UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary mandate of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) under the “One Border, One Force” policy adopted in 2004? (a) To assist the Indian Army in counter-insurgency operations across Northeast India. (b) To exclusively manage disaster relief and rescue operations in the Himalayan region. (c) To assume primary responsibility for guarding the entire India-China border (LAC). (d) To conduct intelligence gathering along the India-Pakistan border in Ladakh. Correct Solution: C The “One Border, One Force” policy aimed to assign the responsibility of guarding specific international borders to a single force for better accountability and coordination. Under this policy, implemented in 2004, the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was assigned the mandate to guard the entire 3,488 km India-China border, stretching from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh. This involved taking over stretches previously managed by the Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. While ITBP does engage in disaster relief (first responder in the Himalayas) and assists in internal security/anti-Naxal operations when required, its primary and specific mandate under this policy is securing the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China. Option (d) is incorrect as the India-Pakistan border is primarily managed by the BSF and the Army. Incorrect Solution: C The “One Border, One Force” policy aimed to assign the responsibility of guarding specific international borders to a single force for better accountability and coordination. Under this policy, implemented in 2004, the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was assigned the mandate to guard the entire 3,488 km India-China border, stretching from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh. This involved taking over stretches previously managed by the Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. While ITBP does engage in disaster relief (first responder in the Himalayas) and assists in internal security/anti-Naxal operations when required, its primary and specific mandate under this policy is securing the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China. Option (d) is incorrect as the India-Pakistan border is primarily managed by the BSF and the Army.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary mandate of the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) under the “One Border, One Force” policy adopted in 2004?

• (a) To assist the Indian Army in counter-insurgency operations across Northeast India.

• (b) To exclusively manage disaster relief and rescue operations in the Himalayan region.

• (c) To assume primary responsibility for guarding the entire India-China border (LAC).

• (d) To conduct intelligence gathering along the India-Pakistan border in Ladakh.

Solution: C

• The “One Border, One Force” policy aimed to assign the responsibility of guarding specific international borders to a single force for better accountability and coordination. Under this policy, implemented in 2004, the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was assigned the mandate to guard the entire 3,488 km India-China border, stretching from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh. This involved taking over stretches previously managed by the Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

• While ITBP does engage in disaster relief (first responder in the Himalayas) and assists in internal security/anti-Naxal operations when required, its primary and specific mandate under this policy is securing the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China.

• Option (d) is incorrect as the India-Pakistan border is primarily managed by the BSF and the Army.

Solution: C

• Option (d) is incorrect as the India-Pakistan border is primarily managed by the BSF and the Army.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Polio transmission and prevention: The poliovirus primarily spreads through respiratory droplets from infected individuals. Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) emerges due to mutations in the virus used in the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV). Achieving high vaccination coverage with Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) can provide community immunity through indirect protection. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Poliovirus mainly spreads through the faecal-oral route, typically via contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. It multiplies in the intestine. Person-to-person spread is also possible but respiratory transmission is not the primary route. Statement 2 is incorrect. Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) arises from mutations in the live attenuated (weakened) virus contained in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV), not the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV). In under-immunized populations, the weakened vaccine virus can circulate for extended periods, potentially mutating into a form capable of causing paralysis, similar to wild poliovirus. IPV contains killed viruses and cannot cause VDPV. Statement 3 is correct. The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) uses a live weakened virus. When administered, this virus replicates in the gut, inducing immunity. Vaccinated individuals excrete the vaccine virus, which can then spread to unvaccinated individuals in the community (especially with poor sanitation). If vaccination coverage is high, this indirect exposure can help immunize even those not directly vaccinated, contributing to herd or community immunity. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Poliovirus mainly spreads through the faecal-oral route, typically via contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. It multiplies in the intestine. Person-to-person spread is also possible but respiratory transmission is not the primary route. Statement 2 is incorrect. Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) arises from mutations in the live attenuated (weakened) virus contained in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV), not the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV). In under-immunized populations, the weakened vaccine virus can circulate for extended periods, potentially mutating into a form capable of causing paralysis, similar to wild poliovirus. IPV contains killed viruses and cannot cause VDPV. Statement 3 is correct. The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) uses a live weakened virus. When administered, this virus replicates in the gut, inducing immunity. Vaccinated individuals excrete the vaccine virus, which can then spread to unvaccinated individuals in the community (especially with poor sanitation). If vaccination coverage is high, this indirect exposure can help immunize even those not directly vaccinated, contributing to herd or community immunity.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Polio transmission and prevention:

• The poliovirus primarily spreads through respiratory droplets from infected individuals.

• Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) emerges due to mutations in the virus used in the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV).

• Achieving high vaccination coverage with Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) can provide community immunity through indirect protection.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Poliovirus mainly spreads through the faecal-oral route, typically via contaminated food or water, especially in areas with poor sanitation. It multiplies in the intestine. Person-to-person spread is also possible but respiratory transmission is not the primary route.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Circulating Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (cVDPV) arises from mutations in the live attenuated (weakened) virus contained in the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV), not the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV). In under-immunized populations, the weakened vaccine virus can circulate for extended periods, potentially mutating into a form capable of causing paralysis, similar to wild poliovirus. IPV contains killed viruses and cannot cause VDPV.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) uses a live weakened virus. When administered, this virus replicates in the gut, inducing immunity. Vaccinated individuals excrete the vaccine virus, which can then spread to unvaccinated individuals in the community (especially with poor sanitation). If vaccination coverage is high, this indirect exposure can help immunize even those not directly vaccinated, contributing to herd or community immunity.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM). Statement I: The Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) primarily focuses on providing financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures. Statement II: PM-ABHIM aims to strengthen healthcare infrastructure, including disease surveillance and critical care capabilities, from primary to tertiary levels. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. Providing financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures, particularly for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization for vulnerable families, is the primary objective of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), which is a health insurance/assurance scheme. Statement II is correct. The Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), launched later, specifically targets strengthening the public health infrastructure across India. Its focus is on building capacity for pandemic preparedness, enhancing disease surveillance networks (like integrated public health labs), and upgrading infrastructure at primary (Health and Wellness Centres), secondary (district hospitals), and tertiary levels (critical care blocks). It complements PM-JAY by improving the facilities where healthcare services are delivered. Thus, PM-ABHIM focuses on the supply side (infrastructure), while PM-JAY focuses on the demand side (affordability/insurance). Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. Providing financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures, particularly for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization for vulnerable families, is the primary objective of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), which is a health insurance/assurance scheme. Statement II is correct. The Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), launched later, specifically targets strengthening the public health infrastructure across India. Its focus is on building capacity for pandemic preparedness, enhancing disease surveillance networks (like integrated public health labs), and upgrading infrastructure at primary (Health and Wellness Centres), secondary (district hospitals), and tertiary levels (critical care blocks). It complements PM-JAY by improving the facilities where healthcare services are delivered. Thus, PM-ABHIM focuses on the supply side (infrastructure), while PM-JAY focuses on the demand side (affordability/insurance).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM).

Statement I: The Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) primarily focuses on providing financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures.

Statement II: PM-ABHIM aims to strengthen healthcare infrastructure, including disease surveillance and critical care capabilities, from primary to tertiary levels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. Providing financial protection against catastrophic health expenditures, particularly for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization for vulnerable families, is the primary objective of Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), which is a health insurance/assurance scheme.

• Statement II is correct. The Pradhan Mantri–Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM), launched later, specifically targets strengthening the public health infrastructure across India. Its focus is on building capacity for pandemic preparedness, enhancing disease surveillance networks (like integrated public health labs), and upgrading infrastructure at primary (Health and Wellness Centres), secondary (district hospitals), and tertiary levels (critical care blocks). It complements PM-JAY by improving the facilities where healthcare services are delivered.

• Thus, PM-ABHIM focuses on the supply side (infrastructure), while PM-JAY focuses on the demand side (affordability/insurance).

Solution: D

• Thus, PM-ABHIM focuses on the supply side (infrastructure), while PM-JAY focuses on the demand side (affordability/insurance).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following components often included in a country’s Foreign Exchange Reserves: Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) Gold Reserves Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF How many of the above are components of India’s Forex Reserves managed by the RBI? a) only one b) only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consist of multiple components acting as a buffer against external economic shocks. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): This is the largest component, comprising assets like foreign government securities and deposits held in foreign central banks or commercial banks, denominated in currencies like the US dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Yen, etc. Gold Reserves: The RBI holds a significant amount of gold, valued at market prices, as part of its reserves. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): These are international reserve assets created by the IMF and allocated to member countries based on their quotas. They represent a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF: This represents the portion of a member country’s quota that has been paid in reserve assets (like foreign currency or SDRs) and can be withdrawn from the IMF without conditions or interest, essentially acting as a liquid claim on the Fund. Incorrect Solution: D India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consist of multiple components acting as a buffer against external economic shocks. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): This is the largest component, comprising assets like foreign government securities and deposits held in foreign central banks or commercial banks, denominated in currencies like the US dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Yen, etc. Gold Reserves: The RBI holds a significant amount of gold, valued at market prices, as part of its reserves. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): These are international reserve assets created by the IMF and allocated to member countries based on their quotas. They represent a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF: This represents the portion of a member country’s quota that has been paid in reserve assets (like foreign currency or SDRs) and can be withdrawn from the IMF without conditions or interest, essentially acting as a liquid claim on the Fund.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following components often included in a country’s Foreign Exchange Reserves:

• Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)

• Gold Reserves

• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)

• Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF

How many of the above are components of India’s Forex Reserves managed by the RBI?

• a) only one

• b) only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consist of multiple components acting as a buffer against external economic shocks.

• Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): This is the largest component, comprising assets like foreign government securities and deposits held in foreign central banks or commercial banks, denominated in currencies like the US dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, Yen, etc.

• Gold Reserves: The RBI holds a significant amount of gold, valued at market prices, as part of its reserves.

• Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): These are international reserve assets created by the IMF and allocated to member countries based on their quotas. They represent a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members.

• Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF: This represents the portion of a member country’s quota that has been paid in reserve assets (like foreign currency or SDRs) and can be withdrawn from the IMF without conditions or interest, essentially acting as a liquid claim on the Fund.

Solution: D

India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves, managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consist of multiple components acting as a buffer against external economic shocks.

• Gold Reserves: The RBI holds a significant amount of gold, valued at market prices, as part of its reserves.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indian Coast Guard’s Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs) ICGS Ajit and ICGS Aparajit: These vessels were constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL). Their primary roles include anti-piracy, fisheries protection, and Search & Rescue (SAR) operations. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ICGS Ajit and ICGS Aparajit were built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), as part of an indigenous construction project under the Make in India initiative. Statement 2 is correct. The designated operational roles for these FPVs include coastal patrol, fisheries protection, anti-smuggling, anti-piracy, and Search & Rescue (SAR) operations, particularly within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and around island territories. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. ICGS Ajit and ICGS Aparajit were built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), as part of an indigenous construction project under the Make in India initiative. Statement 2 is correct. The designated operational roles for these FPVs include coastal patrol, fisheries protection, anti-smuggling, anti-piracy, and Search & Rescue (SAR) operations, particularly within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and around island territories.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian Coast Guard’s Fast Patrol Vessels (FPVs) ICGS Ajit and ICGS Aparajit:

• These vessels were constructed by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL).

• Their primary roles include anti-piracy, fisheries protection, and Search & Rescue (SAR) operations.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. ICGS Ajit and ICGS Aparajit were built by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), not Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), as part of an indigenous construction project under the Make in India initiative.

• Statement 2 is correct. The designated operational roles for these FPVs include coastal patrol, fisheries protection, anti-smuggling, anti-piracy, and Search & Rescue (SAR) operations, particularly within India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and around island territories.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and committees related to the Western Ghats: The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 placed the Western Ghats under the “Least Concern” category. The Gadgil Committee recommended classifying approximately 64% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs) with stringent regulations. The Kasturirangan Committee suggested a complete ban on agricultural activities within the designated Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs). How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 report placed the Western Ghats under the “significant concern” category, not “Least Concern”. This was due to threats such as climate change impacts, unregulated tourism pressures, and the spread of invasive species affecting its biodiversity and ecological integrity. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Madhav Gadgil, recommended a graded approach dividing the region into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, and 3), covering roughly 64% of the total area. It proposed strict regulations, particularly in ESZ 1, including phase-outs of mining, bans on new polluting industries, and restrictions on large infrastructure projects. Statement 3 is incorrect. The High-Level Working Group (HLWG), chaired by K. Kasturirangan, proposed designating only about 37% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). It differentiated between ‘natural landscapes’ (ESA) and ‘cultural landscapes’ (areas with human settlements, agriculture, plantations). While it recommended banning activities like mining and polluting industries in ESAs, it did not suggest a complete ban on existing agricultural activities or plantations within these areas, instead emphasizing sustainable practices. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 report placed the Western Ghats under the “significant concern” category, not “Least Concern”. This was due to threats such as climate change impacts, unregulated tourism pressures, and the spread of invasive species affecting its biodiversity and ecological integrity. Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Madhav Gadgil, recommended a graded approach dividing the region into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, and 3), covering roughly 64% of the total area. It proposed strict regulations, particularly in ESZ 1, including phase-outs of mining, bans on new polluting industries, and restrictions on large infrastructure projects. Statement 3 is incorrect. The High-Level Working Group (HLWG), chaired by K. Kasturirangan, proposed designating only about 37% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). It differentiated between ‘natural landscapes’ (ESA) and ‘cultural landscapes’ (areas with human settlements, agriculture, plantations). While it recommended banning activities like mining and polluting industries in ESAs, it did not suggest a complete ban on existing agricultural activities or plantations within these areas, instead emphasizing sustainable practices.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status and committees related to the Western Ghats:

• The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 placed the Western Ghats under the “Least Concern” category.

• The Gadgil Committee recommended classifying approximately 64% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs) with stringent regulations.

• The Kasturirangan Committee suggested a complete ban on agricultural activities within the designated Ecologically Sensitive Areas (ESAs).

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 4 report placed the Western Ghats under the “significant concern” category, not “Least Concern”. This was due to threats such as climate change impacts, unregulated tourism pressures, and the spread of invasive species affecting its biodiversity and ecological integrity.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Madhav Gadgil, recommended a graded approach dividing the region into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, and 3), covering roughly 64% of the total area. It proposed strict regulations, particularly in ESZ 1, including phase-outs of mining, bans on new polluting industries, and restrictions on large infrastructure projects.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The High-Level Working Group (HLWG), chaired by K. Kasturirangan, proposed designating only about 37% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). It differentiated between ‘natural landscapes’ (ESA) and ‘cultural landscapes’ (areas with human settlements, agriculture, plantations). While it recommended banning activities like mining and polluting industries in ESAs, it did not suggest a complete ban on existing agricultural activities or plantations within these areas, instead emphasizing sustainable practices.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement I: India’s rising gold reserves significantly contributed to the recent surge in its foreign exchange reserves. Statement II: The valuation of gold reserves in Forex Reserves is influenced by both the quantity held by the central bank and fluctuations in global gold prices. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. India’s forex reserves surged, crossing a significant mark, primarily driven by a sharp rise in gold reserves. This indicates gold played a major role in the increase. Statement II is correct. The value of gold reserves held by a central bank like the RBI is determined by two main factors: the physical quantity of gold held and the prevailing international market price of gold. The reserves are typically valued periodically (e.g., weekly) based on global benchmarks. Purchases of gold by the RBI increase the quantity, while rising global gold prices increase the value of the existing holdings. Both factors can contribute to changes in the value of gold reserves reported in the forex data. Statement II directly explains how the value of gold reserves can rise significantly, thus providing the correct explanation for the phenomenon mentioned in Statement I (the surge driven by gold reserves). Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. India’s forex reserves surged, crossing a significant mark, primarily driven by a sharp rise in gold reserves. This indicates gold played a major role in the increase. Statement II is correct. The value of gold reserves held by a central bank like the RBI is determined by two main factors: the physical quantity of gold held and the prevailing international market price of gold. The reserves are typically valued periodically (e.g., weekly) based on global benchmarks. Purchases of gold by the RBI increase the quantity, while rising global gold prices increase the value of the existing holdings. Both factors can contribute to changes in the value of gold reserves reported in the forex data. Statement II directly explains how the value of gold reserves can rise significantly, thus providing the correct explanation for the phenomenon mentioned in Statement I (the surge driven by gold reserves).

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: India’s rising gold reserves significantly contributed to the recent surge in its foreign exchange reserves.

Statement II: The valuation of gold reserves in Forex Reserves is influenced by both the quantity held by the central bank and fluctuations in global gold prices.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. India’s forex reserves surged, crossing a significant mark, primarily driven by a sharp rise in gold reserves. This indicates gold played a major role in the increase.

• Statement II is correct. The value of gold reserves held by a central bank like the RBI is determined by two main factors: the physical quantity of gold held and the prevailing international market price of gold. The reserves are typically valued periodically (e.g., weekly) based on global benchmarks. Purchases of gold by the RBI increase the quantity, while rising global gold prices increase the value of the existing holdings. Both factors can contribute to changes in the value of gold reserves reported in the forex data.

Statement II directly explains how the value of gold reserves can rise significantly, thus providing the correct explanation for the phenomenon mentioned in Statement I (the surge driven by gold reserves).

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements related to Polio eradication efforts: India received polio-free certification from WHO immediately after reporting its last case in 2011. The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) was launched by WHO in the 21st century. As of 2025, Afghanistan and Pakistan remain the only two countries where wild poliovirus transmission is still endemic. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. WHO requires a region or country to remain polio-free for three consecutive years without any new wild poliovirus cases before granting polio-free certification. India reported its last case in January 2011 and received the certification for the South-East Asia region in March 2014. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI), a public-private partnership led by national governments with core partners including WHO, Rotary International, CDC, UNICEF, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and Gavi, was launched much earlier, in 1988, not in the 21st century. Its launch marked a significant global commitment to eradicate the disease. Statement 3 is correct. Despite massive progress globally, wild poliovirus (WPV) transmission has never been stopped in Afghanistan and Pakistan. These two countries remain the only ones classified as endemic for WPV, posing a risk of international spread. Ongoing surveillance and vaccination efforts are intensely focused on these regions. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. WHO requires a region or country to remain polio-free for three consecutive years without any new wild poliovirus cases before granting polio-free certification. India reported its last case in January 2011 and received the certification for the South-East Asia region in March 2014. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI), a public-private partnership led by national governments with core partners including WHO, Rotary International, CDC, UNICEF, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and Gavi, was launched much earlier, in 1988, not in the 21st century. Its launch marked a significant global commitment to eradicate the disease. Statement 3 is correct. Despite massive progress globally, wild poliovirus (WPV) transmission has never been stopped in Afghanistan and Pakistan. These two countries remain the only ones classified as endemic for WPV, posing a risk of international spread. Ongoing surveillance and vaccination efforts are intensely focused on these regions.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements related to Polio eradication efforts:

• India received polio-free certification from WHO immediately after reporting its last case in 2011.

• The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI) was launched by WHO in the 21st century.

• As of 2025, Afghanistan and Pakistan remain the only two countries where wild poliovirus transmission is still endemic.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. WHO requires a region or country to remain polio-free for three consecutive years without any new wild poliovirus cases before granting polio-free certification. India reported its last case in January 2011 and received the certification for the South-East Asia region in March 2014.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI), a public-private partnership led by national governments with core partners including WHO, Rotary International, CDC, UNICEF, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and Gavi, was launched much earlier, in 1988, not in the 21st century. Its launch marked a significant global commitment to eradicate the disease.

• Statement 3 is correct. Despite massive progress globally, wild poliovirus (WPV) transmission has never been stopped in Afghanistan and Pakistan. These two countries remain the only ones classified as endemic for WPV, posing a risk of international spread. Ongoing surveillance and vaccination efforts are intensely focused on these regions.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP): ITBP was initially raised under the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) Act. Its motto is “Seva Paramo Dharma” (Service is the highest duty). Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The ITBP was raised on October 24, 1962, in the wake of the India-China conflict. It was initially formed under the CRPF Act, 1949. It later gained independent statutory status through the ITBPF Act, 1992. Statement 2 is incorrect. The motto of the ITBP is “Shaurya – Dridhata – Karma Nishtha” which translates to (Valour – Determination – Devotion to Duty). “Seva Paramo Dharma” is associated with the Indian Army’s Army Medical Corps. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The ITBP was raised on October 24, 1962, in the wake of the India-China conflict. It was initially formed under the CRPF Act, 1949. It later gained independent statutory status through the ITBPF Act, 1992. Statement 2 is incorrect. The motto of the ITBP is “Shaurya – Dridhata – Karma Nishtha” which translates to (Valour – Determination – Devotion to Duty). “Seva Paramo Dharma” is associated with the Indian Army’s Army Medical Corps.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP):

• ITBP was initially raised under the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) Act.

• Its motto is “Seva Paramo Dharma” (Service is the highest duty).

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The ITBP was raised on October 24, 1962, in the wake of the India-China conflict. It was initially formed under the CRPF Act, 1949. It later gained independent statutory status through the ITBPF Act, 1992.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The motto of the ITBP is “Shaurya – Dridhata – Karma Nishtha” which translates to (Valour – Determination – Devotion to Duty). “Seva Paramo Dharma” is associated with the Indian Army’s Army Medical Corps.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Western Ghats act as a significant climatic barrier influencing the Indian monsoon. Statement II: The Western Ghats intercepts the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds, causing heavy orographic rainfall on the western slopes. Statement III: The eastern slopes of the Western Ghats receive substantially less rainfall due to the rain-shadow effect. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I asserts that the Western Ghats influence the Indian monsoon, acting as a climatic barrier. This is a well-established geographical fact. Statement II explains how they act as a barrier for the southwest monsoon. The mountains physically obstruct the moisture-carrying winds blowing from the Arabian Sea. This forces the air to rise, cool, condense, and release heavy rainfall (orographic precipitation) predominantly on the windward (western) side. This directly explains one aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I. Statement III describes the consequence on the leeward (eastern) side. As the air descends after crossing the peaks, it warms and becomes drier, resulting in significantly lower rainfall – the rain-shadow effect. This also directly explains another aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I. Since both Statement II (cause of heavy rain on western slopes) and Statement III (cause of low rain on eastern slopes) are correct consequences of the mountains intercepting monsoon winds, both correctly explain why the Western Ghats are considered a significant climatic barrier influencing the monsoon pattern as stated in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I asserts that the Western Ghats influence the Indian monsoon, acting as a climatic barrier. This is a well-established geographical fact. Statement II explains how they act as a barrier for the southwest monsoon. The mountains physically obstruct the moisture-carrying winds blowing from the Arabian Sea. This forces the air to rise, cool, condense, and release heavy rainfall (orographic precipitation) predominantly on the windward (western) side. This directly explains one aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I. Statement III describes the consequence on the leeward (eastern) side. As the air descends after crossing the peaks, it warms and becomes drier, resulting in significantly lower rainfall – the rain-shadow effect. This also directly explains another aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I. Since both Statement II (cause of heavy rain on western slopes) and Statement III (cause of low rain on eastern slopes) are correct consequences of the mountains intercepting monsoon winds, both correctly explain why the Western Ghats are considered a significant climatic barrier influencing the monsoon pattern as stated in Statement I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Western Ghats act as a significant climatic barrier influencing the Indian monsoon.

Statement II: The Western Ghats intercepts the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds, causing heavy orographic rainfall on the western slopes.

Statement III: The eastern slopes of the Western Ghats receive substantially less rainfall due to the rain-shadow effect.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I asserts that the Western Ghats influence the Indian monsoon, acting as a climatic barrier. This is a well-established geographical fact. Statement II explains how they act as a barrier for the southwest monsoon.

• The mountains physically obstruct the moisture-carrying winds blowing from the Arabian Sea. This forces the air to rise, cool, condense, and release heavy rainfall (orographic precipitation) predominantly on the windward (western) side. This directly explains one aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement III describes the consequence on the leeward (eastern) side. As the air descends after crossing the peaks, it warms and becomes drier, resulting in significantly lower rainfall – the rain-shadow effect. This also directly explains another aspect of the climatic barrier effect mentioned in Statement I.

• Since both Statement II (cause of heavy rain on western slopes) and Statement III (cause of low rain on eastern slopes) are correct consequences of the mountains intercepting monsoon winds, both correctly explain why the Western Ghats are considered a significant climatic barrier influencing the monsoon pattern as stated in Statement I.

Solution: A

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