UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Bactrian Camel, consider the following statements: It is a double-humped camel primarily adapted to the extreme cold and arid conditions of Central Asia. In India, its natural habitat is found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh. The humps of the Bactrian camel are specialized structures used to store water for long-term survival in deserts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. Statement 1 is correct as it possesses two humps on its back, in contrast to the single-humped dromedary camel, and is uniquely adapted to survive temperatures ranging from freezing cold to blistering heat. Statement 2 is correct regarding the Indian context; these camels are found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh, where they were originally brought by traders on the Silk Road. Statement 3 is incorrect because a common misconception is that camel humps store water. In reality, the humps store fat, which can be converted to water and energy when food is scarce. This biological adaptation allows them to endure long periods without sustenance. Their ability to drink massive amounts of water at once and their tolerance for saline water are separate physiological adaptations. Incorrect Solution: A The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. Statement 1 is correct as it possesses two humps on its back, in contrast to the single-humped dromedary camel, and is uniquely adapted to survive temperatures ranging from freezing cold to blistering heat. Statement 2 is correct regarding the Indian context; these camels are found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh, where they were originally brought by traders on the Silk Road. Statement 3 is incorrect because a common misconception is that camel humps store water. In reality, the humps store fat, which can be converted to water and energy when food is scarce. This biological adaptation allows them to endure long periods without sustenance. Their ability to drink massive amounts of water at once and their tolerance for saline water are separate physiological adaptations.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Bactrian Camel, consider the following statements:

• It is a double-humped camel primarily adapted to the extreme cold and arid conditions of Central Asia.

• In India, its natural habitat is found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh.

• The humps of the Bactrian camel are specialized structures used to store water for long-term survival in deserts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.

• Statement 1 is correct as it possesses two humps on its back, in contrast to the single-humped dromedary camel, and is uniquely adapted to survive temperatures ranging from freezing cold to blistering heat.

• Statement 2 is correct regarding the Indian context; these camels are found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh, where they were originally brought by traders on the Silk Road.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because a common misconception is that camel humps store water. In reality, the humps store fat, which can be converted to water and energy when food is scarce. This biological adaptation allows them to endure long periods without sustenance. Their ability to drink massive amounts of water at once and their tolerance for saline water are separate physiological adaptations.

Solution: A

• The Bactrian camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia.

• Statement 2 is correct regarding the Indian context; these camels are found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh, where they were originally brought by traders on the Silk Road.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Government servants, including those working with PSUs, are generally not eligible for the Padma Awards. Statement-II: The Padma Awards are intended to recognize “excellence plus” involving an element of public service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Both statements are individually correct based on the eligibility criteria of the Padma Awards. Statement-I is correct because government servants are excluded from the ambit of these awards to maintain the distinction of the honor, with the specific exception of Doctors and Scientists. Statement-II is correct as it defines the core philosophy of the award—it is not merely for professional achievement but for achievement that has a significant positive impact on society. However, Statement-II does not explain why government servants are ineligible (the exclusion is primarily to avoid conflict of interest and ensure the awards reach broader civil society). Incorrect Solution: B Both statements are individually correct based on the eligibility criteria of the Padma Awards. Statement-I is correct because government servants are excluded from the ambit of these awards to maintain the distinction of the honor, with the specific exception of Doctors and Scientists. Statement-II is correct as it defines the core philosophy of the award—it is not merely for professional achievement but for achievement that has a significant positive impact on society. However, Statement-II does not explain why government servants are ineligible (the exclusion is primarily to avoid conflict of interest and ensure the awards reach broader civil society).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Government servants, including those working with PSUs, are generally not eligible for the Padma Awards.

Statement-II: The Padma Awards are intended to recognize “excellence plus” involving an element of public service.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Both statements are individually correct based on the eligibility criteria of the Padma Awards. Statement-I is correct because government servants are excluded from the ambit of these awards to maintain the distinction of the honor, with the specific exception of Doctors and Scientists.

• Statement-II is correct as it defines the core philosophy of the award—it is not merely for professional achievement but for achievement that has a significant positive impact on society. However, Statement-II does not explain why government servants are ineligible (the exclusion is primarily to avoid conflict of interest and ensure the awards reach broader civil society).

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards, consider the following statements: These awards were established as an offshoot of the Ashoka Chakra series of Gallantry Awards. The Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak is awarded for acts of conspicuous courage in saving life under very great danger to the rescuer. The awards are strictly limited to living individuals and cannot be conferred posthumously. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C The Jeevan Raksha Padak series is a civilian lifeline recognition. Statement 1 is correct; established in 1961, these awards originated from the Ashoka Chakra series to honor “meritorious acts of a humane nature.” Statement 2 is correct; the series has three tiers: Sarvottam (conspicuous courage), Uttam (courage/promptitude under great danger), and Jeevan Raksha Padak (courage involving grave bodily injury risk). Statement 3 is incorrect because the award can be conferred posthumously, as evidenced by the 2025 awards where six out of thirty honors were given posthumously. These awards include a medallion, a certificate, and a lump-sum monetary allowance. Incorrect Solution: C The Jeevan Raksha Padak series is a civilian lifeline recognition. Statement 1 is correct; established in 1961, these awards originated from the Ashoka Chakra series to honor “meritorious acts of a humane nature.” Statement 2 is correct; the series has three tiers: Sarvottam (conspicuous courage), Uttam (courage/promptitude under great danger), and Jeevan Raksha Padak (courage involving grave bodily injury risk). Statement 3 is incorrect because the award can be conferred posthumously, as evidenced by the 2025 awards where six out of thirty honors were given posthumously. These awards include a medallion, a certificate, and a lump-sum monetary allowance.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards, consider the following statements:

• These awards were established as an offshoot of the Ashoka Chakra series of Gallantry Awards.

• The Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak is awarded for acts of conspicuous courage in saving life under very great danger to the rescuer.

• The awards are strictly limited to living individuals and cannot be conferred posthumously.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Jeevan Raksha Padak series is a civilian lifeline recognition.

• Statement 1 is correct; established in 1961, these awards originated from the Ashoka Chakra series to honor “meritorious acts of a humane nature.”

• Statement 2 is correct; the series has three tiers: Sarvottam (conspicuous courage), Uttam (courage/promptitude under great danger), and Jeevan Raksha Padak (courage involving grave bodily injury risk).

Statement 3 is incorrect because the award can be conferred posthumously, as evidenced by the 2025 awards where six out of thirty honors were given posthumously. These awards include a medallion, a certificate, and a lump-sum monetary allowance.

Solution: C

• The Jeevan Raksha Padak series is a civilian lifeline recognition.

• Statement 1 is correct; established in 1961, these awards originated from the Ashoka Chakra series to honor “meritorious acts of a humane nature.”

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Agarwood: It is a resinous heartwood formed in Aquilaria trees as a defensive response to fungal infection. In India, its natural habitat is restricted to the tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. It is currently listed under CITES Appendix II to regulate its international trade. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Agarwood is formed when the wood of Aquilaria trees is infected by a specific mold. The tree produces a dark, aromatic resin to suppress the infection, which creates the valuable heartwood. Statement 2 is incorrect; while it grows in tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, in India, it is primarily found in the Northeast (Tripura, Assam), not the Western Ghats. It is also native to Southeast Asian countries like Vietnam and Indonesia. Statement 3 is correct; due to high demand in perfumery and traditional medicine, wild populations have been overexploited, leading to its listing in CITES Appendix II to ensure trade does not threaten its survival. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; Agarwood is formed when the wood of Aquilaria trees is infected by a specific mold. The tree produces a dark, aromatic resin to suppress the infection, which creates the valuable heartwood. Statement 2 is incorrect; while it grows in tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, in India, it is primarily found in the Northeast (Tripura, Assam), not the Western Ghats. It is also native to Southeast Asian countries like Vietnam and Indonesia. Statement 3 is correct; due to high demand in perfumery and traditional medicine, wild populations have been overexploited, leading to its listing in CITES Appendix II to ensure trade does not threaten its survival.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Agarwood:

• It is a resinous heartwood formed in Aquilaria trees as a defensive response to fungal infection.

• In India, its natural habitat is restricted to the tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.

• It is currently listed under CITES Appendix II to regulate its international trade.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; Agarwood is formed when the wood of Aquilaria trees is infected by a specific mold. The tree produces a dark, aromatic resin to suppress the infection, which creates the valuable heartwood.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; while it grows in tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, in India, it is primarily found in the Northeast (Tripura, Assam), not the Western Ghats. It is also native to Southeast Asian countries like Vietnam and Indonesia.

• Statement 3 is correct; due to high demand in perfumery and traditional medicine, wild populations have been overexploited, leading to its listing in CITES Appendix II to ensure trade does not threaten its survival.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The “Narayan Ramachandran Committee,” recently seen in the news, is related to: (a) Reviewing the impact of climate change on agricultural productivity. (b) Assessing the security framework of India’s nuclear power plants. (c) Modernizing the investment guidelines of the National Pension System (NPS). (d) Framing a new policy for the promotion of MSMEs in the defense sector. Correct Solution: C The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) constituted the Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) committee, chaired by Narayan Ramachandran. The primary mandate of this committee is to review and modernize the NPS investment guidelines. This includes benchmarking NPS against global pension practices, expanding asset classes, and integrating sustainability (like net-zero pathways) into investment decisions. The committee aims to optimize returns for subscribers while managing risks across government and non-government sectors. Incorrect Solution: C The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) constituted the Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) committee, chaired by Narayan Ramachandran. The primary mandate of this committee is to review and modernize the NPS investment guidelines. This includes benchmarking NPS against global pension practices, expanding asset classes, and integrating sustainability (like net-zero pathways) into investment decisions. The committee aims to optimize returns for subscribers while managing risks across government and non-government sectors.

#### 5. Question

The “Narayan Ramachandran Committee,” recently seen in the news, is related to:

• (a) Reviewing the impact of climate change on agricultural productivity.

• (b) Assessing the security framework of India’s nuclear power plants.

• (c) Modernizing the investment guidelines of the National Pension System (NPS).

• (d) Framing a new policy for the promotion of MSMEs in the defense sector.

Solution: C

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) constituted the Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) committee, chaired by Narayan Ramachandran. The primary mandate of this committee is to review and modernize the NPS investment guidelines. This includes benchmarking NPS against global pension practices, expanding asset classes, and integrating sustainability (like net-zero pathways) into investment decisions. The committee aims to optimize returns for subscribers while managing risks across government and non-government sectors.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Padma Awards Committee, consider the following statements: The committee is headed by the Vice-President of India. The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous and NRI awards) should not exceed 150. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect; the Padma Awards Committee is constituted every year by the Prime Minister and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Vice-President. Statement 2 is correct; once the committee makes its recommendations, they are processed and submitted for approval to the Prime Minister and then the President. Statement 3 is incorrect; the total number of awards to be given in a year is capped at 120. This limit does not include posthumous awards or those given to foreigners, NRIs, or OCIs. These awards are announced on the eve of Republic Day annually. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect; the Padma Awards Committee is constituted every year by the Prime Minister and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Vice-President. Statement 2 is correct; once the committee makes its recommendations, they are processed and submitted for approval to the Prime Minister and then the President. Statement 3 is incorrect; the total number of awards to be given in a year is capped at 120. This limit does not include posthumous awards or those given to foreigners, NRIs, or OCIs. These awards are announced on the eve of Republic Day annually.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Padma Awards Committee, consider the following statements:

• The committee is headed by the Vice-President of India.

• The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval.

• The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous and NRI awards) should not exceed 150.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the Padma Awards Committee is constituted every year by the Prime Minister and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Vice-President.

• Statement 2 is correct; once the committee makes its recommendations, they are processed and submitted for approval to the Prime Minister and then the President.

• Statement 3 is incorrect; the total number of awards to be given in a year is capped at 120. This limit does not include posthumous awards or those given to foreigners, NRIs, or OCIs. These awards are announced on the eve of Republic Day annually.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the Padma Awards Committee is constituted every year by the Prime Minister and is headed by the Cabinet Secretary, not the Vice-President.

• Statement 2 is correct; once the committee makes its recommendations, they are processed and submitted for approval to the Prime Minister and then the President.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) Committee: It was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to review pension fund liquidity. It is mandated to integrate climate transition risks and net-zero pathways into investment decisions. It aims to align Indian pension practices with global benchmarks. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the SAARG committee was constituted by the PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority), which is the statutory regulator for pensions, not the RBI. Statement 2 is correct; one of its forward-looking mandates is to embed Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors, specifically climate risks, into the NPS investment architecture. Statement 3 is correct; the committee is tasked with global benchmarking to ensure that the NPS is resilient and provides optimal long-term returns for subscribers by diversifying asset classes. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the SAARG committee was constituted by the PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority), which is the statutory regulator for pensions, not the RBI. Statement 2 is correct; one of its forward-looking mandates is to embed Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors, specifically climate risks, into the NPS investment architecture. Statement 3 is correct; the committee is tasked with global benchmarking to ensure that the NPS is resilient and provides optimal long-term returns for subscribers by diversifying asset classes.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Strategic Asset Allocation and Risk Governance (SAARG) Committee:

• It was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to review pension fund liquidity.

• It is mandated to integrate climate transition risks and net-zero pathways into investment decisions.

• It aims to align Indian pension practices with global benchmarks.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the SAARG committee was constituted by the PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority), which is the statutory regulator for pensions, not the RBI.

• Statement 2 is correct; one of its forward-looking mandates is to embed Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors, specifically climate risks, into the NPS investment architecture.

Statement 3 is correct; the committee is tasked with global benchmarking to ensure that the NPS is resilient and provides optimal long-term returns for subscribers by diversifying asset classes.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is correct; the committee is tasked with global benchmarking to ensure that the NPS is resilient and provides optimal long-term returns for subscribers by diversifying asset classes.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the global silver scenario: Mexico is currently the largest producer of silver in the world. China and Peru are among the top silver-producing nations. India is a resource-constrained nation regarding silver ore but has integrated smelting and refining capacity. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The global supply of silver is dominated by a few countries. Mexico is the leader, contributing about 26% of the global share, followed closely by China and Peru. Other notable producers include Poland, Russia, and Chile. Statement 3 is correct: India is resource-constrained, holding only about 1% of the world’s silver reserves. However, India is a significant player in the market because of its integrated smelting and refining capacity (like the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter), which allows it to recover silver effectively as a byproduct from other metallic ores. Rising demand for silver in the electronics and renewable energy sectors is currently tightening the global market. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The global supply of silver is dominated by a few countries. Mexico is the leader, contributing about 26% of the global share, followed closely by China and Peru. Other notable producers include Poland, Russia, and Chile. Statement 3 is correct: India is resource-constrained, holding only about 1% of the world’s silver reserves. However, India is a significant player in the market because of its integrated smelting and refining capacity (like the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter), which allows it to recover silver effectively as a byproduct from other metallic ores. Rising demand for silver in the electronics and renewable energy sectors is currently tightening the global market.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the global silver scenario:

• Mexico is currently the largest producer of silver in the world.

• China and Peru are among the top silver-producing nations.

• India is a resource-constrained nation regarding silver ore but has integrated smelting and refining capacity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The global supply of silver is dominated by a few countries. Mexico is the leader, contributing about 26% of the global share, followed closely by China and Peru. Other notable producers include Poland, Russia, and Chile.

• Statement 3 is correct: India is resource-constrained, holding only about 1% of the world’s silver reserves. However, India is a significant player in the market because of its integrated smelting and refining capacity (like the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter), which allows it to recover silver effectively as a byproduct from other metallic ores. Rising demand for silver in the electronics and renewable energy sectors is currently tightening the global market.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements: In the event of the subscriber’s death before 60 years, the spouse has the option to continue contributing to the account. The central government has approved the continuation of the scheme until the fiscal year 2030–31. The pension amount received by the subscriber is fixed and does not depend on the market performance of the pension funds. It is a voluntary scheme where the subscriber’s contribution is auto-debited from their savings account. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 highlights a crucial feature: if a subscriber dies before age 60, the spouse can continue the account for the remaining period to avail the pension, or they can opt to exit and claim the accumulated corpus. Statement 2 is a recent development where the Union Cabinet extended the scheme’s timeline to 2030–31, providing long-term certainty for outreach and gap funding. Statement 3 is vital for the target demographic; unlike the National Pension System (NPS) where the final pension depends on market returns, APY offers a guaranteed minimum pension. If the returns on contributions are lower than the estimated returns for a guaranteed pension, the Government of India funds the shortfall. Conversely, if returns are higher, the surplus is credited to the subscriber’s account. Statement 4 emphasizes the operational ease; the scheme relies on auto-debit (monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly) from a bank or post office savings account. This reduces administrative costs and ensures persistence in savings. The scheme’s significance is underlined by its role in financial inclusion, bringing millions of unbanked or under-banked citizens into the formal financial fold. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 highlights a crucial feature: if a subscriber dies before age 60, the spouse can continue the account for the remaining period to avail the pension, or they can opt to exit and claim the accumulated corpus. Statement 2 is a recent development where the Union Cabinet extended the scheme’s timeline to 2030–31, providing long-term certainty for outreach and gap funding. Statement 3 is vital for the target demographic; unlike the National Pension System (NPS) where the final pension depends on market returns, APY offers a guaranteed minimum pension. If the returns on contributions are lower than the estimated returns for a guaranteed pension, the Government of India funds the shortfall. Conversely, if returns are higher, the surplus is credited to the subscriber’s account. Statement 4 emphasizes the operational ease; the scheme relies on auto-debit (monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly) from a bank or post office savings account. This reduces administrative costs and ensures persistence in savings. The scheme’s significance is underlined by its role in financial inclusion, bringing millions of unbanked or under-banked citizens into the formal financial fold.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), consider the following statements:

• In the event of the subscriber’s death before 60 years, the spouse has the option to continue contributing to the account.

• The central government has approved the continuation of the scheme until the fiscal year 2030–31.

• The pension amount received by the subscriber is fixed and does not depend on the market performance of the pension funds.

• It is a voluntary scheme where the subscriber’s contribution is auto-debited from their savings account.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 highlights a crucial feature: if a subscriber dies before age 60, the spouse can continue the account for the remaining period to avail the pension, or they can opt to exit and claim the accumulated corpus.

• Statement 2 is a recent development where the Union Cabinet extended the scheme’s timeline to 2030–31, providing long-term certainty for outreach and gap funding.

• Statement 3 is vital for the target demographic; unlike the National Pension System (NPS) where the final pension depends on market returns, APY offers a guaranteed minimum pension. If the returns on contributions are lower than the estimated returns for a guaranteed pension, the Government of India funds the shortfall. Conversely, if returns are higher, the surplus is credited to the subscriber’s account.

Statement 4 emphasizes the operational ease; the scheme relies on auto-debit (monthly, quarterly, or half-yearly) from a bank or post office savings account. This reduces administrative costs and ensures persistence in savings. The scheme’s significance is underlined by its role in financial inclusion, bringing millions of unbanked or under-banked citizens into the formal financial fold.

Solution: D

• Statement 2 is a recent development where the Union Cabinet extended the scheme’s timeline to 2030–31, providing long-term certainty for outreach and gap funding.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Solar Radiation Storms: They are always accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME). They pose no risk to terrestrial power grids as the magnetic field fully deflects the protons. The measurement of these storms is based on proton flux levels detected by Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites (GOES). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The NOAA classifies solar radiation storms based on the proton flux (number of protons passing through a specific area) at energies ≥ 10 MeV, as measured by Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites (GOES). Statement 1 is incorrect because while radiation storms are often accompanied by CMEs, it is not an absolute rule; some flares produce “impulsive” proton events without a large-scale CME. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the primary risk of radiation storms is to space-based assets and aviation, they are frequently linked to geomagnetic storms (caused by the accompanying CME). These geomagnetic storms can induce currents in terrestrial power grids, leading to transformer damage and wide-scale blackouts (like the 1989 Quebec event). The protons in a radiation storm can penetrate the magnetic shield, especially during “Severe” S4 or S5 events, posing a biological risk to high-altitude flight crews and passengers. This makes space weather prediction a critical component of modern national security and infrastructure resilience. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The NOAA classifies solar radiation storms based on the proton flux (number of protons passing through a specific area) at energies ≥ 10 MeV, as measured by Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites (GOES). Statement 1 is incorrect because while radiation storms are often accompanied by CMEs, it is not an absolute rule; some flares produce “impulsive” proton events without a large-scale CME. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the primary risk of radiation storms is to space-based assets and aviation, they are frequently linked to geomagnetic storms (caused by the accompanying CME). These geomagnetic storms can induce currents in terrestrial power grids, leading to transformer damage and wide-scale blackouts (like the 1989 Quebec event). The protons in a radiation storm can penetrate the magnetic shield, especially during “Severe” S4 or S5 events, posing a biological risk to high-altitude flight crews and passengers. This makes space weather prediction a critical component of modern national security and infrastructure resilience.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the impact of Solar Radiation Storms:

• They are always accompanied by a Coronal Mass Ejection (CME).

• They pose no risk to terrestrial power grids as the magnetic field fully deflects the protons.

• The measurement of these storms is based on proton flux levels detected by Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites (GOES).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The NOAA classifies solar radiation storms based on the proton flux (number of protons passing through a specific area) at energies ≥ 10 MeV, as measured by Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellites (GOES).

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while radiation storms are often accompanied by CMEs, it is not an absolute rule; some flares produce “impulsive” proton events without a large-scale CME.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; while the primary risk of radiation storms is to space-based assets and aviation, they are frequently linked to geomagnetic storms (caused by the accompanying CME). These geomagnetic storms can induce currents in terrestrial power grids, leading to transformer damage and wide-scale blackouts (like the 1989 Quebec event).

• The protons in a radiation storm can penetrate the magnetic shield, especially during “Severe” S4 or S5 events, posing a biological risk to high-altitude flight crews and passengers. This makes space weather prediction a critical component of modern national security and infrastructure resilience.

Solution: A

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