UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 December 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant: It is Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant. It is constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation. It is located on the banks of the Jamuna River. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. About Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant: Location:Situated in Rooppur, Ishwardi Upazila, Pabna District. Built by:Constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation. River bank:Located along the Padma River. Features: Total capacity: 2.4 GWe. Comprises two units of VVER-1200 reactors. Expected to become operational by 2025, making it Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 3 is incorrect. About Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant: Location:Situated in Rooppur, Ishwardi Upazila, Pabna District. Built by:Constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation. River bank:Located along the Padma River. Features: Total capacity: 2.4 GWe. Comprises two units of VVER-1200 reactors. Expected to become operational by 2025, making it Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant:

• It is Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant.

• It is constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation.

• It is located on the banks of the Jamuna River.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant:

• Location:Situated in Rooppur, Ishwardi Upazila, Pabna District.

• Built by:Constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation.

• River bank:Located along the Padma River.

• Total capacity: 2.4 GWe.

• Comprises two units of VVER-1200 reactors.

• Expected to become operational by 2025, making it Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant.

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

About Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant:

• Location:Situated in Rooppur, Ishwardi Upazila, Pabna District.

• Built by:Constructed by Rosatom, Russia’s state nuclear corporation.

• River bank:Located along the Padma River.

• Total capacity: 2.4 GWe.

• Comprises two units of VVER-1200 reactors.

• Expected to become operational by 2025, making it Bangladesh’s first nuclear power plant.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points What does an increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicate for a country’s economy? a) Increased trade competitiveness of exports b) Depreciation of the currency value c) Overvaluation of the currency, making exports costlier d) No impact on trade competitiveness Correct Solution: c) An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates that a country’s currency has become overvalued relative to its trading partners, which impacts its trade dynamics. REER measures a currency’s value against a basket of other currencies, adjusted for inflation and trade weights. When REER rises, it means the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, making the country’s goods and services more expensive in the global market. This overvaluation negatively affects export competitiveness, as foreign buyers find domestic products less affordable. At the same time, it makes imports cheaper for domestic consumers, leading to a higher preference for foreign goods. Over time, this can worsen the trade balance by reducing export revenues and increasing import expenditure. Incorrect Solution: c) An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates that a country’s currency has become overvalued relative to its trading partners, which impacts its trade dynamics. REER measures a currency’s value against a basket of other currencies, adjusted for inflation and trade weights. When REER rises, it means the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, making the country’s goods and services more expensive in the global market. This overvaluation negatively affects export competitiveness, as foreign buyers find domestic products less affordable. At the same time, it makes imports cheaper for domestic consumers, leading to a higher preference for foreign goods. Over time, this can worsen the trade balance by reducing export revenues and increasing import expenditure.

#### 2. Question

What does an increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicate for a country’s economy?

• a) Increased trade competitiveness of exports

• b) Depreciation of the currency value

• c) Overvaluation of the currency, making exports costlier

• d) No impact on trade competitiveness

Solution: c)

An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates that a country’s currency has become overvalued relative to its trading partners, which impacts its trade dynamics. REER measures a currency’s value against a basket of other currencies, adjusted for inflation and trade weights. When REER rises, it means the domestic currency has appreciated in real terms, making the country’s goods and services more expensive in the global market.

This overvaluation negatively affects export competitiveness, as foreign buyers find domestic products less affordable. At the same time, it makes imports cheaper for domestic consumers, leading to a higher preference for foreign goods. Over time, this can worsen the trade balance by reducing export revenues and increasing import expenditure.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar? a) Promoting tourism between the two nations b) Allowing unrestricted trade across the border c) Facilitating movement for familial, cultural, and economic purposes d) Strengthening military cooperation along the border Correct Solution: c) About Free Movement Regime (FMR): What it is:FMR allows residents within a specified radius on either side of the India-Myanmar border to move freely without visas for familial, cultural, and economic purposes. Nations involved:India and Myanmar. Law governing:Established in 1968. Regulated under bilateral agreements and administrative protocols between the two nations. Features: Territorial Limit:Initially 40 km, reduced to 16 km in 2004, and now proposed at 10 km. Border Pass System:Residents receive a pass for a maximum stay of seven days in the neighbouring country, monitored by Assam Rifles and state authorities. Regulated Entry Points:43 designated entry and exit points, with biometric verification and health checks mandatory. Indian States Involved (Border Length): Arunachal Pradesh: 520 km. Nagaland: 215 km. Manipur: 398 km. Mizoram: 510 km. Incorrect Solution: c) About Free Movement Regime (FMR): What it is:FMR allows residents within a specified radius on either side of the India-Myanmar border to move freely without visas for familial, cultural, and economic purposes. Nations involved:India and Myanmar. Law governing:Established in 1968. Regulated under bilateral agreements and administrative protocols between the two nations. Features: Territorial Limit:Initially 40 km, reduced to 16 km in 2004, and now proposed at 10 km. Border Pass System:Residents receive a pass for a maximum stay of seven days in the neighbouring country, monitored by Assam Rifles and state authorities. Regulated Entry Points:43 designated entry and exit points, with biometric verification and health checks mandatory. Indian States Involved (Border Length): Arunachal Pradesh: 520 km. Nagaland: 215 km. Manipur: 398 km. Mizoram: 510 km.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and Myanmar?

• a) Promoting tourism between the two nations

• b) Allowing unrestricted trade across the border

• c) Facilitating movement for familial, cultural, and economic purposes

• d) Strengthening military cooperation along the border

Solution: c)

About Free Movement Regime (FMR):

• What it is:FMR allows residents within a specified radius on either side of the India-Myanmar border to move freely without visas for familial, cultural, and economic purposes.

• Nations involved:India and Myanmar.

• Law governing:Established in 1968.

• Regulated under bilateral agreements and administrative protocols between the two nations.

• Territorial Limit:Initially 40 km, reduced to 16 km in 2004, and now proposed at 10 km.

• Border Pass System:Residents receive a pass for a maximum stay of seven days in the neighbouring country, monitored by Assam Rifles and state authorities.

• Regulated Entry Points:43 designated entry and exit points, with biometric verification and health checks mandatory.

Indian States Involved (Border Length):

• Arunachal Pradesh: 520 km.

• Nagaland: 215 km.

• Manipur: 398 km.

• Mizoram: 510 km.

Solution: c)

About Free Movement Regime (FMR):

• What it is:FMR allows residents within a specified radius on either side of the India-Myanmar border to move freely without visas for familial, cultural, and economic purposes.

• Nations involved:India and Myanmar.

• Law governing:Established in 1968.

• Regulated under bilateral agreements and administrative protocols between the two nations.

• Territorial Limit:Initially 40 km, reduced to 16 km in 2004, and now proposed at 10 km.

• Border Pass System:Residents receive a pass for a maximum stay of seven days in the neighbouring country, monitored by Assam Rifles and state authorities.

• Regulated Entry Points:43 designated entry and exit points, with biometric verification and health checks mandatory.

Indian States Involved (Border Length):

• Arunachal Pradesh: 520 km.

• Nagaland: 215 km.

• Manipur: 398 km.

• Mizoram: 510 km.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya: He presided over the Lahore Session of the INC in 1931. He coined the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” during the Civil Disobedience Movement. He opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above Correct Solution: d) About Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya: Birth:Born on December 25, 1861, in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. Education:Studied at Muir Central College, Allahabad, graduating in 1884. Profession:Began as a teacher, later practiced law at Allahabad High Court, and transitioned to politics and social reform. Contributions in Freedom Movement: President of INC:Presided over four sessions of the Indian National Congress (1909 – Lahore, 1913 – Delhi, 1919 – Amritsar, and 1932 – Calcutta). Played a pivotal role in Civil Disobedienceand Non-Cooperation Movements led by Mahatma Gandhi. Coined the slogan ‘Satyamev Jayate’ in the INC session of 1918. Incorrect Solution: d) About Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya: Birth:Born on December 25, 1861, in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. Education:Studied at Muir Central College, Allahabad, graduating in 1884. Profession:Began as a teacher, later practiced law at Allahabad High Court, and transitioned to politics and social reform. Contributions in Freedom Movement: President of INC:Presided over four sessions of the Indian National Congress (1909 – Lahore, 1913 – Delhi, 1919 – Amritsar, and 1932 – Calcutta). Played a pivotal role in Civil Disobedienceand Non-Cooperation Movements led by Mahatma Gandhi. Coined the slogan ‘Satyamev Jayate’ in the INC session of 1918.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya:

• He presided over the Lahore Session of the INC in 1931.

• He coined the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad” during the Civil Disobedience Movement.

• He opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement led by Mahatma Gandhi.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) None of the above

Solution: d)

About Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya:

• Birth:Born on December 25, 1861, in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.

• Education:Studied at Muir Central College, Allahabad, graduating in 1884.

• Profession:Began as a teacher, later practiced law at Allahabad High Court, and transitioned to politics and social reform.

Contributions in Freedom Movement:

• President of INC:Presided over four sessions of the Indian National Congress (1909 – Lahore, 1913 – Delhi, 1919 – Amritsar, and 1932 – Calcutta).

• Played a pivotal role in Civil Disobedienceand Non-Cooperation Movements led by Mahatma Gandhi.

• Coined the slogan ‘Satyamev Jayate’ in the INC session of 1918.

Solution: d)

About Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya:

• Birth:Born on December 25, 1861, in Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.

• Education:Studied at Muir Central College, Allahabad, graduating in 1884.

• Profession:Began as a teacher, later practiced law at Allahabad High Court, and transitioned to politics and social reform.

Contributions in Freedom Movement:

• President of INC:Presided over four sessions of the Indian National Congress (1909 – Lahore, 1913 – Delhi, 1919 – Amritsar, and 1932 – Calcutta).

• Played a pivotal role in Civil Disobedienceand Non-Cooperation Movements led by Mahatma Gandhi.

• Coined the slogan ‘Satyamev Jayate’ in the INC session of 1918.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: A decrease in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) improves export competitiveness. Statement-II: Decrease in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) reflects currency undervaluation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. A decrease in REER reflects currency undervaluation, which makes a country’s exports cheaper and more competitive internationally, while imports become costlier. This adjustment aids in reducing trade deficits and improving the trade balance. Incorrect Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. A decrease in REER reflects currency undervaluation, which makes a country’s exports cheaper and more competitive internationally, while imports become costlier. This adjustment aids in reducing trade deficits and improving the trade balance.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: A decrease in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) improves export competitiveness. Statement-II: Decrease in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) reflects currency undervaluation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. A decrease in REER reflects currency undervaluation, which makes a country’s exports cheaper and more competitive internationally, while imports become costlier. This adjustment aids in reducing trade deficits and improving the trade balance.

Solution: a)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995): It provides a lump sum benefit at retirement. It offers monthly pensions to survivors in case of an employee’s death. It is managed by the EPFO under the Ministry of Finance. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because the Employees’ Pension Scheme offers monthly pensions, not lump sum benefits. Statement 2 is correct as it provides monthly pensions to survivors, retirees, and disabled employees. Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme is managed by EPFO under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO): Established in:1952 under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Administering Ministry: Ministry of Labour and Employment. Aim:To ensure social security for the organized sector workforce through provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes. Powers and Functions: Manages three schemes: Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (1952):Offers accumulation plus interest on retirement or death, with partial withdrawal options. Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995):Provides monthly pension for retirement, disability, and survivors. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (1976):Offers life insurance benefits up to ₹6 lakh in case of the employee’s death. Administers funds and contributions across 122 offices nationwide. Ensures compliance with the Employees’ Provident Fund(EPF) Act and facilitates housing schemes and other benefits. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because the Employees’ Pension Scheme offers monthly pensions, not lump sum benefits. Statement 2 is correct as it provides monthly pensions to survivors, retirees, and disabled employees. Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme is managed by EPFO under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO): Established in:1952 under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Administering Ministry: Ministry of Labour and Employment. Aim:To ensure social security for the organized sector workforce through provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes. Powers and Functions: Manages three schemes: Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (1952):Offers accumulation plus interest on retirement or death, with partial withdrawal options. Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995):Provides monthly pension for retirement, disability, and survivors. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (1976):Offers life insurance benefits up to ₹6 lakh in case of the employee’s death. Administers funds and contributions across 122 offices nationwide. Ensures compliance with the Employees’ Provident Fund(EPF) Act and facilitates housing schemes and other benefits.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about the Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995):

• It provides a lump sum benefit at retirement.

• It offers monthly pensions to survivors in case of an employee’s death.

• It is managed by the EPFO under the Ministry of Finance.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Employees’ Pension Scheme offers monthly pensions, not lump sum benefits. Statement 2 is correct as it provides monthly pensions to survivors, retirees, and disabled employees. Statement 3 is incorrect as the scheme is managed by EPFO under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Finance.

About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):

• Established in:1952 under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

• Administering Ministry: Ministry of Labour and Employment.

• Aim:To ensure social security for the organized sector workforce through provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes.

Powers and Functions:

• Manages three schemes:

• Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (1952):Offers accumulation plus interest on retirement or death, with partial withdrawal options.

• Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995):Provides monthly pension for retirement, disability, and survivors.

• Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (1976):Offers life insurance benefits up to ₹6 lakh in case of the employee’s death.

• Administers funds and contributions across 122 offices nationwide.

• Ensures compliance with the Employees’ Provident Fund(EPF) Act and facilitates housing schemes and other benefits.

Solution: a)

About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):

• Established in:1952 under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

• Administering Ministry: Ministry of Labour and Employment.

• Aim:To ensure social security for the organized sector workforce through provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes.

Powers and Functions:

• Manages three schemes:

• Employees’ Provident Fund Scheme (1952):Offers accumulation plus interest on retirement or death, with partial withdrawal options.

• Employees’ Pension Scheme (1995):Provides monthly pension for retirement, disability, and survivors.

• Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme (1976):Offers life insurance benefits up to ₹6 lakh in case of the employee’s death.

• Administers funds and contributions across 122 offices nationwide.

• Ensures compliance with the Employees’ Provident Fund(EPF) Act and facilitates housing schemes and other benefits.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya’s social and political advocacy: He advocated for the abolition of indentured labour in the colonies. He opposed free and compulsory education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council. He supported imposing taxes on religious pilgrimages to raise government revenue. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as Malaviya was a staunch advocate for abolishing indentured labor, highlighting its exploitative nature. Statement 2 is incorrect because he supported free and compulsory education reforms. Statement 3 is incorrect as he opposed taxing religious pilgrimages, advocating for religious tolerance. Pen Name: Wrote under the pen name ‘Makarand’, focusing on nationalist issues. The pen name ‘Mahamana’ was bestowed by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership and reformist zeal. Major Reforms and Advocacy: Abolition of Indentured Labor:Advocated for ending the exploitative system of Indian labourers in colonies. Free and Compulsory Education:Pushed for primary education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council (1909–1920). Religious Tolerance:Championed secularism and opposed the imposition of taxes on religious pilgrimages. Literature and Media: Founded newspapers such as The Leader, Abhyudaya, and Maryada. Chaired the Hindustan Times board (1924–1946), promoting nationalist journalism. Educational Contributions:Established Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916 and served as Vice-Chancellor (1919–1938). Organizations Associated With: Co-founder of Hindu Mahasabha (1906). Played a role in founding Scout and Guide in India. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct as Malaviya was a staunch advocate for abolishing indentured labor, highlighting its exploitative nature. Statement 2 is incorrect because he supported free and compulsory education reforms. Statement 3 is incorrect as he opposed taxing religious pilgrimages, advocating for religious tolerance. Pen Name: Wrote under the pen name ‘Makarand’, focusing on nationalist issues. The pen name ‘Mahamana’ was bestowed by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership and reformist zeal. Major Reforms and Advocacy: Abolition of Indentured Labor:Advocated for ending the exploitative system of Indian labourers in colonies. Free and Compulsory Education:Pushed for primary education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council (1909–1920). Religious Tolerance:Championed secularism and opposed the imposition of taxes on religious pilgrimages. Literature and Media: Founded newspapers such as The Leader, Abhyudaya, and Maryada. Chaired the Hindustan Times board (1924–1946), promoting nationalist journalism. Educational Contributions:Established Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916 and served as Vice-Chancellor (1919–1938). Organizations Associated With: Co-founder of Hindu Mahasabha (1906). Played a role in founding Scout and Guide in India.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya’s social and political advocacy:

• He advocated for the abolition of indentured labour in the colonies.

• He opposed free and compulsory education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council.

• He supported imposing taxes on religious pilgrimages to raise government revenue.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct as Malaviya was a staunch advocate for abolishing indentured labor, highlighting its exploitative nature. Statement 2 is incorrect because he supported free and compulsory education reforms. Statement 3 is incorrect as he opposed taxing religious pilgrimages, advocating for religious tolerance.

• Wrote under the pen name ‘Makarand’, focusing on nationalist issues.

• The pen name ‘Mahamana’ was bestowed by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership and reformist zeal.

Major Reforms and Advocacy:

• Abolition of Indentured Labor:Advocated for ending the exploitative system of Indian labourers in colonies.

• Free and Compulsory Education:Pushed for primary education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council (1909–1920).

• Religious Tolerance:Championed secularism and opposed the imposition of taxes on religious pilgrimages.

Literature and Media:

• Founded newspapers such as The Leader, Abhyudaya, and Maryada.

• Chaired the Hindustan Times board (1924–1946), promoting nationalist journalism.

• Educational Contributions:Established Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916 and served as Vice-Chancellor (1919–1938).

Organizations Associated With:

• Co-founder of Hindu Mahasabha (1906).

• Played a role in founding Scout and Guide in India.

Solution: a)

• Wrote under the pen name ‘Makarand’, focusing on nationalist issues.

• The pen name ‘Mahamana’ was bestowed by Mahatma Gandhi for his leadership and reformist zeal.

Major Reforms and Advocacy:

• Abolition of Indentured Labor:Advocated for ending the exploitative system of Indian labourers in colonies.

• Free and Compulsory Education:Pushed for primary education reforms in the Imperial Legislative Council (1909–1920).

• Religious Tolerance:Championed secularism and opposed the imposition of taxes on religious pilgrimages.

Literature and Media:

• Founded newspapers such as The Leader, Abhyudaya, and Maryada.

• Chaired the Hindustan Times board (1924–1946), promoting nationalist journalism.

• Educational Contributions:Established Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916 and served as Vice-Chancellor (1919–1938).

Organizations Associated With:

• Co-founder of Hindu Mahasabha (1906).

• Played a role in founding Scout and Guide in India.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024. Statement-I: The Act applies to both national-level exams like NEET and state-level competitive exams. Statement-II: It empowers examination authorities to penalize service providers for paper leaks and technical failures. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024: Aim:To curb malpractice, ensure transparency, and uphold the integrity of public examinations in India. Exams Covered:Includes national-level entrance exams like NEET, JEE, UGC-NET, and state-level recruitment or competitive examinations. Penalties:Strict provisions for offenders, including imprisonment of up to 10 years and fines up to ₹10 lakh for cheating, impersonation, or paper leaks. Accountability: Empowers authorities to hold organizers and service providers accountable for lapses and enforces measures like biometric verification and CCTV monitoring. Incorrect Solution: b) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024: Aim:To curb malpractice, ensure transparency, and uphold the integrity of public examinations in India. Exams Covered:Includes national-level entrance exams like NEET, JEE, UGC-NET, and state-level recruitment or competitive examinations. Penalties:Strict provisions for offenders, including imprisonment of up to 10 years and fines up to ₹10 lakh for cheating, impersonation, or paper leaks. Accountability: Empowers authorities to hold organizers and service providers accountable for lapses and enforces measures like biometric verification and CCTV monitoring.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.

Statement-I: The Act applies to both national-level exams like NEET and state-level competitive exams. Statement-II: It empowers examination authorities to penalize service providers for paper leaks and technical failures.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024:

• Aim:To curb malpractice, ensure transparency, and uphold the integrity of public examinations in India.

• Exams Covered:Includes national-level entrance exams like NEET, JEE, UGC-NET, and state-level recruitment or competitive examinations.

• Penalties:Strict provisions for offenders, including imprisonment of up to 10 years and fines up to ₹10 lakh for cheating, impersonation, or paper leaks.

Accountability: Empowers authorities to hold organizers and service providers accountable for lapses and enforces measures like biometric verification and CCTV monitoring.

Solution: b)

Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024:

• Aim:To curb malpractice, ensure transparency, and uphold the integrity of public examinations in India.

• Exams Covered:Includes national-level entrance exams like NEET, JEE, UGC-NET, and state-level recruitment or competitive examinations.

• Penalties:Strict provisions for offenders, including imprisonment of up to 10 years and fines up to ₹10 lakh for cheating, impersonation, or paper leaks.

Accountability: Empowers authorities to hold organizers and service providers accountable for lapses and enforces measures like biometric verification and CCTV monitoring.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Code (UCC): UCC aims to replace personal laws of all religions with a uniform set of civil laws. Article 44 guarantees the implementation of UCC as a Fundamental Right. UCC aims to promote national integration and social harmony by reducing religious disparities. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as UCC seeks to replace religion-specific personal laws with a uniform civil framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 44 is a Directive Principle, not a Fundamental Right. Statement 3 is correct as UCC promotes national integration by fostering legal uniformity and reducing religious divides. What is UCC? The Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on customs and religious scriptures with a unified legal framework applicable to all citizens, regardless of religion. It seeks to address areas such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption under a common legal structure, promoting equality and secularism. Key Features of UCC: Uniformity in Laws:Establishes a common set of laws governing civil matters across all religions. Gender Equality:Removes discriminatory practices in personal laws, especially concerning women’s rights. Secular Legal System:Delinks civil law from religion, ensuring laws are religion-neutral. National Integration:Promotes social harmony by creating a common legal identity. Simplification of Legal Processes:Streamlines legal complexities arising from diverse personal laws. Legal Framework and Articles Governing UCC: Article 44:Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens. Article 14:Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 25:Protects religious freedom, raising questions about balancing religious practices with legal uniformity. Entry 5 of the Concurrent Listin the Seventh Schedule, which specifically addresses various aspects including marriage, divorce, adoption, and succession, among others, allowing for legislation concerning personal laws. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as UCC seeks to replace religion-specific personal laws with a uniform civil framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 44 is a Directive Principle, not a Fundamental Right. Statement 3 is correct as UCC promotes national integration by fostering legal uniformity and reducing religious divides. What is UCC? The Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on customs and religious scriptures with a unified legal framework applicable to all citizens, regardless of religion. It seeks to address areas such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption under a common legal structure, promoting equality and secularism. Key Features of UCC: Uniformity in Laws:Establishes a common set of laws governing civil matters across all religions. Gender Equality:Removes discriminatory practices in personal laws, especially concerning women’s rights. Secular Legal System:Delinks civil law from religion, ensuring laws are religion-neutral. National Integration:Promotes social harmony by creating a common legal identity. Simplification of Legal Processes:Streamlines legal complexities arising from diverse personal laws. Legal Framework and Articles Governing UCC: Article 44:Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens. Article 14:Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Article 25:Protects religious freedom, raising questions about balancing religious practices with legal uniformity. Entry 5 of the Concurrent Listin the Seventh Schedule, which specifically addresses various aspects including marriage, divorce, adoption, and succession, among others, allowing for legislation concerning personal laws.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Uniform Civil Code (UCC):

• UCC aims to replace personal laws of all religions with a uniform set of civil laws.

• Article 44 guarantees the implementation of UCC as a Fundamental Right.

• UCC aims to promote national integration and social harmony by reducing religious disparities.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as UCC seeks to replace religion-specific personal laws with a uniform civil framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 44 is a Directive Principle, not a Fundamental Right. Statement 3 is correct as UCC promotes national integration by fostering legal uniformity and reducing religious divides.

What is UCC?

• The Uniform Civil Code aims to replace personal laws based on customs and religious scriptures with a unified legal framework applicable to all citizens, regardless of religion. It seeks to address areas such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption under a common legal structure, promoting equality and secularism.

Key Features of UCC:

• Uniformity in Laws:Establishes a common set of laws governing civil matters across all religions.

• Gender Equality:Removes discriminatory practices in personal laws, especially concerning women’s rights.

• Secular Legal System:Delinks civil law from religion, ensuring laws are religion-neutral.

• National Integration:Promotes social harmony by creating a common legal identity.

• Simplification of Legal Processes:Streamlines legal complexities arising from diverse personal laws.

Legal Framework and Articles Governing UCC:

• Article 44:Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens.

• Article 14:Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

• Article 25:Protects religious freedom, raising questions about balancing religious practices with legal uniformity.

• Entry 5 of the Concurrent Listin the Seventh Schedule, which specifically addresses various aspects including marriage, divorce, adoption, and succession, among others, allowing for legislation concerning personal laws.

Solution: b)

What is UCC?

Key Features of UCC:

• Uniformity in Laws:Establishes a common set of laws governing civil matters across all religions.

• Gender Equality:Removes discriminatory practices in personal laws, especially concerning women’s rights.

• Secular Legal System:Delinks civil law from religion, ensuring laws are religion-neutral.

• National Integration:Promotes social harmony by creating a common legal identity.

• Simplification of Legal Processes:Streamlines legal complexities arising from diverse personal laws.

Legal Framework and Articles Governing UCC:

• Article 44:Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens.

• Article 14:Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.

• Article 25:Protects religious freedom, raising questions about balancing religious practices with legal uniformity.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following factors directly influence Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) calculations? Trade weights of trading partners Nominal bilateral exchange rates Inflation differentials between countries Capital flows Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 b) 1, 3, and 4 only c) 2, 3, and 4 only d) 1, 2, and 3 only Correct Solution: d) REER is calculated using trade weights, nominal bilateral exchange rates, and inflation differentials. Capital flows, while important for currency value, do not directly influence REER. REER provides a more accurate picture of a country’s trade competitiveness compared to nominal exchange rates. Incorrect Solution: d) REER is calculated using trade weights, nominal bilateral exchange rates, and inflation differentials. Capital flows, while important for currency value, do not directly influence REER. REER provides a more accurate picture of a country’s trade competitiveness compared to nominal exchange rates.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following factors directly influence Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) calculations?

• Trade weights of trading partners

• Nominal bilateral exchange rates

• Inflation differentials between countries

• Capital flows

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• a) 1, 2, 3, and 4

• b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• c) 2, 3, and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Solution: d)

REER is calculated using trade weights, nominal bilateral exchange rates, and inflation differentials. Capital flows, while important for currency value, do not directly influence REER. REER provides a more accurate picture of a country’s trade competitiveness compared to nominal exchange rates.

Solution: d)

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