UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4). Statement-I: The Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) is significant for India as it marks the nation’s first entry into the International Space Station (ISS). Statement-II: The mission supports India’s long-term goals of launching its own crewed mission, Gaganyaan, and establishing an Indian space station by 2035. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla’s participation in the Ax-4 mission made him the first Indian to reach the International Space Station (ISS). This is a historic milestone, reviving India’s human spaceflight activities after a long gap since Rakesh Sharma’s flight in 1984. Statement-II is also correct. The experience and data gained from this mission, along with the international collaboration, directly complement and provide a boost to India’s indigenous space ambitions. These ambitions include the upcoming Gaganyaan mission (India’s first crewed spaceflight) and the plan to build a national space station by 2035. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I’s significance. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla’s participation in the Ax-4 mission made him the first Indian to reach the International Space Station (ISS). This is a historic milestone, reviving India’s human spaceflight activities after a long gap since Rakesh Sharma’s flight in 1984. Statement-II is also correct. The experience and data gained from this mission, along with the international collaboration, directly complement and provide a boost to India’s indigenous space ambitions. These ambitions include the upcoming Gaganyaan mission (India’s first crewed spaceflight) and the plan to build a national space station by 2035. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I’s significance.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4).

Statement-I: The Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) is significant for India as it marks the nation’s first entry into the International Space Station (ISS).

Statement-II: The mission supports India’s long-term goals of launching its own crewed mission, Gaganyaan, and establishing an Indian space station by 2035.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla’s participation in the Ax-4 mission made him the first Indian to reach the International Space Station (ISS). This is a historic milestone, reviving India’s human spaceflight activities after a long gap since Rakesh Sharma’s flight in 1984.

• Statement-II is also correct. The experience and data gained from this mission, along with the international collaboration, directly complement and provide a boost to India’s indigenous space ambitions. These ambitions include the upcoming Gaganyaan mission (India’s first crewed spaceflight) and the plan to build a national space station by 2035.

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I’s significance.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I’s significance.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) recent changes to Priority Sector Lending (PSL) for Small Finance Banks (SFBs): The overall PSL target for SFBs has been increased from 60% to 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC). The establishment of SFBs was based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. A key mandate for SFBs is that at least 50% of their loan portfolio must be allocated to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI has reduced the PSL target for SFBs, not increased it. The overall target was lowered from 75% to 60% of ANBC. This change was made to provide SFBs with greater lending flexibility and potentially improve their profitability. Statement 2 is correct. The concept of differentiated banks like SFBs was introduced by the RBI based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee in 2013. This committee focused on expanding financial inclusion. Statement 3 is correct. One of the specific operational features and mandates for SFBs is that 50% of their loan portfolio must be composed of loans to the MSME sector. This aligns with their primary objective of serving underserved sectors of the economy. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI has reduced the PSL target for SFBs, not increased it. The overall target was lowered from 75% to 60% of ANBC. This change was made to provide SFBs with greater lending flexibility and potentially improve their profitability. Statement 2 is correct. The concept of differentiated banks like SFBs was introduced by the RBI based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee in 2013. This committee focused on expanding financial inclusion. Statement 3 is correct. One of the specific operational features and mandates for SFBs is that 50% of their loan portfolio must be composed of loans to the MSME sector. This aligns with their primary objective of serving underserved sectors of the economy.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) recent changes to Priority Sector Lending (PSL) for Small Finance Banks (SFBs):

• The overall PSL target for SFBs has been increased from 60% to 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC).

• The establishment of SFBs was based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.

• A key mandate for SFBs is that at least 50% of their loan portfolio must be allocated to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI has reduced the PSL target for SFBs, not increased it. The overall target was lowered from 75% to 60% of ANBC. This change was made to provide SFBs with greater lending flexibility and potentially improve their profitability.

• Statement 2 is correct. The concept of differentiated banks like SFBs was introduced by the RBI based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee in 2013. This committee focused on expanding financial inclusion.

Statement 3 is correct. One of the specific operational features and mandates for SFBs is that 50% of their loan portfolio must be composed of loans to the MSME sector. This aligns with their primary objective of serving underserved sectors of the economy.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Banakacherla Project, consider the following statements: The project aims to divert surplus water from the Krishna River to the Godavari River to address drought in Rayalaseema. The project involves the construction of a reservoir at Bollapalli and a tunnel through the Nallamala forest. Telangana’s primary objection is that the project violates the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, by proceeding without necessary approvals from river management boards. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The project’s objective is to divert surplus water from the Godavari River to the Krishna River system, not the other way around. This water is then intended to be transferred to the Penna basin to irrigate the drought-prone Rayalaseema region. Statement 2 is correct. The project features include constructing a reservoir at Bollapalli. From there, water is planned to be lifted and channelled to the Banakacherla cross-regulator via a tunnel that passes through the Nallamala forest. Statement 3 is correct. Telangana has formally objected to the project, citing a violation of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014. The state argues that the Act mandates prior apex council approvals for new projects and that Andhra Pradesh has not secured the necessary clearances from the Krishna River Management Board (KRMB), Godavari River Management Board (GRMB), or the Central Water Commission (CWC). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The project’s objective is to divert surplus water from the Godavari River to the Krishna River system, not the other way around. This water is then intended to be transferred to the Penna basin to irrigate the drought-prone Rayalaseema region. Statement 2 is correct. The project features include constructing a reservoir at Bollapalli. From there, water is planned to be lifted and channelled to the Banakacherla cross-regulator via a tunnel that passes through the Nallamala forest. Statement 3 is correct. Telangana has formally objected to the project, citing a violation of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014. The state argues that the Act mandates prior apex council approvals for new projects and that Andhra Pradesh has not secured the necessary clearances from the Krishna River Management Board (KRMB), Godavari River Management Board (GRMB), or the Central Water Commission (CWC).

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Banakacherla Project, consider the following statements:

• The project aims to divert surplus water from the Krishna River to the Godavari River to address drought in Rayalaseema.

• The project involves the construction of a reservoir at Bollapalli and a tunnel through the Nallamala forest.

• Telangana’s primary objection is that the project violates the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, by proceeding without necessary approvals from river management boards.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The project’s objective is to divert surplus water from the Godavari River to the Krishna River system, not the other way around. This water is then intended to be transferred to the Penna basin to irrigate the drought-prone Rayalaseema region.

• Statement 2 is correct. The project features include constructing a reservoir at Bollapalli. From there, water is planned to be lifted and channelled to the Banakacherla cross-regulator via a tunnel that passes through the Nallamala forest.

• Statement 3 is correct. Telangana has formally objected to the project, citing a violation of the AP Reorganisation Act, 2014. The state argues that the Act mandates prior apex council approvals for new projects and that Andhra Pradesh has not secured the necessary clearances from the Krishna River Management Board (KRMB), Godavari River Management Board (GRMB), or the Central Water Commission (CWC).

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Tunnel/Road Project Strategic Purpose 1. Pir Ki Gali Tunnel Provides alternate access to Kashmir via Mughal Road 2. Sadhna Tunnel Connects Kupwara to Karnah, near the Line of Control (LoC) 3. Trehgam-Chamkote Road Part of the proposed Surankote–Shopian–Baramulla Highway How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Pir Ki Gali Tunnel is being constructed on the historic Mughal Road. Its primary strategic purpose is to provide all-weather connectivity and serve as an alternate route to the Kashmir Valley, which is crucial for military mobility and reducing reliance on NH44. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Sadhna Tunnel is designed to provide all-weather connectivity between Kupwara and the remote Karnah region, which lies very close to the Line of Control (LoC). This is vital for troop movement and for the local population during heavy snowfall. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Trehgam-Chamkote Road connects Kupwara to Teetwal, another area near the LoC. It is the Zaznar-Shopian Road that is part of the proposed Surankote–Shopian–Baramulla Highway. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Pir Ki Gali Tunnel is being constructed on the historic Mughal Road. Its primary strategic purpose is to provide all-weather connectivity and serve as an alternate route to the Kashmir Valley, which is crucial for military mobility and reducing reliance on NH44. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Sadhna Tunnel is designed to provide all-weather connectivity between Kupwara and the remote Karnah region, which lies very close to the Line of Control (LoC). This is vital for troop movement and for the local population during heavy snowfall. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Trehgam-Chamkote Road connects Kupwara to Teetwal, another area near the LoC. It is the Zaznar-Shopian Road that is part of the proposed Surankote–Shopian–Baramulla Highway.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Tunnel/Road Project | Strategic Purpose

1.Pir Ki Gali Tunnel | Provides alternate access to Kashmir via Mughal Road
2.Sadhna Tunnel | Connects Kupwara to Karnah, near the Line of Control (LoC)
3.Trehgam-Chamkote Road | Part of the proposed Surankote–Shopian–Baramulla Highway

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one pair

• (b) Only two pairs

• (c) All three pairs

• (d) None of the pairs

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Pir Ki Gali Tunnel is being constructed on the historic Mughal Road. Its primary strategic purpose is to provide all-weather connectivity and serve as an alternate route to the Kashmir Valley, which is crucial for military mobility and reducing reliance on NH44.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Sadhna Tunnel is designed to provide all-weather connectivity between Kupwara and the remote Karnah region, which lies very close to the Line of Control (LoC). This is vital for troop movement and for the local population during heavy snowfall.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Trehgam-Chamkote Road connects Kupwara to Teetwal, another area near the LoC. It is the Zaznar-Shopian Road that is part of the proposed Surankote–Shopian–Baramulla Highway.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the Tawi River is correct? (a) It is a right-bank tributary of the Chenab River. (b) It originates from the Siachen Glacier in the Karakoram range. (c) The river is considered sacred and is mentioned in Hindu scriptures as Chandraputri. (d) It is the main source of water for the city of Jammu and flows through Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu districts. Correct Solution: D (a) is incorrect. The Tawi River is a left-bank tributary of the Chenab River, not a right-bank tributary. (b) is incorrect. The Tawi River originates from the Kailash Kund glacier near Bhaderwah in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, not the Siachen Glacier. (c) is incorrect. The river is revered in Hindu texts, such as the Vishnudharmottara Purana, as Surya Putri (Daughter of the Sun God), not Chandraputri (Daughter of the Moon God). (d) is correct. The Tawi River is known as the lifeline of Jammu city, serving as its primary water source. It flows through the administrative districts of Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu before entering Pakistan. Incorrect Solution: D (a) is incorrect. The Tawi River is a left-bank tributary of the Chenab River, not a right-bank tributary. (b) is incorrect. The Tawi River originates from the Kailash Kund glacier near Bhaderwah in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, not the Siachen Glacier. (c) is incorrect. The river is revered in Hindu texts, such as the Vishnudharmottara Purana, as Surya Putri (Daughter of the Sun God), not Chandraputri (Daughter of the Moon God). (d) is correct. The Tawi River is known as the lifeline of Jammu city, serving as its primary water source. It flows through the administrative districts of Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu before entering Pakistan.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements about the Tawi River is correct?

• (a) It is a right-bank tributary of the Chenab River.

• (b) It originates from the Siachen Glacier in the Karakoram range.

• (c) The river is considered sacred and is mentioned in Hindu scriptures as Chandraputri.

• (d) It is the main source of water for the city of Jammu and flows through Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu districts.

Solution: D

• (a) is incorrect. The Tawi River is a left-bank tributary of the Chenab River, not a right-bank tributary.

• (b) is incorrect. The Tawi River originates from the Kailash Kund glacier near Bhaderwah in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, not the Siachen Glacier.

• (c) is incorrect. The river is revered in Hindu texts, such as the Vishnudharmottara Purana, as Surya Putri (Daughter of the Sun God), not Chandraputri (Daughter of the Moon God).

• (d) is correct. The Tawi River is known as the lifeline of Jammu city, serving as its primary water source. It flows through the administrative districts of Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu before entering Pakistan.

Solution: D

• (a) is incorrect. The Tawi River is a left-bank tributary of the Chenab River, not a right-bank tributary.

• (b) is incorrect. The Tawi River originates from the Kailash Kund glacier near Bhaderwah in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir, not the Siachen Glacier.

• (c) is incorrect. The river is revered in Hindu texts, such as the Vishnudharmottara Purana, as Surya Putri (Daughter of the Sun God), not Chandraputri (Daughter of the Moon God).

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the UN80 Initiative: The initiative was launched by the UN General Assembly to review and alter the mandates of various UN bodies. A key objective is to shift operations from high-cost locations like New York and Geneva to more economical ones. The initiative aims to transition the UN’s focus from volume-based reporting to results-oriented delivery. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative was launched by the UN Secretary-General António Guterres, not the General Assembly. Furthermore, its purpose is to evaluate how mandates are executed, not to review or alter the mandates themselves, which remain the prerogative of member states. Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the UN80 initiative is relocation and rationalization. This includes a plan to shift some operations away from expensive headquarters cities like New York and Geneva to reduce administrative costs and improve efficiency. Statement 3 is correct. The initiative signifies a fundamental shift in the UN’s operational philosophy. It aims to move away from simply reporting on the volume of activities conducted and towards a more rigorous framework focused on results-oriented delivery and demonstrating tangible impact. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative was launched by the UN Secretary-General António Guterres, not the General Assembly. Furthermore, its purpose is to evaluate how mandates are executed, not to review or alter the mandates themselves, which remain the prerogative of member states. Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the UN80 initiative is relocation and rationalization. This includes a plan to shift some operations away from expensive headquarters cities like New York and Geneva to reduce administrative costs and improve efficiency. Statement 3 is correct. The initiative signifies a fundamental shift in the UN’s operational philosophy. It aims to move away from simply reporting on the volume of activities conducted and towards a more rigorous framework focused on results-oriented delivery and demonstrating tangible impact.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the UN80 Initiative:

• The initiative was launched by the UN General Assembly to review and alter the mandates of various UN bodies.

• A key objective is to shift operations from high-cost locations like New York and Geneva to more economical ones.

• The initiative aims to transition the UN’s focus from volume-based reporting to results-oriented delivery.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The initiative was launched by the UN Secretary-General António Guterres, not the General Assembly. Furthermore, its purpose is to evaluate how mandates are executed, not to review or alter the mandates themselves, which remain the prerogative of member states.

• Statement 2 is correct. A core feature of the UN80 initiative is relocation and rationalization. This includes a plan to shift some operations away from expensive headquarters cities like New York and Geneva to reduce administrative costs and improve efficiency.

• Statement 3 is correct. The initiative signifies a fundamental shift in the UN’s operational philosophy. It aims to move away from simply reporting on the volume of activities conducted and towards a more rigorous framework focused on results-oriented delivery and demonstrating tangible impact.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Small Finance Banks (SFBs). Statement-I: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are mandated to maintain a higher Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) than what is often required for larger commercial banks. Statement-II: The regulatory framework for SFBs is designed to ensure financial stability and protect depositors’ interests, given their focus on serving a riskier, unbanked and underserved population segment. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. SFBs are required to maintain a Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 15% on their risk-weighted assets. This is significantly higher than the regulatory requirement for most scheduled commercial banks in India (which is currently 9% plus a capital conservation buffer). Statement-II is also correct. SFBs were created with the objective of promoting financial inclusion by lending to small and marginal farmers, MSMEs, and the informal sector. These segments are often perceived as having a higher credit risk profile. Therefore, a higher CAR is mandated as a prudential measure to ensure that these banks have a sufficient capital cushion to absorb unexpected losses, thereby maintaining financial stability and protecting the interests of their depositors. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. SFBs are required to maintain a Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 15% on their risk-weighted assets. This is significantly higher than the regulatory requirement for most scheduled commercial banks in India (which is currently 9% plus a capital conservation buffer). Statement-II is also correct. SFBs were created with the objective of promoting financial inclusion by lending to small and marginal farmers, MSMEs, and the informal sector. These segments are often perceived as having a higher credit risk profile. Therefore, a higher CAR is mandated as a prudential measure to ensure that these banks have a sufficient capital cushion to absorb unexpected losses, thereby maintaining financial stability and protecting the interests of their depositors. Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Small Finance Banks (SFBs).

Statement-I: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are mandated to maintain a higher Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) than what is often required for larger commercial banks.

Statement-II: The regulatory framework for SFBs is designed to ensure financial stability and protect depositors’ interests, given their focus on serving a riskier, unbanked and underserved population segment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. SFBs are required to maintain a Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) of 15% on their risk-weighted assets. This is significantly higher than the regulatory requirement for most scheduled commercial banks in India (which is currently 9% plus a capital conservation buffer).

• Statement-II is also correct. SFBs were created with the objective of promoting financial inclusion by lending to small and marginal farmers, MSMEs, and the informal sector. These segments are often perceived as having a higher credit risk profile. Therefore, a higher CAR is mandated as a prudential measure to ensure that these banks have a sufficient capital cushion to absorb unexpected losses, thereby maintaining financial stability and protecting the interests of their depositors.

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The development of a modified CRISPR tool by the Bose Institute is significant for achieving climate-resilient agriculture because: (a) it permanently edits the plant genome to remove genes vulnerable to heat stress. (b) it exclusively targets bacterial infections, leaving the plant's response to abiotic stress unchanged. (c) it functions as a regulated switch, activating defense genes only when necessary, thus conserving the plant's energy. (d) it relies on introducing foreign genes from bacteria to grant resilience, a common genetic modification technique. Correct Solution: C (a) is incorrect. The tool uses dCas9 and does not cut or permanently edit the plant’s DNA. It acts as a switch, not a pair of scissors. (b) is incorrect. The tool is designed to protect in two ways: it helps plants survive both heat (an abiotic stress) and bacterial disease (a biotic stress) by activating different sets of helpful genes. (c) is correct. The key innovation is the tool’s ability to act as a “smart” or regulated switch. It remains dormant under normal conditions and activates the plant’s natural defense genes only in response to stress (like heat or pathogens). This conserves the plant’s metabolic energy, which would otherwise be wasted if the defense mechanism was permanently active. This energy efficiency contributes directly to resilience and productivity. (d) is incorrect. The tool is highlighted as being particularly safe and natural because the regulatory component is derived from a tomato protein, not from foreign bacteria. This is a key distinction from many other GMO approaches. Incorrect Solution: C (a) is incorrect. The tool uses dCas9 and does not cut or permanently edit the plant’s DNA. It acts as a switch, not a pair of scissors. (b) is incorrect. The tool is designed to protect in two ways: it helps plants survive both heat (an abiotic stress) and bacterial disease (a biotic stress) by activating different sets of helpful genes. (c) is correct. The key innovation is the tool’s ability to act as a “smart” or regulated switch. It remains dormant under normal conditions and activates the plant’s natural defense genes only in response to stress (like heat or pathogens). This conserves the plant’s metabolic energy, which would otherwise be wasted if the defense mechanism was permanently active. This energy efficiency contributes directly to resilience and productivity. (d) is incorrect. The tool is highlighted as being particularly safe and natural because the regulatory component is derived from a tomato protein, not from foreign bacteria. This is a key distinction from many other GMO approaches.

#### 8. Question

The development of a modified CRISPR tool by the Bose Institute is significant for achieving climate-resilient agriculture because:

• (a) it permanently edits the plant genome to remove genes vulnerable to heat stress.

• (b) it exclusively targets bacterial infections, leaving the plant's response to abiotic stress unchanged.

• (c) it functions as a regulated switch, activating defense genes only when necessary, thus conserving the plant's energy.

• (d) it relies on introducing foreign genes from bacteria to grant resilience, a common genetic modification technique.

Solution: C

• (a) is incorrect. The tool uses dCas9 and does not cut or permanently edit the plant’s DNA. It acts as a switch, not a pair of scissors.

• (b) is incorrect. The tool is designed to protect in two ways: it helps plants survive both heat (an abiotic stress) and bacterial disease (a biotic stress) by activating different sets of helpful genes.

• (c) is correct. The key innovation is the tool’s ability to act as a “smart” or regulated switch. It remains dormant under normal conditions and activates the plant’s natural defense genes only in response to stress (like heat or pathogens). This conserves the plant’s metabolic energy, which would otherwise be wasted if the defense mechanism was permanently active. This energy efficiency contributes directly to resilience and productivity.

• (d) is incorrect. The tool is highlighted as being particularly safe and natural because the regulatory component is derived from a tomato protein, not from foreign bacteria. This is a key distinction from many other GMO approaches.

Solution: C

• (a) is incorrect. The tool uses dCas9 and does not cut or permanently edit the plant’s DNA. It acts as a switch, not a pair of scissors.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India: SFBs can accept all types of deposits, similar to universal commercial banks. A minimum of 50% of an SFB’s branches must be located in unbanked rural areas. SFBs are required to raise their minimum net worth from ₹100 crore to ₹200 crore within five years of commencing operations. They are permitted to create and sell their own risk-bearing financial products like insurance policies. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. SFBs are licensed under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and are permitted to carry out basic banking activities, which include the acceptance of all types of deposits from the public (e.g., savings, current, fixed, recurring). Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandate requires SFBs to open at least 25% of their banking outlets (branches) in unbanked rural centres, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct. The initial licensing condition for SFBs is to have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital / net worth of ₹100 crore. However, they are required to increase their minimum net worth to ₹200 crore within five years of starting their business. Statement 4 is incorrect. SFBs can act as distributors for third-party financial products like mutual funds, pensions, and insurance. They can distribute non-risk-sharing financial products. This means they act as agents and do not bear the underwriting risk themselves. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. SFBs are licensed under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and are permitted to carry out basic banking activities, which include the acceptance of all types of deposits from the public (e.g., savings, current, fixed, recurring). Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandate requires SFBs to open at least 25% of their banking outlets (branches) in unbanked rural centres, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct. The initial licensing condition for SFBs is to have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital / net worth of ₹100 crore. However, they are required to increase their minimum net worth to ₹200 crore within five years of starting their business. Statement 4 is incorrect. SFBs can act as distributors for third-party financial products like mutual funds, pensions, and insurance. They can distribute non-risk-sharing financial products. This means they act as agents and do not bear the underwriting risk themselves.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India:

• SFBs can accept all types of deposits, similar to universal commercial banks.

• A minimum of 50% of an SFB’s branches must be located in unbanked rural areas.

• SFBs are required to raise their minimum net worth from ₹100 crore to ₹200 crore within five years of commencing operations.

• They are permitted to create and sell their own risk-bearing financial products like insurance policies.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. SFBs are licensed under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and are permitted to carry out basic banking activities, which include the acceptance of all types of deposits from the public (e.g., savings, current, fixed, recurring).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandate requires SFBs to open at least 25% of their banking outlets (branches) in unbanked rural centres, not 50%.

• Statement 3 is correct. The initial licensing condition for SFBs is to have a minimum paid-up voting equity capital / net worth of ₹100 crore. However, they are required to increase their minimum net worth to ₹200 crore within five years of starting their business.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. SFBs can act as distributors for third-party financial products like mutual funds, pensions, and insurance. They can distribute non-risk-sharing financial products. This means they act as agents and do not bear the underwriting risk themselves.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mandate requires SFBs to open at least 25% of their banking outlets (branches) in unbanked rural centres, not 50%.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Socotra Island, recently in the news, is strategically located near which major maritime chokepoint? (a) Strait of Hormuz (b) Suez Canal (c) Strait of Malacca (d) Gulf of Aden / Bab el-Mandeb Strait Correct Solution: D Socotra Island is located in the Indian Ocean, approximately 240 kilometers east of the Horn of Africa (Somalia) and 380 kilometers south of the Arabian Peninsula (Yemen). This positions it strategically at the entrance to the Gulf of Aden, which leads to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. This strait is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea, and subsequently to the Suez Canal and the Mediterranean Sea. Its location gives it significant geopolitical importance for monitoring and influencing maritime traffic in this vital global shipping lane. Incorrect Solution: D Socotra Island is located in the Indian Ocean, approximately 240 kilometers east of the Horn of Africa (Somalia) and 380 kilometers south of the Arabian Peninsula (Yemen). This positions it strategically at the entrance to the Gulf of Aden, which leads to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. This strait is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea, and subsequently to the Suez Canal and the Mediterranean Sea. Its location gives it significant geopolitical importance for monitoring and influencing maritime traffic in this vital global shipping lane.

#### 10. Question

Socotra Island, recently in the news, is strategically located near which major maritime chokepoint?

• (a) Strait of Hormuz

• (b) Suez Canal

• (c) Strait of Malacca

• (d) Gulf of Aden / Bab el-Mandeb Strait

Solution: D

Socotra Island is located in the Indian Ocean, approximately 240 kilometers east of the Horn of Africa (Somalia) and 380 kilometers south of the Arabian Peninsula (Yemen). This positions it strategically at the entrance to the Gulf of Aden, which leads to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. This strait is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea, and subsequently to the Suez Canal and the Mediterranean Sea. Its location gives it significant geopolitical importance for monitoring and influencing maritime traffic in this vital global shipping lane.

Solution: D

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