UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 27 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Tropical cyclones like Typhoon Kajiki derive their energy primarily from the latent heat released during the condensation of moist air. Statement II: Unlike tropical cyclones, extra-tropical or synoptic cyclones are powered by the temperature contrast between different air masses along weather fronts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. Tropical cyclones are essentially massive heat engines. They form over warm ocean waters. The warm, moist air rises, and as it cools, the water vapor condenses into clouds and rain, releasing enormous amounts of latent heat of condensation. This heat warms the surrounding air, causing it to rise further, which in turn leads to lower pressure at the surface and strengthens the storm. Statement-II is also correct. Extra-tropical cyclones, also known as mid-latitude or synoptic cyclones, form in regions outside the tropics. Their primary energy source is baroclinic instability, which arises from the horizontal temperature gradient or contrast between cold and warm air masses that meet along fronts (like a cold front or a warm front). While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective cyclone types, Statement-II describes a different weather system and does not explain the mechanism mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. Tropical cyclones are essentially massive heat engines. They form over warm ocean waters. The warm, moist air rises, and as it cools, the water vapor condenses into clouds and rain, releasing enormous amounts of latent heat of condensation. This heat warms the surrounding air, causing it to rise further, which in turn leads to lower pressure at the surface and strengthens the storm. Statement-II is also correct. Extra-tropical cyclones, also known as mid-latitude or synoptic cyclones, form in regions outside the tropics. Their primary energy source is baroclinic instability, which arises from the horizontal temperature gradient or contrast between cold and warm air masses that meet along fronts (like a cold front or a warm front). While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective cyclone types, Statement-II describes a different weather system and does not explain the mechanism mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Tropical cyclones like Typhoon Kajiki derive their energy primarily from the latent heat released during the condensation of moist air.

Statement II: Unlike tropical cyclones, extra-tropical or synoptic cyclones are powered by the temperature contrast between different air masses along weather fronts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. Tropical cyclones are essentially massive heat engines. They form over warm ocean waters. The warm, moist air rises, and as it cools, the water vapor condenses into clouds and rain, releasing enormous amounts of latent heat of condensation. This heat warms the surrounding air, causing it to rise further, which in turn leads to lower pressure at the surface and strengthens the storm.

• Statement-II is also correct. Extra-tropical cyclones, also known as mid-latitude or synoptic cyclones, form in regions outside the tropics. Their primary energy source is baroclinic instability, which arises from the horizontal temperature gradient or contrast between cold and warm air masses that meet along fronts (like a cold front or a warm front).

• While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective cyclone types, Statement-II describes a different weather system and does not explain the mechanism mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: B

• While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective cyclone types, Statement-II describes a different weather system and does not explain the mechanism mentioned in Statement-I.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most crucial and immediate objective behind the Government of India launching the “Veterinary Blood Transfusion Guidelines 2025”? (a) To promote the export of veterinary blood products to neighbouring countries. (b) To establish a commercial market for animal blood and its components. (c) To mandate blood transfusion for all domesticated animals as a preventive healthcare measure. (d) To standardise protocols for animal blood donation and transfusion to ensure safety and animal welfare. Correct Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect. The guidelines are focused on addressing a domestic gap in animal healthcare. There is no mention of exporting blood products; the primary goal is self-sufficiency and safety within India. Option (b) is incorrect. While a regulated system might have economic aspects, the core principle is voluntary donation and a “Donor Rights Charter,” which counters the idea of a purely commercial market. The main objective is healthcare, not commerce. Option (c) is incorrect. Blood transfusions are a therapeutic, not a preventive, measure. They are required for specific conditions like trauma, anaemia, or surgical blood loss, not as a routine procedure for all animals. Mandating it would be medically unnecessary and impractical. Option (d) is correct. Until now, transfusions were done in emergencies without standardised protocols. The new guidelines aim to create a national framework for scientific protocols covering donation, storage, blood typing, cross-matching, and transfusion to ensure the safety, biosafety, and welfare of animals. This is the central and most pressing need the policy addresses. Incorrect Solution: D Option (a) is incorrect. The guidelines are focused on addressing a domestic gap in animal healthcare. There is no mention of exporting blood products; the primary goal is self-sufficiency and safety within India. Option (b) is incorrect. While a regulated system might have economic aspects, the core principle is voluntary donation and a “Donor Rights Charter,” which counters the idea of a purely commercial market. The main objective is healthcare, not commerce. Option (c) is incorrect. Blood transfusions are a therapeutic, not a preventive, measure. They are required for specific conditions like trauma, anaemia, or surgical blood loss, not as a routine procedure for all animals. Mandating it would be medically unnecessary and impractical. Option (d) is correct. Until now, transfusions were done in emergencies without standardised protocols. The new guidelines aim to create a national framework for scientific protocols covering donation, storage, blood typing, cross-matching, and transfusion to ensure the safety, biosafety, and welfare of animals. This is the central and most pressing need the policy addresses.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following is the most crucial and immediate objective behind the Government of India launching the “Veterinary Blood Transfusion Guidelines 2025”?

• (a) To promote the export of veterinary blood products to neighbouring countries.

• (b) To establish a commercial market for animal blood and its components.

• (c) To mandate blood transfusion for all domesticated animals as a preventive healthcare measure.

• (d) To standardise protocols for animal blood donation and transfusion to ensure safety and animal welfare.

Solution: D

• Option (a) is incorrect. The guidelines are focused on addressing a domestic gap in animal healthcare. There is no mention of exporting blood products; the primary goal is self-sufficiency and safety within India.

• Option (b) is incorrect. While a regulated system might have economic aspects, the core principle is voluntary donation and a “Donor Rights Charter,” which counters the idea of a purely commercial market. The main objective is healthcare, not commerce.

• Option (c) is incorrect. Blood transfusions are a therapeutic, not a preventive, measure. They are required for specific conditions like trauma, anaemia, or surgical blood loss, not as a routine procedure for all animals. Mandating it would be medically unnecessary and impractical.

• Option (d) is correct. Until now, transfusions were done in emergencies without standardised protocols. The new guidelines aim to create a national framework for scientific protocols covering donation, storage, blood typing, cross-matching, and transfusion to ensure the safety, biosafety, and welfare of animals. This is the central and most pressing need the policy addresses.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, consider the following statements: He earned the title ‘Sardar’ from the women of Bardoli during the Kheda Satyagraha. He presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, which endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. He was the chief architect behind the creation of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) from the erstwhile Indian Civil Service (ICS). His birthday is celebrated as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While he was a key leader in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), he earned the title ‘Sardar’ for his exceptional leadership during the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928). Although Mahatma Gandhi also played a role, it was the women of Bardoli who first addressed him as ‘Sardar’. Statement 2 is correct. Sardar Patel was the President of the Indian National Congress during its Karachi session in 1931. This session was historically significant as it endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and passed resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Statement 3 is correct. As India’s first Home Minister, Sardar Patel was instrumental in establishing the All-India Services. He is often called the ‘Patron Saint’ of India’s civil services for convincing the Constituent Assembly to create the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) to provide a strong, unified administrative framework for the newly independent nation. Statement 4 is correct. In 2014, the Government of India declared his birth anniversary, October 31, as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) to honour his monumental contribution to the integration of India. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While he was a key leader in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), he earned the title ‘Sardar’ for his exceptional leadership during the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928). Although Mahatma Gandhi also played a role, it was the women of Bardoli who first addressed him as ‘Sardar’. Statement 2 is correct. Sardar Patel was the President of the Indian National Congress during its Karachi session in 1931. This session was historically significant as it endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and passed resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Statement 3 is correct. As India’s first Home Minister, Sardar Patel was instrumental in establishing the All-India Services. He is often called the ‘Patron Saint’ of India’s civil services for convincing the Constituent Assembly to create the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) to provide a strong, unified administrative framework for the newly independent nation. Statement 4 is correct. In 2014, the Government of India declared his birth anniversary, October 31, as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) to honour his monumental contribution to the integration of India.

#### 3. Question

With reference to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, consider the following statements:

• He earned the title ‘Sardar’ from the women of Bardoli during the Kheda Satyagraha.

• He presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, which endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

• He was the chief architect behind the creation of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) from the erstwhile Indian Civil Service (ICS).

• His birthday is celebrated as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While he was a key leader in the Kheda Satyagraha (1918), he earned the title ‘Sardar’ for his exceptional leadership during the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928). Although Mahatma Gandhi also played a role, it was the women of Bardoli who first addressed him as ‘Sardar’.

• Statement 2 is correct. Sardar Patel was the President of the Indian National Congress during its Karachi session in 1931. This session was historically significant as it endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and passed resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme.

• Statement 3 is correct. As India’s first Home Minister, Sardar Patel was instrumental in establishing the All-India Services. He is often called the ‘Patron Saint’ of India’s civil services for convincing the Constituent Assembly to create the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and the Indian Police Service (IPS) to provide a strong, unified administrative framework for the newly independent nation.

• Statement 4 is correct. In 2014, the Government of India declared his birth anniversary, October 31, as National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas) to honour his monumental contribution to the integration of India.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With respect to the geography of Oman, consider the following statements: It shares land borders with Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Iran. The country has a coastline on both the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman. The Rubʿ al-Khali, or the Empty Quarter, is a vast desert region that covers part of Oman’s interior. The Dhofar region in southern Oman experiences a unique monsoon climate, known as the Khareef. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Oman shares land borders with Yemen to the southwest, Saudi Arabia to the west, and the United Arab Emirates to the northwest. It does not share a land border with Iran. It shares a maritime border with Iran across the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is correct. Oman is strategically located on the southeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula. Its coastline stretches along the Arabian Sea in the south and east, and the Gulf of Oman in the northeast, which leads to the Persian Gulf. Statement 3 is correct. The central interior of Oman is a vast gravel desert plain, which forms a part of the Rubʿ al-Khali (the Empty Quarter), one of the largest sand deserts in the world, primarily located in Saudi Arabia but extending into Oman, Yemen, and the UAE. Statement 4 is correct. The southern region of Dhofar, with its capital Salalah, has a distinct climate from the rest of the country. It is directly influenced by the Indian Ocean monsoon from June to September, a phenomenon locally known as the Khareef, which brings drizzle and transforms the arid landscape into a lush green zone. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Oman shares land borders with Yemen to the southwest, Saudi Arabia to the west, and the United Arab Emirates to the northwest. It does not share a land border with Iran. It shares a maritime border with Iran across the Strait of Hormuz. Statement 2 is correct. Oman is strategically located on the southeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula. Its coastline stretches along the Arabian Sea in the south and east, and the Gulf of Oman in the northeast, which leads to the Persian Gulf. Statement 3 is correct. The central interior of Oman is a vast gravel desert plain, which forms a part of the Rubʿ al-Khali (the Empty Quarter), one of the largest sand deserts in the world, primarily located in Saudi Arabia but extending into Oman, Yemen, and the UAE. Statement 4 is correct. The southern region of Dhofar, with its capital Salalah, has a distinct climate from the rest of the country. It is directly influenced by the Indian Ocean monsoon from June to September, a phenomenon locally known as the Khareef, which brings drizzle and transforms the arid landscape into a lush green zone.

#### 4. Question

With respect to the geography of Oman, consider the following statements:

• It shares land borders with Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Iran.

• The country has a coastline on both the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman.

• The Rubʿ al-Khali, or the Empty Quarter, is a vast desert region that covers part of Oman’s interior.

• The Dhofar region in southern Oman experiences a unique monsoon climate, known as the Khareef.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Oman shares land borders with Yemen to the southwest, Saudi Arabia to the west, and the United Arab Emirates to the northwest. It does not share a land border with Iran. It shares a maritime border with Iran across the Strait of Hormuz.

• Statement 2 is correct. Oman is strategically located on the southeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula. Its coastline stretches along the Arabian Sea in the south and east, and the Gulf of Oman in the northeast, which leads to the Persian Gulf.

• Statement 3 is correct. The central interior of Oman is a vast gravel desert plain, which forms a part of the Rubʿ al-Khali (the Empty Quarter), one of the largest sand deserts in the world, primarily located in Saudi Arabia but extending into Oman, Yemen, and the UAE.

• Statement 4 is correct. The southern region of Dhofar, with its capital Salalah, has a distinct climate from the rest of the country. It is directly influenced by the Indian Ocean monsoon from June to September, a phenomenon locally known as the Khareef, which brings drizzle and transforms the arid landscape into a lush green zone.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclones: Statement I: The nomenclature of a revolving tropical storm as a ‘Hurricane’, ‘Typhoon’, or ‘Cyclone’ depends on its intensity and wind speed. Statement II: Tropical storms are named based on a pre-decided list maintained by the World Meteorological Organization’s regional bodies to facilitate clear communication and public warnings. Statement III: The eye of a mature tropical cyclone is a region of calm weather with light winds and often clear skies. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but neither of them explains Statement I (c) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct (d) Statement I is incorrect but both Statement II and Statement III are correct. Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The terms ‘Hurricane’, ‘Typhoon’, and ‘Cyclone’ refer to the same meteorological phenomenon—a tropical cyclone. The difference in name is based on geographical location, not intensity. Storms in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific are called ‘Hurricanes’; in the Northwest Pacific, they are ‘Typhoons’; and in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean, they are ‘Cyclones’. Statement II is correct. To avoid confusion, tropical storms are given names from lists that are curated and maintained by regional specialized meteorological centers (RSMCs) and tropical cyclone warning centers (TCWCs) under the purview of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). This systematic naming helps in disaster management and communication. Statement III is correct. The ‘eye’ is a characteristic feature at the center of a strong, mature tropical cyclone. It is a region of sinking air, resulting in calm conditions, light winds, and often a lack of clouds or rain, starkly contrasting with the violent eyewall surrounding it. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The terms ‘Hurricane’, ‘Typhoon’, and ‘Cyclone’ refer to the same meteorological phenomenon—a tropical cyclone. The difference in name is based on geographical location, not intensity. Storms in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific are called ‘Hurricanes’; in the Northwest Pacific, they are ‘Typhoons’; and in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean, they are ‘Cyclones’. Statement II is correct. To avoid confusion, tropical storms are given names from lists that are curated and maintained by regional specialized meteorological centers (RSMCs) and tropical cyclone warning centers (TCWCs) under the purview of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). This systematic naming helps in disaster management and communication. Statement III is correct. The ‘eye’ is a characteristic feature at the center of a strong, mature tropical cyclone. It is a region of sinking air, resulting in calm conditions, light winds, and often a lack of clouds or rain, starkly contrasting with the violent eyewall surrounding it.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding tropical cyclones:

Statement I: The nomenclature of a revolving tropical storm as a ‘Hurricane’, ‘Typhoon’, or ‘Cyclone’ depends on its intensity and wind speed.

Statement II: Tropical storms are named based on a pre-decided list maintained by the World Meteorological Organization’s regional bodies to facilitate clear communication and public warnings.

Statement III: The eye of a mature tropical cyclone is a region of calm weather with light winds and often clear skies.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but neither of them explains Statement I

• (c) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but both Statement II and Statement III are correct.

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. The terms ‘Hurricane’, ‘Typhoon’, and ‘Cyclone’ refer to the same meteorological phenomenon—a tropical cyclone. The difference in name is based on geographical location, not intensity. Storms in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific are called ‘Hurricanes’; in the Northwest Pacific, they are ‘Typhoons’; and in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean, they are ‘Cyclones’.

• Statement II is correct. To avoid confusion, tropical storms are given names from lists that are curated and maintained by regional specialized meteorological centers (RSMCs) and tropical cyclone warning centers (TCWCs) under the purview of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). This systematic naming helps in disaster management and communication.

• Statement III is correct. The ‘eye’ is a characteristic feature at the center of a strong, mature tropical cyclone. It is a region of sinking air, resulting in calm conditions, light winds, and often a lack of clouds or rain, starkly contrasting with the violent eyewall surrounding it.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Project 17A Nilgiri-class frigates: These are the first major Indian warships to be built using an integrated construction methodology. The propulsion system used is Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG), which allows for selection between diesel engines for cruising and gas turbines for high-speed transit. The primary long-range air defence for these ships is provided by the indigenously developed Akash missile system. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Project 17A is notable for its use of integrated construction methodology, where hull blocks are pre-outfitted with machinery, pipes, and wiring before being assembled. This technique reduces construction time and is a significant advancement in Indian shipbuilding. Statement 2 is correct. The frigates are equipped with a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion system. This arrangement provides flexibility and fuel efficiency: the diesel engines are used for normal cruising speeds, while the powerful gas turbines can be engaged for high-speed operations, such as in combat scenarios. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary long-range air defence is provided by the Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) system, also known as Barak-8. The Barak-8 is a joint development between India’s DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). The Akash missile system is a medium-range surface-to-air missile primarily used by the Indian Army and Air Force for land-based air defence. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Project 17A is notable for its use of integrated construction methodology, where hull blocks are pre-outfitted with machinery, pipes, and wiring before being assembled. This technique reduces construction time and is a significant advancement in Indian shipbuilding. Statement 2 is correct. The frigates are equipped with a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion system. This arrangement provides flexibility and fuel efficiency: the diesel engines are used for normal cruising speeds, while the powerful gas turbines can be engaged for high-speed operations, such as in combat scenarios. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary long-range air defence is provided by the Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) system, also known as Barak-8. The Barak-8 is a joint development between India’s DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). The Akash missile system is a medium-range surface-to-air missile primarily used by the Indian Army and Air Force for land-based air defence.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Project 17A Nilgiri-class frigates:

• These are the first major Indian warships to be built using an integrated construction methodology.

• The propulsion system used is Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG), which allows for selection between diesel engines for cruising and gas turbines for high-speed transit.

• The primary long-range air defence for these ships is provided by the indigenously developed Akash missile system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Project 17A is notable for its use of integrated construction methodology, where hull blocks are pre-outfitted with machinery, pipes, and wiring before being assembled. This technique reduces construction time and is a significant advancement in Indian shipbuilding.

• Statement 2 is correct. The frigates are equipped with a Combined Diesel or Gas (CODOG) propulsion system. This arrangement provides flexibility and fuel efficiency: the diesel engines are used for normal cruising speeds, while the powerful gas turbines can be engaged for high-speed operations, such as in combat scenarios.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary long-range air defence is provided by the Long-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (LRSAM) system, also known as Barak-8. The Barak-8 is a joint development between India’s DRDO and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). The Akash missile system is a medium-range surface-to-air missile primarily used by the Indian Army and Air Force for land-based air defence.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Statement I: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is often called the ‘Iron Man of India’ for his determined and uncompromising approach to national integration. Statement II: He successfully persuaded and, where necessary, compelled the rulers of over 500 princely states to accede to the newly independent Indian Union. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The sobriquet ‘Iron Man of India’ is popularly used to describe Sardar Patel. This title reflects his strong will, decisiveness, and unwavering resolve, particularly in matters of national unity and security. Statement-II is also correct. As India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, Sardar Patel was tasked with the monumental challenge of integrating the 562 princely states. He used a combination of diplomacy (‘privy purses’), political persuasion, and decisive action (like the police action in Hyderabad) to achieve their accession to India, a feat critical for the country’s territorial integrity. Statement-II provides the primary historical justification for the title mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The sobriquet ‘Iron Man of India’ is popularly used to describe Sardar Patel. This title reflects his strong will, decisiveness, and unwavering resolve, particularly in matters of national unity and security. Statement-II is also correct. As India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, Sardar Patel was tasked with the monumental challenge of integrating the 562 princely states. He used a combination of diplomacy (‘privy purses’), political persuasion, and decisive action (like the police action in Hyderabad) to achieve their accession to India, a feat critical for the country’s territorial integrity. Statement-II provides the primary historical justification for the title mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

Statement I: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is often called the ‘Iron Man of India’ for his determined and uncompromising approach to national integration.

Statement II: He successfully persuaded and, where necessary, compelled the rulers of over 500 princely states to accede to the newly independent Indian Union.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The sobriquet ‘Iron Man of India’ is popularly used to describe Sardar Patel. This title reflects his strong will, decisiveness, and unwavering resolve, particularly in matters of national unity and security.

• Statement-II is also correct. As India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister, Sardar Patel was tasked with the monumental challenge of integrating the 562 princely states. He used a combination of diplomacy (‘privy purses’), political persuasion, and decisive action (like the police action in Hyderabad) to achieve their accession to India, a feat critical for the country’s territorial integrity.

• Statement-II provides the primary historical justification for the title mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the primary historical justification for the title mentioned in Statement-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Veterinary Blood Transfusion Guidelines 2025, consider the following statements: The guidelines introduce a mandatory ‘Donor Rights Charter’ to protect the welfare of donor animals. One of the key features is the integration of the ‘One Health’ approach to mitigate risks of zoonotic diseases. The framework mandates the establishment of at least one state-regulated veterinary blood bank in every district of India by 2025. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The guidelines encourage voluntary donation and include a ‘Donor Rights Charter’. This is a significant step towards ensuring the ethical treatment and welfare of animals that are part of the donation program, preventing their exploitation. Statement 2 is correct. The integration of the ‘One Health’ concept is explicitly mentioned as a feature. This approach recognizes the link between animal health, human health, and the environment. By implementing rigorous screening and biosafety protocols for blood transfusion, the guidelines aim to manage and prevent the transmission of zoonotic diseases (diseases that can spread from animals to humans). Statement 3 is incorrect. While the guidelines call for the establishment of state-regulated veterinary blood banks, there is no mention of a mandate for setting one up in every district by a specific deadline of 2025. Such a target would be overly ambitious and is not stated in the policy’s features. The focus is on creating a regulatory framework for such banks to be established. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The guidelines encourage voluntary donation and include a ‘Donor Rights Charter’. This is a significant step towards ensuring the ethical treatment and welfare of animals that are part of the donation program, preventing their exploitation. Statement 2 is correct. The integration of the ‘One Health’ concept is explicitly mentioned as a feature. This approach recognizes the link between animal health, human health, and the environment. By implementing rigorous screening and biosafety protocols for blood transfusion, the guidelines aim to manage and prevent the transmission of zoonotic diseases (diseases that can spread from animals to humans). Statement 3 is incorrect. While the guidelines call for the establishment of state-regulated veterinary blood banks, there is no mention of a mandate for setting one up in every district by a specific deadline of 2025. Such a target would be overly ambitious and is not stated in the policy’s features. The focus is on creating a regulatory framework for such banks to be established.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Veterinary Blood Transfusion Guidelines 2025, consider the following statements:

• The guidelines introduce a mandatory ‘Donor Rights Charter’ to protect the welfare of donor animals.

• One of the key features is the integration of the ‘One Health’ approach to mitigate risks of zoonotic diseases.

• The framework mandates the establishment of at least one state-regulated veterinary blood bank in every district of India by 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The guidelines encourage voluntary donation and include a ‘Donor Rights Charter’. This is a significant step towards ensuring the ethical treatment and welfare of animals that are part of the donation program, preventing their exploitation.

• Statement 2 is correct. The integration of the ‘One Health’ concept is explicitly mentioned as a feature. This approach recognizes the link between animal health, human health, and the environment. By implementing rigorous screening and biosafety protocols for blood transfusion, the guidelines aim to manage and prevent the transmission of zoonotic diseases (diseases that can spread from animals to humans).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the guidelines call for the establishment of state-regulated veterinary blood banks, there is no mention of a mandate for setting one up in every district by a specific deadline of 2025. Such a target would be overly ambitious and is not stated in the policy’s features. The focus is on creating a regulatory framework for such banks to be established.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following military exercises and participants: Column A (Exercise) Column B (Core Hosts) Column C (Geographic Focus) 1. Super Garuda Shield A. Indonesia and USA X. Indo-Pacific Region 2. Malabar B. India and France Y. South China Sea 3. Varuna C. Quad Nations Z. Arabian Sea How many of the above combinations are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Combination 1 (Super Garuda Shield – Indonesia and USA – Indo-Pacific Region): This is correctly matched. The exercise is jointly hosted by the Indonesian National Armed Forces and the U.S. Indo-Pacific Command (1-A). Its explicit aim is to enhance regional security, interoperability, and deterrence amid rising tensions in the Indo-Pacific (A-X). Combination 2 (Malabar – India and France – South China Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Malabar is an exercise involving the Quad nations (India, USA, Japan, Australia), not India and France (so B is wrong). While it has been conducted in various locations including the South China Sea, its host and core participant description is incorrect. Combination 3 (Varuna – Quad Nations – Arabian Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France, not the Quad nations (so C is wrong). It is frequently held in the Arabian Sea (Z is plausible), but the core participants are wrongly listed. Incorrect Solution: A Combination 1 (Super Garuda Shield – Indonesia and USA – Indo-Pacific Region): This is correctly matched. The exercise is jointly hosted by the Indonesian National Armed Forces and the U.S. Indo-Pacific Command (1-A). Its explicit aim is to enhance regional security, interoperability, and deterrence amid rising tensions in the Indo-Pacific (A-X). Combination 2 (Malabar – India and France – South China Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Malabar is an exercise involving the Quad nations (India, USA, Japan, Australia), not India and France (so B is wrong). While it has been conducted in various locations including the South China Sea, its host and core participant description is incorrect. Combination 3 (Varuna – Quad Nations – Arabian Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France, not the Quad nations (so C is wrong). It is frequently held in the Arabian Sea (Z is plausible), but the core participants are wrongly listed.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following military exercises and participants:

Column A (Exercise) | Column B (Core Hosts) | Column C (Geographic Focus)

1.Super Garuda Shield | A. Indonesia and USA | X. Indo-Pacific Region
2.Malabar | B. India and France | Y. South China Sea
3.Varuna | C. Quad Nations | Z. Arabian Sea

How many of the above combinations are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Combination 1 (Super Garuda Shield – Indonesia and USA – Indo-Pacific Region): This is correctly matched. The exercise is jointly hosted by the Indonesian National Armed Forces and the U.S. Indo-Pacific Command (1-A). Its explicit aim is to enhance regional security, interoperability, and deterrence amid rising tensions in the Indo-Pacific (A-X).

• Combination 2 (Malabar – India and France – South China Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Malabar is an exercise involving the Quad nations (India, USA, Japan, Australia), not India and France (so B is wrong). While it has been conducted in various locations including the South China Sea, its host and core participant description is incorrect.

• Combination 3 (Varuna – Quad Nations – Arabian Sea): This is incorrectly matched. Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France, not the Quad nations (so C is wrong). It is frequently held in the Arabian Sea (Z is plausible), but the core participants are wrongly listed.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: India’s fossil heritage is vulnerable partly because trade in such items is not regulated under any domestic law. Statement II: Fossils are not covered under the definition of “antiquity” in the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972. Statement III: The lack of a national repository system leads to the degradation or illegal export of significant fossil discoveries. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is the main assertion. It states that the vulnerability is due to a lack of legal regulation. Statement II provides a specific legal reason for this vulnerability. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which is India’s primary law to prevent smuggling of cultural heritage, defines “antiquity” as items that have been in existence for not less than one hundred years. This definition does not explicitly include natural heritage objects like fossils, creating a significant legal loophole. Thus, Statement II is correct and directly explains a major part of the legal vacuum mentioned in Statement I. Statement III provides an administrative or infrastructural reason for the vulnerability. The absence of a national system of secure repositories or museums dedicated to fossils means that specimens, once discovered, are often improperly stored, left unprotected at excavation sites, or fall into the hands of private collectors and smugglers. This infrastructural gap also directly contributes to the vulnerability mentioned in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is the main assertion. It states that the vulnerability is due to a lack of legal regulation. Statement II provides a specific legal reason for this vulnerability. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which is India’s primary law to prevent smuggling of cultural heritage, defines “antiquity” as items that have been in existence for not less than one hundred years. This definition does not explicitly include natural heritage objects like fossils, creating a significant legal loophole. Thus, Statement II is correct and directly explains a major part of the legal vacuum mentioned in Statement I. Statement III provides an administrative or infrastructural reason for the vulnerability. The absence of a national system of secure repositories or museums dedicated to fossils means that specimens, once discovered, are often improperly stored, left unprotected at excavation sites, or fall into the hands of private collectors and smugglers. This infrastructural gap also directly contributes to the vulnerability mentioned in Statement I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India’s fossil heritage is vulnerable partly because trade in such items is not regulated under any domestic law.

Statement II: Fossils are not covered under the definition of “antiquity” in the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972.

Statement III: The lack of a national repository system leads to the degradation or illegal export of significant fossil discoveries.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is the main assertion. It states that the vulnerability is due to a lack of legal regulation.

• Statement II provides a specific legal reason for this vulnerability. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which is India’s primary law to prevent smuggling of cultural heritage, defines “antiquity” as items that have been in existence for not less than one hundred years. This definition does not explicitly include natural heritage objects like fossils, creating a significant legal loophole. Thus, Statement II is correct and directly explains a major part of the legal vacuum mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement III provides an administrative or infrastructural reason for the vulnerability. The absence of a national system of secure repositories or museums dedicated to fossils means that specimens, once discovered, are often improperly stored, left unprotected at excavation sites, or fall into the hands of private collectors and smugglers. This infrastructural gap also directly contributes to the vulnerability mentioned in Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement I is the main assertion. It states that the vulnerability is due to a lack of legal regulation.

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