dramatically from the coast. This is a critical warning sign that is often misinterpreted. The crest follows this recession. Statement 3 is incorrect: A tsunami is not a single event but a series of waves, referred to as a “wave train.” These waves can arrive over several hours. Frequently, the first wave is not the largest or most destructive; subsequent waves can be significantly more powerful. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: In deep ocean water, a tsunami has a very low amplitude (often just 30–50 cm) and travels at extremely high speeds (up to 800–900 km/h). Its destructive potential is derived from the enormous volume of water and energy it carries over a long wavelength, not its height in deep water. Statement 2 is incorrect: The arrival sequence of a tsunami wave is not fixed. Often, the trough of the wave arrives first, causing a phenomenon known as the “drawback effect,” where the sea level recedes dramatically from the coast. This is a critical warning sign that is often misinterpreted. The crest follows this recession. Statement 3 is incorrect: A tsunami is not a single event but a series of waves, referred to as a “wave train.” These waves can arrive over several hours. Frequently, the first wave is not the largest or most destructive; subsequent waves can be significantly more powerful.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the characteristics of a Tsunami, consider the following statements:

• In the deep ocean, a tsunami wave has a very high amplitude but travels at a relatively low speed.

• The arrival of the wave crest always precedes the arrival of the trough at the coastline.

• A tsunami event typically consists of a single, massive wave, with its destructive power concentrated in the initial impact.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In deep ocean water, a tsunami has a very low amplitude (often just 30–50 cm) and travels at extremely high speeds (up to 800–900 km/h). Its destructive potential is derived from the enormous volume of water and energy it carries over a long wavelength, not its height in deep water.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The arrival sequence of a tsunami wave is not fixed. Often, the trough of the wave arrives first, causing a phenomenon known as the “drawback effect,” where the sea level recedes dramatically from the coast. This is a critical warning sign that is often misinterpreted. The crest follows this recession.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A tsunami is not a single event but a series of waves, referred to as a “wave train.” These waves can arrive over several hours. Frequently, the first wave is not the largest or most destructive; subsequent waves can be significantly more powerful.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the Indian military strategy during the 1999 Kargil War? (a) A swift, offensive blitzkrieg across the Line of Control to capture strategic Pakistani posts. (b) A combined arms approach using air power and ground troops to reclaim Indian territory while respecting the sanctity of the Line of Control. (c) A defensive posture focused on containing the infiltration and seeking a diplomatic resolution through international intermediaries. (d) A reliance on special forces to conduct covert operations deep inside enemy territory to disrupt their command and control. Correct Solution: B The Indian response, codenamed Operation Vijay, was a carefully calibrated military action. (b) is correct. India’s strategy was a classic combined arms operation. The Indian Army undertook treacherous ground assaults to recapture fortified peaks like Tiger Hill and Tololing. This was synergistically supported by the Indian Air Force’s Operation Safed Sagar, which used aircraft like the Mirage-2000 for precision strikes on enemy positions at high altitudes. This dual approach was executed while strictly adhering to the decision not to cross the LoC. Incorrect Solution: B The Indian response, codenamed Operation Vijay, was a carefully calibrated military action. (b) is correct. India’s strategy was a classic combined arms operation. The Indian Army undertook treacherous ground assaults to recapture fortified peaks like Tiger Hill and Tololing. This was synergistically supported by the Indian Air Force’s Operation Safed Sagar, which used aircraft like the Mirage-2000 for precision strikes on enemy positions at high altitudes. This dual approach was executed while strictly adhering to the decision not to cross the LoC.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following best describes the Indian military strategy during the 1999 Kargil War?

• (a) A swift, offensive blitzkrieg across the Line of Control to capture strategic Pakistani posts.

• (b) A combined arms approach using air power and ground troops to reclaim Indian territory while respecting the sanctity of the Line of Control.

• (c) A defensive posture focused on containing the infiltration and seeking a diplomatic resolution through international intermediaries.

• (d) A reliance on special forces to conduct covert operations deep inside enemy territory to disrupt their command and control.

Solution: B

The Indian response, codenamed Operation Vijay, was a carefully calibrated military action.

• (b) is correct. India’s strategy was a classic combined arms operation. The Indian Army undertook treacherous ground assaults to recapture fortified peaks like Tiger Hill and Tololing. This was synergistically supported by the Indian Air Force’s Operation Safed Sagar, which used aircraft like the Mirage-2000 for precision strikes on enemy positions at high altitudes. This dual approach was executed while strictly adhering to the decision not to cross the LoC.

Solution: B

The Indian response, codenamed Operation Vijay, was a carefully calibrated military action.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of a Tsunami: A Tsunami’s speed is directly proportional to the depth of the ocean water it travels through. Tsunami waves are a form of shallow-water waves, irrespective of the ocean’s depth. India’s Tsunami Early Warning System relies primarily on satellite radar altimetry to detect waves in the deep ocean. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters. Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour. Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters. Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour. Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the phenomenon of a Tsunami:

• A Tsunami’s speed is directly proportional to the depth of the ocean water it travels through.

• Tsunami waves are a form of shallow-water waves, irrespective of the ocean’s depth.

• India’s Tsunami Early Warning System relies primarily on satellite radar altimetry to detect waves in the deep ocean.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The speed of a tsunami wave is dependent on the water depth. As the depth (D) increases, the velocity (v) of the tsunami increases. This explains why they travel so fast in the deep ocean and slow down in shallower coastal waters.

• Statement 2 is correct: In oceanography, a wave is classified as a “shallow-water wave” when the ratio of water depth to its wavelength is very small (typically <1/20). Tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths (up to 200 km). Therefore, even in the deepest parts of the ocean (e.g., 4 km depth), the ocean is “shallow” relative to the tsunami’s wavelength. This property governs their behaviour.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: While satellite altimetry can be used, India’s system primarily relies on a network of seismic stations to detect tsunamigenic earthquakes and Bottom Pressure Recorders (BPRs) on DART buoys to detect the passage of a tsunami wave by measuring changes in sea pressure in real time.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the composition and functioning of an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) under the POSH Act, 2013, consider the following statements: The committee must be presided over by a senior-level female employee from the organization. The ICC is mandated to complete its inquiry into a complaint within a period of 30 days. The inclusion of an external member from an NGO or with social/legal expertise is optional but recommended. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved. Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved. Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the composition and functioning of an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) under the POSH Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

• The committee must be presided over by a senior-level female employee from the organization.

• The ICC is mandated to complete its inquiry into a complaint within a period of 30 days.

• The inclusion of an external member from an NGO or with social/legal expertise is optional but recommended.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The POSH Act, 2013, lays down a specific and mandatory composition for the ICC to ensure impartiality and gender sensitivity. A key requirement under Section 4 of the Act is that the Presiding Officer of the ICC must be a woman employed at a senior level within the workplace. This is a non-negotiable provision designed to provide confidence to women complainants.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act mandates that the inquiry must be completed within a period of 90 days from the date of the complaint. This timeframe is provided to allow for a thorough investigation, including gathering evidence and hearing from all parties involved.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The inclusion of an external member is mandatory, not optional. Section 4 of the POSH Act explicitly states that the ICC must include one member from amongst non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with the issues relating to sexual harassment. This ensures an external, unbiased perspective in the proceedings.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The “drawback effect” associated with a tsunami is a critical natural warning sign. This phenomenon occurs because: (a) The immense energy of the approaching wave compresses the air ahead of it, pushing the water back. (b) The trough of the long-wavelength tsunami wave arrives at the coast before the crest. (c) The tectonic plate subsidence that generates the tsunami pulls the entire water column downward. (d) Frictional drag from the shallowing seabed slows the base of the wave, causing the surface water to recede. Correct Solution: B The “drawback effect” is a direct consequence of the wave mechanics of a tsunami. A tsunami is not a single wall of water but a series of waves with extremely long wavelengths. Like any wave, it has crests (peaks) and troughs (low points). A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement of the seafloor. This disturbance creates a wave train that propagates outwards. Depending on the nature of the seafloor movement and the observer’s location relative to the epicentre, the trough of the wave may reach the shore before the first crest. When the trough arrives, it manifests as a massive and rapid recession of sea level, exposing large areas of the seabed. This is the “drawback.” The crest of the wave, which is the destructive inundation, follows this withdrawal. Option (b) accurately describes this sequence of events. Incorrect Solution: B The “drawback effect” is a direct consequence of the wave mechanics of a tsunami. A tsunami is not a single wall of water but a series of waves with extremely long wavelengths. Like any wave, it has crests (peaks) and troughs (low points). A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement of the seafloor. This disturbance creates a wave train that propagates outwards. Depending on the nature of the seafloor movement and the observer’s location relative to the epicentre, the trough of the wave may reach the shore before the first crest. When the trough arrives, it manifests as a massive and rapid recession of sea level, exposing large areas of the seabed. This is the “drawback.” The crest of the wave, which is the destructive inundation, follows this withdrawal. Option (b) accurately describes this sequence of events.

#### 10. Question

The “drawback effect” associated with a tsunami is a critical natural warning sign. This phenomenon occurs because:

• (a) The immense energy of the approaching wave compresses the air ahead of it, pushing the water back.

• (b) The trough of the long-wavelength tsunami wave arrives at the coast before the crest.

• (c) The tectonic plate subsidence that generates the tsunami pulls the entire water column downward.

• (d) Frictional drag from the shallowing seabed slows the base of the wave, causing the surface water to recede.

Solution: B

The “drawback effect” is a direct consequence of the wave mechanics of a tsunami.

• A tsunami is not a single wall of water but a series of waves with extremely long wavelengths. Like any wave, it has crests (peaks) and troughs (low points).

• A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement of the seafloor. This disturbance creates a wave train that propagates outwards. Depending on the nature of the seafloor movement and the observer’s location relative to the epicentre, the trough of the wave may reach the shore before the first crest.

• When the trough arrives, it manifests as a massive and rapid recession of sea level, exposing large areas of the seabed. This is the “drawback.” The crest of the wave, which is the destructive inundation, follows this withdrawal. Option (b) accurately describes this sequence of events.

Solution: B

The “drawback effect” is a direct consequence of the wave mechanics of a tsunami.

• A tsunami is not a single wall of water but a series of waves with extremely long wavelengths. Like any wave, it has crests (peaks) and troughs (low points).

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