UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 May 2024

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The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. The Constitution of India empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. Article 342 (i) empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. STs constitute 8.6% of the Population (census 2011). Draft National Tribal Policy, 2006 records 698 STs in India. Bhil is the largest tribal group (38%) followed by Gonds. Madhya Pradesh has the highest tribal Population in India. Santhal are the oldest Tribes in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-vital-role-played-by-tribal-communities-in-preserving-forests/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. Article 342 (i) empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. STs constitute 8.6% of the Population (census 2011). Draft National Tribal Policy, 2006 records 698 STs in India. Bhil is the largest tribal group (38%) followed by Gonds. Madhya Pradesh has the highest tribal Population in India. Santhal are the oldest Tribes in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-vital-role-played-by-tribal-communities-in-preserving-forests/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. The Constitution of India empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils.

• The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’.

• The Constitution of India empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes.

• The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The Constitution of India does not define the term ‘tribe’. Article 342 (i) empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes. Fifth Schedule establishes Tribes’ Advisory Councils. STs constitute 8.6% of the Population (census 2011). Draft National Tribal Policy, 2006 records 698 STs in India. Bhil is the largest tribal group (38%) followed by Gonds. Madhya Pradesh has the highest tribal Population in India. Santhal are the oldest Tribes in India.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-vital-role-played-by-tribal-communities-in-preserving-forests/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-vital-role-played-by-tribal-communities-in-preserving-forests/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about ‘Form 17C’ is correct? (a) Form 17C is used for the registration of a new political party with the Election Commission of India. (b) Form 17C is a statutory form used for recording the counting of votes in elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. (c) Form 17C is the form used by candidates to declare their assets and liabilities before contesting in elections. (d) Form 17C is used to report election campaign expenses by political parties to the Election Commission. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation; Context: A dispute has arisen over the Election Commission’s (EC) handling of voter turnout data, particularly related to Form 17C. Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of votes cast and rejected at each booth. The Commission maintained there is no legal mandate for it to make public the total number of votes cast in each polling station. It says copies of Form 17C are shared with the polling agents present immediately upon the close of polling. About Form 17C: The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 require the EC to maintain two forms- Forms 17A and 17C. Form 17A records the details of every voter who enters a polling booth and casts their vote. Form 17C contains the total number of votes cast. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/form-17c/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation; Context: A dispute has arisen over the Election Commission’s (EC) handling of voter turnout data, particularly related to Form 17C. Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of votes cast and rejected at each booth. The Commission maintained there is no legal mandate for it to make public the total number of votes cast in each polling station. It says copies of Form 17C are shared with the polling agents present immediately upon the close of polling. About Form 17C: The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 require the EC to maintain two forms- Forms 17A and 17C. Form 17A records the details of every voter who enters a polling booth and casts their vote. Form 17C contains the total number of votes cast. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/form-17c/

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements about ‘Form 17C’ is correct?

• (a) Form 17C is used for the registration of a new political party with the Election Commission of India.

• (b) Form 17C is a statutory form used for recording the counting of votes in elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

• (c) Form 17C is the form used by candidates to declare their assets and liabilities before contesting in elections.

• (d) Form 17C is used to report election campaign expenses by political parties to the Election Commission.

Explanation;

• Context: A dispute has arisen over the Election Commission’s (EC) handling of voter turnout data, particularly related to Form 17C. Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of votes cast and rejected at each booth. The Commission maintained there is no legal mandate for it to make public the total number of votes cast in each polling station. It says copies of Form 17C are shared with the polling agents present immediately upon the close of polling.

• Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of votes cast and rejected at each booth.

• The Commission maintained there is no legal mandate for it to make public the total number of votes cast in each polling station. It says copies of Form 17C are shared with the polling agents present immediately upon the close of polling.

• About Form 17C: The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 require the EC to maintain two forms- Forms 17A and 17C. Form 17A records the details of every voter who enters a polling booth and casts their vote. Form 17C contains the total number of votes cast.

• The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 require the EC to maintain two forms- Forms 17A and 17C. Form 17A records the details of every voter who enters a polling booth and casts their vote. Form 17C contains the total number of votes cast.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/form-17c/

Explanation;

• Form 17C records detailed polling data, including the number of votes cast and rejected at each booth.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/form-17c/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Palestine consists of two separate geographical regions, the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. The Oslo Accords were agreements between Israel and Palestine that aimed to achieve a peace treaty. Palestine is a full member state of the United Nations. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Ireland, Norway, and Spain plan to formally recognize the state of Palestine, highlighting a shift in international opinion. Recently, 143 countries, including India, called for UN recognition of Palestine. The International Criminal Court has sought arrest warrants for Israeli leaders and Hamas for war crimes. S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, which are geographically separate and have distinct political and administrative contexts. S2: The Oslo Accords, signed in the 1990s, were a series of agreements between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) with the goal of achieving a peace treaty and establishing a framework for future relations. S3: Although Palestine is not a full member state of the United Nations, it has been granted non-member observer state status since 2012, which allows it to participate in General Assembly debates and activities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: Ireland, Norway, and Spain plan to formally recognize the state of Palestine, highlighting a shift in international opinion. Recently, 143 countries, including India, called for UN recognition of Palestine. The International Criminal Court has sought arrest warrants for Israeli leaders and Hamas for war crimes. S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, which are geographically separate and have distinct political and administrative contexts. S2: The Oslo Accords, signed in the 1990s, were a series of agreements between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) with the goal of achieving a peace treaty and establishing a framework for future relations. S3: Although Palestine is not a full member state of the United Nations, it has been granted non-member observer state status since 2012, which allows it to participate in General Assembly debates and activities. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Palestine consists of two separate geographical regions, the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. The Oslo Accords were agreements between Israel and Palestine that aimed to achieve a peace treaty. Palestine is a full member state of the United Nations.

• Palestine consists of two separate geographical regions, the West Bank and the Gaza Strip.

• The Oslo Accords were agreements between Israel and Palestine that aimed to achieve a peace treaty.

• Palestine is a full member state of the United Nations.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: Ireland, Norway, and Spain plan to formally recognize the state of Palestine, highlighting a shift in international opinion. Recently, 143 countries, including India, called for UN recognition of Palestine. The International Criminal Court has sought arrest warrants for Israeli leaders and Hamas for war crimes.

• S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, which are geographically separate and have distinct political and administrative contexts.

• S2: The Oslo Accords, signed in the 1990s, were a series of agreements between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) with the goal of achieving a peace treaty and establishing a framework for future relations.

• S3: Although Palestine is not a full member state of the United Nations, it has been granted non-member observer state status since 2012, which allows it to participate in General Assembly debates and activities.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

Explanation:

• S1: The Palestinian territories include the West Bank and the Gaza Strip, which are geographically separate and have distinct political and administrative contexts.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following countries does Israel share a border with? (a) Lebanon (b) Jordan (c) Egypt (d) All of the above Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

#### 4. Question

Which of the following countries does Israel share a border with?

• (a) Lebanon

• (b) Jordan

• (d) All of the above

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/recognition-of-palestine/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): The IBC aims to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. The IBC was enacted in 2016 to address the issues of insolvency and bankruptcy, thereby providing a clear and speedy resolution process. Under the IBC, the resolution process for a corporate debtor is to be completed within a period of 180 days, extendable by a further 90 days if necessary. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) acts as the adjudicating authority for insolvency resolution for companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has successfully facilitated the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims for five companies. Consolidation and Amendment: The primary objective of the IBC is to consolidate and amend laws related to reorganization and insolvency resolution for corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. This helps in promoting entrepreneurship, availability of credit, and balancing the interests of all stakeholders. Enactment in 2016: The IBC was enacted in 2016 to provide a streamlined, efficient process for resolving insolvencies. This helps in protecting the value of the debtor’s assets and ensuring their optimal use. Resolution Timeframe: The IBC stipulates that the insolvency resolution process for a corporate debtor should ideally be completed within 180 days, which can be extended by an additional 90 days if necessary, making a total of 270 days. Role of NCLT: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is designated as the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution of companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs), playing a crucial role in the implementation of the IBC. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-pre-packaged-insolvency-resolution-process-ppirp/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has successfully facilitated the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims for five companies. Consolidation and Amendment: The primary objective of the IBC is to consolidate and amend laws related to reorganization and insolvency resolution for corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. This helps in promoting entrepreneurship, availability of credit, and balancing the interests of all stakeholders. Enactment in 2016: The IBC was enacted in 2016 to provide a streamlined, efficient process for resolving insolvencies. This helps in protecting the value of the debtor’s assets and ensuring their optimal use. Resolution Timeframe: The IBC stipulates that the insolvency resolution process for a corporate debtor should ideally be completed within 180 days, which can be extended by an additional 90 days if necessary, making a total of 270 days. Role of NCLT: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is designated as the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution of companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs), playing a crucial role in the implementation of the IBC. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-pre-packaged-insolvency-resolution-process-ppirp/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC):

• The IBC aims to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. The IBC was enacted in 2016 to address the issues of insolvency and bankruptcy, thereby providing a clear and speedy resolution process. Under the IBC, the resolution process for a corporate debtor is to be completed within a period of 180 days, extendable by a further 90 days if necessary. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) acts as the adjudicating authority for insolvency resolution for companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs).

• The IBC aims to consolidate and amend the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner.

• The IBC was enacted in 2016 to address the issues of insolvency and bankruptcy, thereby providing a clear and speedy resolution process.

• Under the IBC, the resolution process for a corporate debtor is to be completed within a period of 180 days, extendable by a further 90 days if necessary.

• The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) acts as the adjudicating authority for insolvency resolution for companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• Context: The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has successfully facilitated the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims for five companies.

• Consolidation and Amendment: The primary objective of the IBC is to consolidate and amend laws related to reorganization and insolvency resolution for corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals in a time-bound manner. This helps in promoting entrepreneurship, availability of credit, and balancing the interests of all stakeholders.

• Enactment in 2016: The IBC was enacted in 2016 to provide a streamlined, efficient process for resolving insolvencies. This helps in protecting the value of the debtor’s assets and ensuring their optimal use.

• Resolution Timeframe: The IBC stipulates that the insolvency resolution process for a corporate debtor should ideally be completed within 180 days, which can be extended by an additional 90 days if necessary, making a total of 270 days.

• Role of NCLT: The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is designated as the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution of companies and limited liability partnerships (LLPs), playing a crucial role in the implementation of the IBC.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-pre-packaged-insolvency-resolution-process-ppirp/

Explanation:

• Context: The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has successfully facilitated the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims for five companies.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/the-pre-packaged-insolvency-resolution-process-ppirp/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI): ICAI is the second-largest accounting body in the world. ICAI is responsible for setting the accounting and auditing standards in India. Membership in ICAI is mandatory for practicing chartered accountants in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, by the Indian Parliament to regulate the chartered accountancy profession in the country. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, with its headquarters in New Delhi. As the world’s second-largest professional body of chartered accountants, ICAI is governed by a Council comprising elected and nominated members. Its functions include regulating the profession, conducting examinations and education, providing continuing professional education, formulating accounting standards, ensuring ethical standards, and exercising disciplinary jurisdiction. Additionally, ICAI contributes input on policy matters to the government. To practice as a chartered accountant in India, one must be a member of ICAI, ensuring adherence to professional standards and ethical guidelines. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/institute-of-chartered-accountants-of-india-icai/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, by the Indian Parliament to regulate the chartered accountancy profession in the country. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, with its headquarters in New Delhi. As the world’s second-largest professional body of chartered accountants, ICAI is governed by a Council comprising elected and nominated members. Its functions include regulating the profession, conducting examinations and education, providing continuing professional education, formulating accounting standards, ensuring ethical standards, and exercising disciplinary jurisdiction. Additionally, ICAI contributes input on policy matters to the government. To practice as a chartered accountant in India, one must be a member of ICAI, ensuring adherence to professional standards and ethical guidelines. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/institute-of-chartered-accountants-of-india-icai/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):

• ICAI is the second-largest accounting body in the world. ICAI is responsible for setting the accounting and auditing standards in India. Membership in ICAI is mandatory for practicing chartered accountants in India.

• ICAI is the second-largest accounting body in the world.

• ICAI is responsible for setting the accounting and auditing standards in India.

• Membership in ICAI is mandatory for practicing chartered accountants in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, by the Indian Parliament to regulate the chartered accountancy profession in the country. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, with its headquarters in New Delhi. As the world’s second-largest professional body of chartered accountants, ICAI is governed by a Council comprising elected and nominated members. Its functions include regulating the profession, conducting examinations and education, providing continuing professional education, formulating accounting standards, ensuring ethical standards, and exercising disciplinary jurisdiction. Additionally, ICAI contributes input on policy matters to the government.

• To practice as a chartered accountant in India, one must be a member of ICAI, ensuring adherence to professional standards and ethical guidelines.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/institute-of-chartered-accountants-of-india-icai/

Explanation:

• To practice as a chartered accountant in India, one must be a member of ICAI, ensuring adherence to professional standards and ethical guidelines.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/institute-of-chartered-accountants-of-india-icai/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about ‘electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing’ (eVTOL) aircraft are correct? eVTOL aircraft primarily rely on electric propulsion systems. eVTOL aircraft are designed to operate in traditional airports only. eVTOL aircraft are expected to reduce urban traffic congestion by providing a new mode of aerial transportation. eVTOL aircraft are less environmentally friendly compared to traditional helicopters due to higher energy consumption. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: IIT Madras-incubated ePlane Company is set to launch eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft in Bengaluru. S1 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft indeed rely on electric propulsion systems, which distinguish them from traditional fuel-powered aircraft. S2 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are designed to take off and land vertically, allowing them to operate from a variety of locations, not just traditional airports. They can use helipads, vertiports, and other smaller areas. S3 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft are anticipated to help alleviate urban traffic congestion by providing an alternative, efficient mode of transportation over short distances, particularly in densely populated urban areas. S4 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are generally considered more environmentally friendly than traditional helicopters because they use electric power, which can be sourced from renewable energy, and produce fewer emissions. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/evtol-electric-vertical-take-off-and-landing-aircraft/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: IIT Madras-incubated ePlane Company is set to launch eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft in Bengaluru. S1 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft indeed rely on electric propulsion systems, which distinguish them from traditional fuel-powered aircraft. S2 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are designed to take off and land vertically, allowing them to operate from a variety of locations, not just traditional airports. They can use helipads, vertiports, and other smaller areas. S3 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft are anticipated to help alleviate urban traffic congestion by providing an alternative, efficient mode of transportation over short distances, particularly in densely populated urban areas. S4 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are generally considered more environmentally friendly than traditional helicopters because they use electric power, which can be sourced from renewable energy, and produce fewer emissions. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/evtol-electric-vertical-take-off-and-landing-aircraft/

#### 7. Question

Which of the following statements about ‘electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing’ (eVTOL) aircraft are correct?

• eVTOL aircraft primarily rely on electric propulsion systems. eVTOL aircraft are designed to operate in traditional airports only. eVTOL aircraft are expected to reduce urban traffic congestion by providing a new mode of aerial transportation. eVTOL aircraft are less environmentally friendly compared to traditional helicopters due to higher energy consumption.

• eVTOL aircraft primarily rely on electric propulsion systems.

• eVTOL aircraft are designed to operate in traditional airports only.

• eVTOL aircraft are expected to reduce urban traffic congestion by providing a new mode of aerial transportation.

• eVTOL aircraft are less environmentally friendly compared to traditional helicopters due to higher energy consumption.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 2 and 4 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 3 only

Explanation:

• Context: IIT Madras-incubated ePlane Company is set to launch eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft in Bengaluru.

• S1 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft indeed rely on electric propulsion systems, which distinguish them from traditional fuel-powered aircraft.

• S2 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are designed to take off and land vertically, allowing them to operate from a variety of locations, not just traditional airports. They can use helipads, vertiports, and other smaller areas.

• S3 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft are anticipated to help alleviate urban traffic congestion by providing an alternative, efficient mode of transportation over short distances, particularly in densely populated urban areas.

• S4 is Incorrect: eVTOL aircraft are generally considered more environmentally friendly than traditional helicopters because they use electric power, which can be sourced from renewable energy, and produce fewer emissions.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/evtol-electric-vertical-take-off-and-landing-aircraft/

Explanation:

• Context: IIT Madras-incubated ePlane Company is set to launch eVTOL (electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft in Bengaluru.

• S1 is Correct: eVTOL aircraft indeed rely on electric propulsion systems, which distinguish them from traditional fuel-powered aircraft.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/evtol-electric-vertical-take-off-and-landing-aircraft/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The “Zero Debris Charter” is related to: (a) A global initiative to reduce plastic waste in oceans (b) A corporate policy focusing on workplace cleanliness (c) An aviation industry commitment to minimize space debris (d) A government mandate on urban waste management Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Recently, twelve nations signed the Zero Debris Charter at the ESA/EU Space Council, committing to making space activities debris-neutral by 2030. The Zero Debris Charter aims to achieve debris-neutrality in space by 2030. The Charter is part of ESA’s comprehensive Zero Debris approach, which involves significant internal reforms and the development of debris mitigation technologies under its Space Safety Programme. ESA estimates over one million pieces of space debris larger than one-centimetre orbit Earth, posing severe risks to satellites and astronauts. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/zero-debris-charter/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Recently, twelve nations signed the Zero Debris Charter at the ESA/EU Space Council, committing to making space activities debris-neutral by 2030. The Zero Debris Charter aims to achieve debris-neutrality in space by 2030. The Charter is part of ESA’s comprehensive Zero Debris approach, which involves significant internal reforms and the development of debris mitigation technologies under its Space Safety Programme. ESA estimates over one million pieces of space debris larger than one-centimetre orbit Earth, posing severe risks to satellites and astronauts. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/zero-debris-charter/

#### 8. Question

The “Zero Debris Charter” is related to:

• (a) A global initiative to reduce plastic waste in oceans

• (b) A corporate policy focusing on workplace cleanliness

• (c) An aviation industry commitment to minimize space debris

• (d) A government mandate on urban waste management

Explanation:

• Context: Recently, twelve nations signed the Zero Debris Charter at the ESA/EU Space Council, committing to making space activities debris-neutral by 2030.

• The Zero Debris Charter aims to achieve debris-neutrality in space by 2030. The Charter is part of ESA’s comprehensive Zero Debris approach, which involves significant internal reforms and the development of debris mitigation technologies under its Space Safety Programme. ESA estimates over one million pieces of space debris larger than one-centimetre orbit Earth, posing severe risks to satellites and astronauts.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/zero-debris-charter/

Explanation:

• Context: Recently, twelve nations signed the Zero Debris Charter at the ESA/EU Space Council, committing to making space activities debris-neutral by 2030.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/zero-debris-charter/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Ujani Dam is situated on the Bhima River. The dam is located in the state of Karnataka, India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Six people, including two children, drowned after their boat capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district due to strong winds and rains. About Ujani Dam: Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Six people, including two children, drowned after their boat capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district due to strong winds and rains. About Ujani Dam: Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Ujani Dam is situated on the Bhima River. The dam is located in the state of Karnataka, India.

• Ujani Dam is situated on the Bhima River.

• The dam is located in the state of Karnataka, India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Context: Six people, including two children, drowned after their boat capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district due to strong winds and rains.

• About Ujani Dam: Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power.

• Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

Explanation:

• Context: Six people, including two children, drowned after their boat capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district due to strong winds and rains.

• About Ujani Dam: Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power.

• Ujani Dam is on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district, Maharashtra. The dam generates 12 MW of hydroelectric power.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Chandrabagha River originates in the Eastern Ghats. It flows through the state of Odisha in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: About Bhima River: It is also known as the Chandrabagha River, it is a major tributary of the Krishna River. Originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat, Pune District, Maharashtra. Flows southeast through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, merging into the Krishna River at Kadlur, Karnataka. Pandharpur, an important pilgrimage centre, is situated on its right bank. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: About Bhima River: It is also known as the Chandrabagha River, it is a major tributary of the Krishna River. Originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat, Pune District, Maharashtra. Flows southeast through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, merging into the Krishna River at Kadlur, Karnataka. Pandharpur, an important pilgrimage centre, is situated on its right bank. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Chandrabagha River originates in the Eastern Ghats. It flows through the state of Odisha in India.

• The Chandrabagha River originates in the Eastern Ghats.

• It flows through the state of Odisha in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: About Bhima River:

• It is also known as the Chandrabagha River, it is a major tributary of the Krishna River. Originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat, Pune District, Maharashtra. Flows southeast through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana, merging into the Krishna River at Kadlur, Karnataka. Pandharpur, an important pilgrimage centre, is situated on its right bank.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

Explanation: About Bhima River:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/05/25/ujani-dam/

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