UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 28 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India, consider the following statements: All CPSEs are mandatory statutory corporations created through specific Acts of Parliament. The classification of CPSEs into different schedules is primarily used to determine the pay scales of Board-level executives. A company is classified as a CPSE only if the direct holding of the Central Government is 100%. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because CPSEs can be incorporated either under the Companies Act, 2013 (or the 1956 Act) or created as Statutory Corporations through specific Acts of Parliament. They are not “mandatorily” statutory. Statement 2 is correct; the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) classifies entities into Schedules A, B, C, and D to streamline management and determine Industrial Dearness Allowance (IDA) pay scales for the Chairman, Managing Director, and Board members. Statement 3 is incorrect because a CPSE is defined as a company where the direct holding of the Central Government is 51% or more, not necessarily 100%. This categorization system was introduced in 1965 to create a hierarchy based on operational size and strategic importance. Upgrading an entity like the National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) to Schedule ‘A’ grants it higher financial and operational autonomy, reflecting its consistent performance and potential to become a global player. This allows the board to take more robust decisions without frequent ministerial intervention. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because CPSEs can be incorporated either under the Companies Act, 2013 (or the 1956 Act) or created as Statutory Corporations through specific Acts of Parliament. They are not “mandatorily” statutory. Statement 2 is correct; the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) classifies entities into Schedules A, B, C, and D to streamline management and determine Industrial Dearness Allowance (IDA) pay scales for the Chairman, Managing Director, and Board members. Statement 3 is incorrect because a CPSE is defined as a company where the direct holding of the Central Government is 51% or more, not necessarily 100%. This categorization system was introduced in 1965 to create a hierarchy based on operational size and strategic importance. Upgrading an entity like the National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) to Schedule ‘A’ grants it higher financial and operational autonomy, reflecting its consistent performance and potential to become a global player. This allows the board to take more robust decisions without frequent ministerial intervention.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India, consider the following statements:

• All CPSEs are mandatory statutory corporations created through specific Acts of Parliament.

• The classification of CPSEs into different schedules is primarily used to determine the pay scales of Board-level executives.

• A company is classified as a CPSE only if the direct holding of the Central Government is 100%.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because CPSEs can be incorporated either under the Companies Act, 2013 (or the 1956 Act) or created as Statutory Corporations through specific Acts of Parliament. They are not “mandatorily” statutory.

• Statement 2 is correct; the Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) classifies entities into Schedules A, B, C, and D to streamline management and determine Industrial Dearness Allowance (IDA) pay scales for the Chairman, Managing Director, and Board members.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because a CPSE is defined as a company where the direct holding of the Central Government is 51% or more, not necessarily 100%. This categorization system was introduced in 1965 to create a hierarchy based on operational size and strategic importance.

• Upgrading an entity like the National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) to Schedule ‘A’ grants it higher financial and operational autonomy, reflecting its consistent performance and potential to become a global player. This allows the board to take more robust decisions without frequent ministerial intervention.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points In the context of the Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following pairs: Organization/Event : Leader Associated Hindustan Republican Association : Ram Prasad Bismil Lahore Conspiracy (1928) : Chandrashekhar Azad Non-Cooperation Movement : Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correct as Chandrashekhar Azad joined the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil. After the British crackdown on HRA, Azad reorganized it into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). Pair 2 is correct; Azad, along with Bhagat Singh and Rajguru, executed the assassination of John Saunders in the Lahore Conspiracy to avenge Lala Lajpat Rai’s death. Pair 3 is correct; Azad’s original name was Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari. He participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement at the age of 15, where he famously earned the title ‘Azad’ during his trial. Disappointed by the suspension of the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident, he shifted toward militant revolutionary methods. He was known for his “Quick Silver” dexterity and vowed never to be captured alive, a promise he kept during the gun battle at Alfred Park in 1931. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correct as Chandrashekhar Azad joined the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil. After the British crackdown on HRA, Azad reorganized it into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). Pair 2 is correct; Azad, along with Bhagat Singh and Rajguru, executed the assassination of John Saunders in the Lahore Conspiracy to avenge Lala Lajpat Rai’s death. Pair 3 is correct; Azad’s original name was Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari. He participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement at the age of 15, where he famously earned the title ‘Azad’ during his trial. Disappointed by the suspension of the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident, he shifted toward militant revolutionary methods. He was known for his “Quick Silver” dexterity and vowed never to be captured alive, a promise he kept during the gun battle at Alfred Park in 1931.

#### 2. Question

In the context of the Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following pairs:

Organization/Event : Leader Associated

• Hindustan Republican Association : Ram Prasad Bismil

• Lahore Conspiracy (1928) : Chandrashekhar Azad

• Non-Cooperation Movement : Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correct as Chandrashekhar Azad joined the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil. After the British crackdown on HRA, Azad reorganized it into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).

• Pair 2 is correct; Azad, along with Bhagat Singh and Rajguru, executed the assassination of John Saunders in the Lahore Conspiracy to avenge Lala Lajpat Rai’s death.

• Pair 3 is correct; Azad’s original name was Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari. He participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement at the age of 15, where he famously earned the title ‘Azad’ during his trial. Disappointed by the suspension of the movement after the Chauri Chaura incident, he shifted toward militant revolutionary methods. He was known for his “Quick Silver” dexterity and vowed never to be captured alive, a promise he kept during the gun battle at Alfred Park in 1931.

Solution: C

• Pair 2 is correct; Azad, along with Bhagat Singh and Rajguru, executed the assassination of John Saunders in the Lahore Conspiracy to avenge Lala Lajpat Rai’s death.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following species of Macaques and their typical habitats: Species : Location/Feature Lion-tailed Macaque : Western Ghats, India Crested Black Macaque : Sulawesi, Indonesia Japanese Macaque : Tropical rainforests only How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. The Lion-tailed Macaque is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats of Southern India, easily identified by its silver mane. The Crested Black Macaque is native to the Indonesian island of Sulawesi. Pair 3 is incorrect; Japanese Macaques (Snow Monkeys) are famous for living in cold climates and soaking in hot springs, not just tropical rainforests. In fact, macaques as a genus are highly adaptable and can be found in rocky cliffs, urban plains, and high-altitude mountains. They are robust primates with arms and legs of equal length and possess dog-like muzzles. One of their most distinctive social traits is their reliance on physical touch for emotional regulation; young macaques abandoned by their mothers often seek comfort from surrogate objects to maintain emotional stability, as seen in the viral case of the baby macaque ‘Punch.’ Incorrect Solution: B Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. The Lion-tailed Macaque is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats of Southern India, easily identified by its silver mane. The Crested Black Macaque is native to the Indonesian island of Sulawesi. Pair 3 is incorrect; Japanese Macaques (Snow Monkeys) are famous for living in cold climates and soaking in hot springs, not just tropical rainforests. In fact, macaques as a genus are highly adaptable and can be found in rocky cliffs, urban plains, and high-altitude mountains. They are robust primates with arms and legs of equal length and possess dog-like muzzles. One of their most distinctive social traits is their reliance on physical touch for emotional regulation; young macaques abandoned by their mothers often seek comfort from surrogate objects to maintain emotional stability, as seen in the viral case of the baby macaque ‘Punch.’

#### 3. Question

Consider the following species of Macaques and their typical habitats:

Species : Location/Feature

• Lion-tailed Macaque : Western Ghats, India

• Crested Black Macaque : Sulawesi, Indonesia

• Japanese Macaque : Tropical rainforests only

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched. The Lion-tailed Macaque is an endangered species endemic to the Western Ghats of Southern India, easily identified by its silver mane. The Crested Black Macaque is native to the Indonesian island of Sulawesi.

• Pair 3 is incorrect; Japanese Macaques (Snow Monkeys) are famous for living in cold climates and soaking in hot springs, not just tropical rainforests. In fact, macaques as a genus are highly adaptable and can be found in rocky cliffs, urban plains, and high-altitude mountains. They are robust primates with arms and legs of equal length and possess dog-like muzzles.

• One of their most distinctive social traits is their reliance on physical touch for emotional regulation; young macaques abandoned by their mothers often seek comfort from surrogate objects to maintain emotional stability, as seen in the viral case of the baby macaque ‘Punch.’

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points In the context of the new GDP series (Base Year 2022-23) introduced by MoSPI, consider the following statements: The number of price indicators used for inflation adjustment has been tripled compared to the 2011-12 series. The ‘Double Deflation’ method ensures that inputs and outputs in manufacturing are deflated separately. The new series uses old survey data proxies to estimate the activity of the informal sector. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the new series, MoSPI tripled the price indicators (from ~180 to ~600) to ensure granular deflation (Statement 1). The introduction of ‘Double Deflation’ for manufacturing and agriculture is a major shift; it deflates inputs and outputs separately to prevent profit fluctuations from raw material costs being miscounted as production growth (Statement 2). Statement 3 is incorrect because the new series moves away from old proxies. It now uses actual annual level estimates from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprise (ASUSE) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to capture the informal sector more accurately. Furthermore, it incorporates Big Data like GST and e-Vahan to track digital footprints and transport services. This shift to the 2022-23 base year aligns India with the International System of National Accounts (SNA) and helps account for the modern gig economy. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the new series, MoSPI tripled the price indicators (from ~180 to ~600) to ensure granular deflation (Statement 1). The introduction of ‘Double Deflation’ for manufacturing and agriculture is a major shift; it deflates inputs and outputs separately to prevent profit fluctuations from raw material costs being miscounted as production growth (Statement 2). Statement 3 is incorrect because the new series moves away from old proxies. It now uses actual annual level estimates from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprise (ASUSE) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to capture the informal sector more accurately. Furthermore, it incorporates Big Data like GST and e-Vahan to track digital footprints and transport services. This shift to the 2022-23 base year aligns India with the International System of National Accounts (SNA) and helps account for the modern gig economy.

#### 4. Question

In the context of the new GDP series (Base Year 2022-23) introduced by MoSPI, consider the following statements:

• The number of price indicators used for inflation adjustment has been tripled compared to the 2011-12 series.

• The ‘Double Deflation’ method ensures that inputs and outputs in manufacturing are deflated separately.

• The new series uses old survey data proxies to estimate the activity of the informal sector.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under the new series, MoSPI tripled the price indicators (from ~180 to ~600) to ensure granular deflation (Statement 1). The introduction of ‘Double Deflation’ for manufacturing and agriculture is a major shift; it deflates inputs and outputs separately to prevent profit fluctuations from raw material costs being miscounted as production growth (Statement 2).

• Statement 3 is incorrect because the new series moves away from old proxies. It now uses actual annual level estimates from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprise (ASUSE) and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to capture the informal sector more accurately.

• Furthermore, it incorporates Big Data like GST and e-Vahan to track digital footprints and transport services. This shift to the 2022-23 base year aligns India with the International System of National Accounts (SNA) and helps account for the modern gig economy.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme: The scheme is only applicable to cooperative societies that operate within the territorial jurisdiction of a single state. It excludes the funding of AYUSH services as they are covered under a separate Ministry of AYUSH scheme. The interest rebate for women-majority cooperatives is a permanent, unconditional grant provided at the start of the project. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is open to cooperatives registered under either the State Acts or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act. This ensures a wide reach across the country. Statement 2 is incorrect because one of the core aims of Ayushman Sahakar is to strengthen the AYUSH sector. It specifically provides financial assistance for AYUSH hospitals and services, aligning with India’s integrative healthcare model. It does not exclude them; it actively promotes them. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1% interest rebate for women-majority cooperatives is not an unconditional grant. It is a rebate on the loan interest, and it is subject to timely repayment compliance. If the society defaults, they may lose the incentive. This structure ensures fiscal discipline while promoting women’s empowerment in the healthcare sector. The scheme overall is designed to be a loan-based assistance program (up to 90% funding) implemented by the NCDC, aiming to make healthcare community-owned and affordable. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is open to cooperatives registered under either the State Acts or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act. This ensures a wide reach across the country. Statement 2 is incorrect because one of the core aims of Ayushman Sahakar is to strengthen the AYUSH sector. It specifically provides financial assistance for AYUSH hospitals and services, aligning with India’s integrative healthcare model. It does not exclude them; it actively promotes them. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1% interest rebate for women-majority cooperatives is not an unconditional grant. It is a rebate on the loan interest, and it is subject to timely repayment compliance. If the society defaults, they may lose the incentive. This structure ensures fiscal discipline while promoting women’s empowerment in the healthcare sector. The scheme overall is designed to be a loan-based assistance program (up to 90% funding) implemented by the NCDC, aiming to make healthcare community-owned and affordable.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme:

• The scheme is only applicable to cooperative societies that operate within the territorial jurisdiction of a single state.

• It excludes the funding of AYUSH services as they are covered under a separate Ministry of AYUSH scheme.

• The interest rebate for women-majority cooperatives is a permanent, unconditional grant provided at the start of the project.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is open to cooperatives registered under either the State Acts or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act. This ensures a wide reach across the country.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because one of the core aims of Ayushman Sahakar is to strengthen the AYUSH sector. It specifically provides financial assistance for AYUSH hospitals and services, aligning with India’s integrative healthcare model. It does not exclude them; it actively promotes them.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because the 1% interest rebate for women-majority cooperatives is not an unconditional grant. It is a rebate on the loan interest, and it is subject to timely repayment compliance. If the society defaults, they may lose the incentive. This structure ensures fiscal discipline while promoting women’s empowerment in the healthcare sector. The scheme overall is designed to be a loan-based assistance program (up to 90% funding) implemented by the NCDC, aiming to make healthcare community-owned and affordable.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha: A resolution for removal can be moved only after giving at least 14 days’ notice to the Secretary-General. The resolution must be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the House. While the resolution is under consideration, the Speaker can preside over the House but cannot vote in the first instance. The procedure for removal is explicitly detailed in Article 94 of the Constitution and further governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The removal of the Speaker is a serious constitutional process reflecting the accountability of the presiding officer. Statement 1 is correct; a written notice of at least 14 days is mandatory under Article 94. This notice is submitted to the Secretary-General. Statement 4 is also correct as the constitutional basis is Article 94(c), while the granular procedural steps are laid out in Rules 200–203 of the Lok Sabha Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker is removed by an effective majority, which the Constitution defines as a majority of “all the then members of the House”. This is more stringent than a simple majority of those present and voting. Statement 3 is incorrect because when a removal resolution is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings. Crucially, they can vote in the first instance on such a resolution but cannot exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. This ensures they can defend their position as a member but lack the tie-breaking authority of the Chair during their own impeachment process. Notably, the Speaker remains in office until the first meeting of a new House after dissolution. Incorrect Solution: B The removal of the Speaker is a serious constitutional process reflecting the accountability of the presiding officer. Statement 1 is correct; a written notice of at least 14 days is mandatory under Article 94. This notice is submitted to the Secretary-General. Statement 4 is also correct as the constitutional basis is Article 94(c), while the granular procedural steps are laid out in Rules 200–203 of the Lok Sabha Rules. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker is removed by an effective majority, which the Constitution defines as a majority of “all the then members of the House”. This is more stringent than a simple majority of those present and voting. Statement 3 is incorrect because when a removal resolution is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings. Crucially, they can vote in the first instance on such a resolution but cannot exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. This ensures they can defend their position as a member but lack the tie-breaking authority of the Chair during their own impeachment process. Notably, the Speaker remains in office until the first meeting of a new House after dissolution.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

• A resolution for removal can be moved only after giving at least 14 days’ notice to the Secretary-General.

• The resolution must be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting in the House.

• While the resolution is under consideration, the Speaker can preside over the House but cannot vote in the first instance.

• The procedure for removal is explicitly detailed in Article 94 of the Constitution and further governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The removal of the Speaker is a serious constitutional process reflecting the accountability of the presiding officer.

• Statement 1 is correct; a written notice of at least 14 days is mandatory under Article 94. This notice is submitted to the Secretary-General.

• Statement 4 is also correct as the constitutional basis is Article 94(c), while the granular procedural steps are laid out in Rules 200–203 of the Lok Sabha Rules.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker is removed by an effective majority, which the Constitution defines as a majority of “all the then members of the House”. This is more stringent than a simple majority of those present and voting.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because when a removal resolution is being considered, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting. However, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings. Crucially, they can vote in the first instance on such a resolution but cannot exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie. This ensures they can defend their position as a member but lack the tie-breaking authority of the Chair during their own impeachment process. Notably, the Speaker remains in office until the first meeting of a new House after dissolution.

Solution: B

• The removal of the Speaker is a serious constitutional process reflecting the accountability of the presiding officer.

• Statement 1 is correct; a written notice of at least 14 days is mandatory under Article 94. This notice is submitted to the Secretary-General.

• Statement 4 is also correct as the constitutional basis is Article 94(c), while the granular procedural steps are laid out in Rules 200–203 of the Lok Sabha Rules.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Sawalkot Hydroelectric Project is a Run-of-the-River (RoR) project being developed on the Chenab River. Statement II: Under the Indus Waters Treaty, India is permitted to develop RoR projects on Western Rivers for non-consumptive use. Statement III: Pakistan has no legal right to review or object to any hydroelectric project built by India on the Chenab River. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct; Sawalkot is an RoR project on the Chenab river under NHPC. Statement II is also correct; the Indus Waters Treaty divides the rivers between India and Pakistan. The Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) are allocated to Pakistan, but India is specifically allowed to use their waters for non-consumptive purposes, including the generation of hydroelectric power through Run-of-the-River projects, provided they meet certain design criteria. Statement III is incorrect. Pakistan does have the right to review and raise objections if it believes the project design violates the treaty’s technical parameters (such as pondage, spillway gates, or intake levels). This is why Pakistan has initiated a review of the Sawalkot project. Statement II explains Statement I. The reason India can develop a project like Sawalkot (Statement I) is precisely because the treaty allows for RoR projects on those specific rivers (Statement II). Therefore, only one of the statements (II) is correct and explains Statement I. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct; Sawalkot is an RoR project on the Chenab river under NHPC. Statement II is also correct; the Indus Waters Treaty divides the rivers between India and Pakistan. The Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) are allocated to Pakistan, but India is specifically allowed to use their waters for non-consumptive purposes, including the generation of hydroelectric power through Run-of-the-River projects, provided they meet certain design criteria. Statement III is incorrect. Pakistan does have the right to review and raise objections if it believes the project design violates the treaty’s technical parameters (such as pondage, spillway gates, or intake levels). This is why Pakistan has initiated a review of the Sawalkot project. Statement II explains Statement I. The reason India can develop a project like Sawalkot (Statement I) is precisely because the treaty allows for RoR projects on those specific rivers (Statement II). Therefore, only one of the statements (II) is correct and explains Statement I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Sawalkot Hydroelectric Project is a Run-of-the-River (RoR) project being developed on the Chenab River.

Statement II: Under the Indus Waters Treaty, India is permitted to develop RoR projects on Western Rivers for non-consumptive use.

Statement III: Pakistan has no legal right to review or object to any hydroelectric project built by India on the Chenab River.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct; Sawalkot is an RoR project on the Chenab river under NHPC.

• Statement II is also correct; the Indus Waters Treaty divides the rivers between India and Pakistan. The Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) are allocated to Pakistan, but India is specifically allowed to use their waters for non-consumptive purposes, including the generation of hydroelectric power through Run-of-the-River projects, provided they meet certain design criteria.

• Statement III is incorrect. Pakistan does have the right to review and raise objections if it believes the project design violates the treaty’s technical parameters (such as pondage, spillway gates, or intake levels). This is why Pakistan has initiated a review of the Sawalkot project.

• Statement II explains Statement I. The reason India can develop a project like Sawalkot (Statement I) is precisely because the treaty allows for RoR projects on those specific rivers (Statement II). Therefore, only one of the statements (II) is correct and explains Statement I.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct; Sawalkot is an RoR project on the Chenab river under NHPC.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the categorization of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs): Statement-I: The upgrade of an entity from Schedule ‘B’ to Schedule ‘A’ usually leads to a reduction in the need for frequent ministerial approvals for large projects. Statement-II: Schedule ‘A’ is the highest tier, comprising large-sized enterprises with significant national and strategic importance. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct. Statement-I highlights the functional significance of an upgrade: moving to a higher schedule (like Schedule ‘A’) grants the organization greater financial and operational powers. This decentralization reduces the administrative burden of seeking ministerial nods for capital-intensive projects. Statement-II provides the underlying logic for this autonomy: Schedule ‘A’ is reserved for the largest and most strategically vital enterprises. Because these entities handle operations of national importance and significant scale, the government empowers their boards with higher-ranking executive positions and greater flexibility. The evaluation for such an upgrade is rigorous, involving quantitative parameters like net sales, profit before tax, and capital employed over the last five years, alongside qualitative factors like technological complexity. Therefore, Statement-II explains why Statement-I occurs: the strategic nature and size of Schedule ‘A’ firms necessitate the operational freedom mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct. Statement-I highlights the functional significance of an upgrade: moving to a higher schedule (like Schedule ‘A’) grants the organization greater financial and operational powers. This decentralization reduces the administrative burden of seeking ministerial nods for capital-intensive projects. Statement-II provides the underlying logic for this autonomy: Schedule ‘A’ is reserved for the largest and most strategically vital enterprises. Because these entities handle operations of national importance and significant scale, the government empowers their boards with higher-ranking executive positions and greater flexibility. The evaluation for such an upgrade is rigorous, involving quantitative parameters like net sales, profit before tax, and capital employed over the last five years, alongside qualitative factors like technological complexity. Therefore, Statement-II explains why Statement-I occurs: the strategic nature and size of Schedule ‘A’ firms necessitate the operational freedom mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the categorization of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs):

Statement-I: The upgrade of an entity from Schedule ‘B’ to Schedule ‘A’ usually leads to a reduction in the need for frequent ministerial approvals for large projects.

Statement-II: Schedule ‘A’ is the highest tier, comprising large-sized enterprises with significant national and strategic importance.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct. Statement-I highlights the functional significance of an upgrade: moving to a higher schedule (like Schedule ‘A’) grants the organization greater financial and operational powers. This decentralization reduces the administrative burden of seeking ministerial nods for capital-intensive projects.

• Statement-II provides the underlying logic for this autonomy: Schedule ‘A’ is reserved for the largest and most strategically vital enterprises. Because these entities handle operations of national importance and significant scale, the government empowers their boards with higher-ranking executive positions and greater flexibility.

• The evaluation for such an upgrade is rigorous, involving quantitative parameters like net sales, profit before tax, and capital employed over the last five years, alongside qualitative factors like technological complexity. Therefore, Statement-II explains why Statement-I occurs: the strategic nature and size of Schedule ‘A’ firms necessitate the operational freedom mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the historical context and purpose of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), 1977? (a) It was enacted to grant the US President indefinite power to nationalize foreign-owned industries during peacetime. (b) It was created to provide a legal framework for the US to join international military alliances without Congressional approval. (c) It was designed to replace the United Nations sanctions framework with a unilateral US trade policy. (d) It was established to limit the broad emergency powers of the President by requiring a formal declaration of a national emergency under the National Emergencies Act. Correct Solution: D The IEEPA 1977 was a reformist piece of legislation. Before its enactment, US Presidents used the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA) of 1917 to exercise extremely broad powers over the economy, even during times that were not formally “wars.” Congress enacted the IEEPA to restore a balance of power. It mandates that the President can only use these economic powers after formally declaring a national emergency under the National Emergencies Act, and it requires periodic reporting to Congress. This ensures that executive action is transparent and subject to oversight. The Act is primarily used today for sanctions diplomacy. It allows the US to block the assets of terrorists, drug traffickers, or hostile foreign governments that pose an extraordinary external threat to the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States. Unlike the TWEA, which granted almost “blanket” authority, the IEEPA’s powers are intended to be specific to the threat at hand. However, its application is frequently debated in courts, as seen with the recent US Supreme Court ruling regarding tariffs. The court clarified that while the President has broad discretion to manage emergencies, this does not extend to bypassing Congress’s constitutional authority over trade and tariffs for non-emergency, long-term economic goals. Incorrect Solution: D The IEEPA 1977 was a reformist piece of legislation. Before its enactment, US Presidents used the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA) of 1917 to exercise extremely broad powers over the economy, even during times that were not formally “wars.” Congress enacted the IEEPA to restore a balance of power. It mandates that the President can only use these economic powers after formally declaring a national emergency under the National Emergencies Act, and it requires periodic reporting to Congress. This ensures that executive action is transparent and subject to oversight. The Act is primarily used today for sanctions diplomacy. It allows the US to block the assets of terrorists, drug traffickers, or hostile foreign governments that pose an extraordinary external threat to the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States. Unlike the TWEA, which granted almost “blanket” authority, the IEEPA’s powers are intended to be specific to the threat at hand. However, its application is frequently debated in courts, as seen with the recent US Supreme Court ruling regarding tariffs. The court clarified that while the President has broad discretion to manage emergencies, this does not extend to bypassing Congress’s constitutional authority over trade and tariffs for non-emergency, long-term economic goals.

#### 9. Question

Which one of the following best describes the historical context and purpose of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), 1977?

• (a) It was enacted to grant the US President indefinite power to nationalize foreign-owned industries during peacetime.

• (b) It was created to provide a legal framework for the US to join international military alliances without Congressional approval.

• (c) It was designed to replace the United Nations sanctions framework with a unilateral US trade policy.

• (d) It was established to limit the broad emergency powers of the President by requiring a formal declaration of a national emergency under the National Emergencies Act.

Solution: D

• The IEEPA 1977 was a reformist piece of legislation. Before its enactment, US Presidents used the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA) of 1917 to exercise extremely broad powers over the economy, even during times that were not formally “wars.” Congress enacted the IEEPA to restore a balance of power. It mandates that the President can only use these economic powers after formally declaring a national emergency under the National Emergencies Act, and it requires periodic reporting to Congress. This ensures that executive action is transparent and subject to oversight.

• The Act is primarily used today for sanctions diplomacy. It allows the US to block the assets of terrorists, drug traffickers, or hostile foreign governments that pose an extraordinary external threat to the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States. Unlike the TWEA, which granted almost “blanket” authority, the IEEPA’s powers are intended to be specific to the threat at hand.

• However, its application is frequently debated in courts, as seen with the recent US Supreme Court ruling regarding tariffs. The court clarified that while the President has broad discretion to manage emergencies, this does not extend to bypassing Congress’s constitutional authority over trade and tariffs for non-emergency, long-term economic goals.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the ‘Prahaar’ Anti-Terror Policy, consider the following statements: It introduces a graded police response system for counter-radicalisation. The policy explicitly excludes threats arising from the dark web and encrypted messaging apps. It emphasizes international collaboration through alignment with UN anti-terror norms. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Prahaar includes a comprehensive counter-radicalisation strategy that utilizes a “graded police response” combined with social engagement to handle different levels of extremist influence. It also places a heavy emphasis on global collaboration, seeking to align India’s actions with international standards, such as UN anti-terror norms, and facilitating extradition and intelligence sharing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy is specifically designed to be technology-centric. It addresses modern security challenges, including encrypted messaging apps, the dark web, and crypto-financing, recognizing that these are the tools used by contemporary terror networks. This holistic approach is what distinguishes Prahaar from previous strategies, moving the focus toward dismantling the infrastructure that makes terrorism possible, rather than just reacting to individual incidents. By integrating these various dimensions, the policy enhances India’s readiness against hybrid threats that combine terrorism with cyber warfare. Incorrect Solution: A Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Prahaar includes a comprehensive counter-radicalisation strategy that utilizes a “graded police response” combined with social engagement to handle different levels of extremist influence. It also places a heavy emphasis on global collaboration, seeking to align India’s actions with international standards, such as UN anti-terror norms, and facilitating extradition and intelligence sharing. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy is specifically designed to be technology-centric. It addresses modern security challenges, including encrypted messaging apps, the dark web, and crypto-financing, recognizing that these are the tools used by contemporary terror networks. This holistic approach is what distinguishes Prahaar from previous strategies, moving the focus toward dismantling the infrastructure that makes terrorism possible, rather than just reacting to individual incidents. By integrating these various dimensions, the policy enhances India’s readiness against hybrid threats that combine terrorism with cyber warfare.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the ‘Prahaar’ Anti-Terror Policy, consider the following statements:

• It introduces a graded police response system for counter-radicalisation.

• The policy explicitly excludes threats arising from the dark web and encrypted messaging apps.

• It emphasizes international collaboration through alignment with UN anti-terror norms.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Prahaar includes a comprehensive counter-radicalisation strategy that utilizes a “graded police response” combined with social engagement to handle different levels of extremist influence. It also places a heavy emphasis on global collaboration, seeking to align India’s actions with international standards, such as UN anti-terror norms, and facilitating extradition and intelligence sharing.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy is specifically designed to be technology-centric. It addresses modern security challenges, including encrypted messaging apps, the dark web, and crypto-financing, recognizing that these are the tools used by contemporary terror networks.

• This holistic approach is what distinguishes Prahaar from previous strategies, moving the focus toward dismantling the infrastructure that makes terrorism possible, rather than just reacting to individual incidents. By integrating these various dimensions, the policy enhances India’s readiness against hybrid threats that combine terrorism with cyber warfare.

Solution: A

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