UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 September 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with respect to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956: Statement I: The Act applies to members of Scheduled Tribes in all states of India without any exception. Statement II: The Act was enacted to bring uniformity in property succession laws and to address gender-based discrimination in inheritance. Statement III: The 2005 amendment to the Act granted daughters coparcenary rights by birth, equivalent to those of sons. Which of the statements given above is correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: B Statement I is incorrect. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not automatically apply to members of Scheduled Tribes. The Act specifies that it shall not apply to Scheduled Tribes unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs. Statement II is correct. One of the primary objectives of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, was to amend and codify the law relating to intestate succession among Hindus and to create a uniform system of inheritance. A key aim was also to remove gender-based discrimination that was prevalent in traditional inheritance laws. Statement III is correct. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, was a landmark reform that amended Section 6 of the Act to make daughters coparceners in a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) by birth, giving them the same rights and liabilities in the coparcenary property as sons. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is incorrect. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not automatically apply to members of Scheduled Tribes. The Act specifies that it shall not apply to Scheduled Tribes unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs. Statement II is correct. One of the primary objectives of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, was to amend and codify the law relating to intestate succession among Hindus and to create a uniform system of inheritance. A key aim was also to remove gender-based discrimination that was prevalent in traditional inheritance laws. Statement III is correct. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, was a landmark reform that amended Section 6 of the Act to make daughters coparceners in a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) by birth, giving them the same rights and liabilities in the coparcenary property as sons.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements with respect to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:

Statement I: The Act applies to members of Scheduled Tribes in all states of India without any exception.

Statement II: The Act was enacted to bring uniformity in property succession laws and to address gender-based discrimination in inheritance.

Statement III: The 2005 amendment to the Act granted daughters coparcenary rights by birth, equivalent to those of sons.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: B

• Statement I is incorrect. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not automatically apply to members of Scheduled Tribes. The Act specifies that it shall not apply to Scheduled Tribes unless the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette, otherwise directs.

• Statement II is correct. One of the primary objectives of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, was to amend and codify the law relating to intestate succession among Hindus and to create a uniform system of inheritance. A key aim was also to remove gender-based discrimination that was prevalent in traditional inheritance laws.

• Statement III is correct. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, was a landmark reform that amended Section 6 of the Act to make daughters coparceners in a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) by birth, giving them the same rights and liabilities in the coparcenary property as sons.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Agni-Prime missile: Statement-I: Agni-Prime is a single-stage, liquid-fueled missile. Statement-II: The missile is canisterised and can be launched from a rail-based mobile platform. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. Agni-Prime is a two-stage, solid-fueled missile. The use of solid fuel is a significant feature as it allows for quicker deployment and reduces the time required for launch preparation compared to liquid-fueled missiles. Statement-II is correct. One of the key advancements of the Agni-Prime missile is its canisterised design and the ability to be launched from both road and rail-based mobile launchers. This enhances its mobility, stealth, and survivability, as the launch locations are less predictable, making it a more potent strategic deterrent. The rail-based launch capability is a recent development that further diversifies India’s launch platforms. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect. Agni-Prime is a two-stage, solid-fueled missile. The use of solid fuel is a significant feature as it allows for quicker deployment and reduces the time required for launch preparation compared to liquid-fueled missiles. Statement-II is correct. One of the key advancements of the Agni-Prime missile is its canisterised design and the ability to be launched from both road and rail-based mobile launchers. This enhances its mobility, stealth, and survivability, as the launch locations are less predictable, making it a more potent strategic deterrent. The rail-based launch capability is a recent development that further diversifies India’s launch platforms.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Agni-Prime missile:

Statement-I: Agni-Prime is a single-stage, liquid-fueled missile.

Statement-II: The missile is canisterised and can be launched from a rail-based mobile platform.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement-I is incorrect. Agni-Prime is a two-stage, solid-fueled missile. The use of solid fuel is a significant feature as it allows for quicker deployment and reduces the time required for launch preparation compared to liquid-fueled missiles.

• Statement-II is correct. One of the key advancements of the Agni-Prime missile is its canisterised design and the ability to be launched from both road and rail-based mobile launchers. This enhances its mobility, stealth, and survivability, as the launch locations are less predictable, making it a more potent strategic deterrent. The rail-based launch capability is a recent development that further diversifies India’s launch platforms.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Award: It is an annual award for young entrepreneurs under the age of 35. The award provides seed funding, mentorship, and training to the winners. The 2025 winners are from the fields of sustainable fashion, waste management, and water conservation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Award is for young entrepreneurs under the age of 30, not 35. This eligibility criterion is a key feature of the award, which aims to empower the next generation of environmental leaders. Statement 2 is correct. The award is more than just a financial prize. Winners receive seed funding (USD 20,000), intensive training, tailored mentorship from experts, and global recognition. This comprehensive support system is designed to help them scale up their innovative environmental solutions. Statement 3 is correct. The 2025 winners exemplify innovative solutions to the triple planetary crisis. Jinali Mody (India) works in sustainable fashion with banana-based leather, Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya) in waste management by converting water hyacinth into packaging, and Noemi Florea (US) in water conservation with a greywater reuse system. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Award is for young entrepreneurs under the age of 30, not 35. This eligibility criterion is a key feature of the award, which aims to empower the next generation of environmental leaders. Statement 2 is correct. The award is more than just a financial prize. Winners receive seed funding (USD 20,000), intensive training, tailored mentorship from experts, and global recognition. This comprehensive support system is designed to help them scale up their innovative environmental solutions. Statement 3 is correct. The 2025 winners exemplify innovative solutions to the triple planetary crisis. Jinali Mody (India) works in sustainable fashion with banana-based leather, Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya) in waste management by converting water hyacinth into packaging, and Noemi Florea (US) in water conservation with a greywater reuse system.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Award:

• It is an annual award for young entrepreneurs under the age of 35.

• The award provides seed funding, mentorship, and training to the winners.

• The 2025 winners are from the fields of sustainable fashion, waste management, and water conservation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The UNEP Young Champions of the Earth Award is for young entrepreneurs under the age of 30, not 35. This eligibility criterion is a key feature of the award, which aims to empower the next generation of environmental leaders.

• Statement 2 is correct. The award is more than just a financial prize. Winners receive seed funding (USD 20,000), intensive training, tailored mentorship from experts, and global recognition. This comprehensive support system is designed to help them scale up their innovative environmental solutions.

• Statement 3 is correct. The 2025 winners exemplify innovative solutions to the triple planetary crisis. Jinali Mody (India) works in sustainable fashion with banana-based leather, Joseph Nguthiru (Kenya) in waste management by converting water hyacinth into packaging, and Noemi Florea (US) in water conservation with a greywater reuse system.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the Special and Differential Treatment (S&DT) provisions at the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements: A country’s status as a “developing country” is determined by the WTO based on its per capita income. S&DT provisions allow developing countries shorter implementation periods for WTO agreements. The “Enabling Clause” under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was a precursor to the S&DT provisions. Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are a self-declared category under the WTO framework. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The WTO does not have a formal definition of “developed” or “developing” countries. Members self-declare their status. This self-selection principle is a cornerstone of the WTO system, although it can be challenged by other members. Statement 2 is incorrect. S&DT provisions grant developing countries longer, not shorter, implementation periods for WTO agreements and commitments. This flexibility is intended to give them sufficient time to build the necessary capacity and adjust their domestic economies. Statement 3 is correct. The “Enabling Clause” (Decision on Differential and More Favourable Treatment, Reciprocity and Fuller Participation of Developing Countries), adopted under GATT in 1979, was a key step in recognizing the special development needs of poorer nations. It provided the legal basis for preferential treatment and is considered a precursor to the more comprehensive S&DT provisions consolidated in the WTO agreements. Statement 4 is incorrect. The status of Least Developed Countries (LDCs) is not self-declared. The WTO recognizes the United Nations’ definition of LDCs, which is based on criteria such as GNI per capita, human assets, and economic vulnerability. LDCs automatically receive extra flexibilities under the WTO framework. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The WTO does not have a formal definition of “developed” or “developing” countries. Members self-declare their status. This self-selection principle is a cornerstone of the WTO system, although it can be challenged by other members. Statement 2 is incorrect. S&DT provisions grant developing countries longer, not shorter, implementation periods for WTO agreements and commitments. This flexibility is intended to give them sufficient time to build the necessary capacity and adjust their domestic economies. Statement 3 is correct. The “Enabling Clause” (Decision on Differential and More Favourable Treatment, Reciprocity and Fuller Participation of Developing Countries), adopted under GATT in 1979, was a key step in recognizing the special development needs of poorer nations. It provided the legal basis for preferential treatment and is considered a precursor to the more comprehensive S&DT provisions consolidated in the WTO agreements. Statement 4 is incorrect. The status of Least Developed Countries (LDCs) is not self-declared. The WTO recognizes the United Nations’ definition of LDCs, which is based on criteria such as GNI per capita, human assets, and economic vulnerability. LDCs automatically receive extra flexibilities under the WTO framework.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Special and Differential Treatment (S&DT) provisions at the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements:

• A country’s status as a “developing country” is determined by the WTO based on its per capita income.

• S&DT provisions allow developing countries shorter implementation periods for WTO agreements.

• The “Enabling Clause” under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was a precursor to the S&DT provisions.

• Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are a self-declared category under the WTO framework.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The WTO does not have a formal definition of “developed” or “developing” countries. Members self-declare their status. This self-selection principle is a cornerstone of the WTO system, although it can be challenged by other members.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. S&DT provisions grant developing countries longer, not shorter, implementation periods for WTO agreements and commitments. This flexibility is intended to give them sufficient time to build the necessary capacity and adjust their domestic economies.

• Statement 3 is correct. The “Enabling Clause” (Decision on Differential and More Favourable Treatment, Reciprocity and Fuller Participation of Developing Countries), adopted under GATT in 1979, was a key step in recognizing the special development needs of poorer nations. It provided the legal basis for preferential treatment and is considered a precursor to the more comprehensive S&DT provisions consolidated in the WTO agreements.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The status of Least Developed Countries (LDCs) is not self-declared. The WTO recognizes the United Nations’ definition of LDCs, which is based on criteria such as GNI per capita, human assets, and economic vulnerability. LDCs automatically receive extra flexibilities under the WTO framework.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Sahyog portal: Statement I: The Sahyog portal is an online platform for issuing content takedown notices under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000. Statement II: The portal is operated by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Union Home Ministry. Statement III: Non-compliance with a notice issued through the Sahyog portal leads to the loss of safe harbour immunity for internet intermediaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) II only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: C Statement I is incorrect. The Sahyog portal operates under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, not Section 69A. This is a crucial distinction. Section 79 deals with the liability of intermediaries and the conditions for their “safe harbour” protection, while Section 69A grants the government the power to block public access to information on specific grounds like national security. Statement II is correct. The Sahyog portal was launched by the Union Home Ministry and is operated through the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). It serves as a centralized and streamlined channel for communication between government agencies and internet intermediaries. Statement III is correct. The legal backing for the Sahyog portal comes from Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, which states that an intermediary loses its safe harbour immunity if it fails to expeditiously remove or disable access to unlawful content upon receiving actual knowledge from a government agency. The portal is the mechanism for conveying this “actual knowledge”. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is incorrect. The Sahyog portal operates under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, not Section 69A. This is a crucial distinction. Section 79 deals with the liability of intermediaries and the conditions for their “safe harbour” protection, while Section 69A grants the government the power to block public access to information on specific grounds like national security. Statement II is correct. The Sahyog portal was launched by the Union Home Ministry and is operated through the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). It serves as a centralized and streamlined channel for communication between government agencies and internet intermediaries. Statement III is correct. The legal backing for the Sahyog portal comes from Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, which states that an intermediary loses its safe harbour immunity if it fails to expeditiously remove or disable access to unlawful content upon receiving actual knowledge from a government agency. The portal is the mechanism for conveying this “actual knowledge”.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sahyog portal:

Statement I: The Sahyog portal is an online platform for issuing content takedown notices under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000.

Statement II: The portal is operated by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Union Home Ministry.

Statement III: Non-compliance with a notice issued through the Sahyog portal leads to the loss of safe harbour immunity for internet intermediaries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) II only

• (b) I and II only

• (c) II and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: C

• Statement I is incorrect. The Sahyog portal operates under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, not Section 69A. This is a crucial distinction. Section 79 deals with the liability of intermediaries and the conditions for their “safe harbour” protection, while Section 69A grants the government the power to block public access to information on specific grounds like national security.

• Statement II is correct. The Sahyog portal was launched by the Union Home Ministry and is operated through the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). It serves as a centralized and streamlined channel for communication between government agencies and internet intermediaries.

• Statement III is correct. The legal backing for the Sahyog portal comes from Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, which states that an intermediary loses its safe harbour immunity if it fails to expeditiously remove or disable access to unlawful content upon receiving actual knowledge from a government agency. The portal is the mechanism for conveying this “actual knowledge”.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mahendragiri Hills: They are a part of the Western Ghats. The hills are inhabited by the Saora and Kondh tribes. The Mahendragiri Hills have been declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. They are located in the Gajapati district of Odisha. Statement 2 is correct. The hills are home to indigenous communities, including the Saora (Saura) and Kondh tribes, who have a deep cultural and livelihood connection with the forest ecosystem of the region. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills were declared a Biodiversity Heritage Site in 2022, not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. While it possesses significant cultural and natural value, it does not currently hold the UNESCO designation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. They are located in the Gajapati district of Odisha. Statement 2 is correct. The hills are home to indigenous communities, including the Saora (Saura) and Kondh tribes, who have a deep cultural and livelihood connection with the forest ecosystem of the region. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills were declared a Biodiversity Heritage Site in 2022, not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. While it possesses significant cultural and natural value, it does not currently hold the UNESCO designation.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mahendragiri Hills:

• They are a part of the Western Ghats.

• The hills are inhabited by the Saora and Kondh tribes.

• The Mahendragiri Hills have been declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. They are located in the Gajapati district of Odisha.

• Statement 2 is correct. The hills are home to indigenous communities, including the Saora (Saura) and Kondh tribes, who have a deep cultural and livelihood connection with the forest ecosystem of the region.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills were declared a Biodiversity Heritage Site in 2022, not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. While it possesses significant cultural and natural value, it does not currently hold the UNESCO designation.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Mahendragiri Hills are a part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats. They are located in the Gajapati district of Odisha.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, consider the following statements: If a Hindu female dies intestate, her property, in the first instance, devolves upon her husband’s heirs. The Act gives preference to full-blood relations over half-blood relations in matters of succession. Any property owned by a female Hindu is considered her absolute property, with no limitations on her rights of disposal. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if a Hindu female dies intestate, her property devolves first upon her children (including the children of any pre-deceased son or daughter) and her husband. The husband’s heirs come into the picture only if there are no children or husband. Statement 2 is correct. Section 18 of the Act lays down the general principles of succession and states that heirs related to an intestate by full blood shall be preferred to heirs related by half blood, if the nature of the relationship is the same in every other respect. Statement 3 is correct. Section 14 of the Act was a revolutionary provision that converted the limited ownership of property held by a Hindu female into absolute ownership. This means she has full rights to enjoy, manage, and dispose of the property as she deems fit. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if a Hindu female dies intestate, her property devolves first upon her children (including the children of any pre-deceased son or daughter) and her husband. The husband’s heirs come into the picture only if there are no children or husband. Statement 2 is correct. Section 18 of the Act lays down the general principles of succession and states that heirs related to an intestate by full blood shall be preferred to heirs related by half blood, if the nature of the relationship is the same in every other respect. Statement 3 is correct. Section 14 of the Act was a revolutionary provision that converted the limited ownership of property held by a Hindu female into absolute ownership. This means she has full rights to enjoy, manage, and dispose of the property as she deems fit.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, consider the following statements:

• If a Hindu female dies intestate, her property, in the first instance, devolves upon her husband’s heirs.

• The Act gives preference to full-blood relations over half-blood relations in matters of succession.

• Any property owned by a female Hindu is considered her absolute property, with no limitations on her rights of disposal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Section 15 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if a Hindu female dies intestate, her property devolves first upon her children (including the children of any pre-deceased son or daughter) and her husband. The husband’s heirs come into the picture only if there are no children or husband.

• Statement 2 is correct. Section 18 of the Act lays down the general principles of succession and states that heirs related to an intestate by full blood shall be preferred to heirs related by half blood, if the nature of the relationship is the same in every other respect.

• Statement 3 is correct. Section 14 of the Act was a revolutionary provision that converted the limited ownership of property held by a Hindu female into absolute ownership. This means she has full rights to enjoy, manage, and dispose of the property as she deems fit.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes a key challenge in blending isobutanol with diesel? (a) Isobutanol's high volatility poses a significant fire risk. (b) The production process of isobutanol is more expensive than that of ethanol. (c) Isobutanol reduces the ignition quality of the diesel blend, potentially causing engine knock. (d) It is impossible to co-produce isobutanol and ethanol in the same facility. Correct Solution: C (c) is correct. A significant technical challenge is isobutanol’s low cetane number. The cetane number is crucial for diesel engines as it measures the fuel’s readiness to auto-ignite under compression. A low cetane number, as found in isobutanol, reduces the ignition quality of the fuel blend, which can lead to incomplete combustion, increased emissions, and engine knocking. This often necessitates the use of cetane-improving additives. Incorrect Solution: C (c) is correct. A significant technical challenge is isobutanol’s low cetane number. The cetane number is crucial for diesel engines as it measures the fuel’s readiness to auto-ignite under compression. A low cetane number, as found in isobutanol, reduces the ignition quality of the fuel blend, which can lead to incomplete combustion, increased emissions, and engine knocking. This often necessitates the use of cetane-improving additives.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following best describes a key challenge in blending isobutanol with diesel?

• (a) Isobutanol's high volatility poses a significant fire risk.

• (b) The production process of isobutanol is more expensive than that of ethanol.

• (c) Isobutanol reduces the ignition quality of the diesel blend, potentially causing engine knock.

• (d) It is impossible to co-produce isobutanol and ethanol in the same facility.

Solution: C

• (c) is correct. A significant technical challenge is isobutanol’s low cetane number. The cetane number is crucial for diesel engines as it measures the fuel’s readiness to auto-ignite under compression. A low cetane number, as found in isobutanol, reduces the ignition quality of the fuel blend, which can lead to incomplete combustion, increased emissions, and engine knocking. This often necessitates the use of cetane-improving additives.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kurmi community: They claim a distinct tribal identity, rejecting connections with the Kshatriya Kurmis of north India. The community has a history of participation in various uprisings during the British era, including the Chuar Rebellion. Their religious practices are based on the Sarna code, which involves nature worship. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Kurmis of the Chotanagpur plateau region assert a distinct identity, claiming tribal and Dravidian roots. They actively reject identification with the Kshatriya Kurmis found in the Gangetic plains of north India, emphasizing their unique cultural and historical trajectory. Statement 2 is correct. The community has a rich history of participation in the freedom struggle and various peasant and tribal uprisings against British policies. Their major roles in the Chuar Rebellion, Indigo Rebellion, and Santhal Uprising, among others. Statement 3 is correct. The Kurmis follow the Sarna religion, a form of nature worship common among many tribal communities in the Chotanagpur region. They worship natural elements like hills and trees, which they argue demonstrates their cultural continuity with other tribal groups and strengthens their claim for ST status. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Kurmis of the Chotanagpur plateau region assert a distinct identity, claiming tribal and Dravidian roots. They actively reject identification with the Kshatriya Kurmis found in the Gangetic plains of north India, emphasizing their unique cultural and historical trajectory. Statement 2 is correct. The community has a rich history of participation in the freedom struggle and various peasant and tribal uprisings against British policies. Their major roles in the Chuar Rebellion, Indigo Rebellion, and Santhal Uprising, among others. Statement 3 is correct. The Kurmis follow the Sarna religion, a form of nature worship common among many tribal communities in the Chotanagpur region. They worship natural elements like hills and trees, which they argue demonstrates their cultural continuity with other tribal groups and strengthens their claim for ST status.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kurmi community:

• They claim a distinct tribal identity, rejecting connections with the Kshatriya Kurmis of north India.

• The community has a history of participation in various uprisings during the British era, including the Chuar Rebellion.

• Their religious practices are based on the Sarna code, which involves nature worship.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Kurmis of the Chotanagpur plateau region assert a distinct identity, claiming tribal and Dravidian roots. They actively reject identification with the Kshatriya Kurmis found in the Gangetic plains of north India, emphasizing their unique cultural and historical trajectory.

• Statement 2 is correct. The community has a rich history of participation in the freedom struggle and various peasant and tribal uprisings against British policies. Their major roles in the Chuar Rebellion, Indigo Rebellion, and Santhal Uprising, among others.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Kurmis follow the Sarna religion, a form of nature worship common among many tribal communities in the Chotanagpur region. They worship natural elements like hills and trees, which they argue demonstrates their cultural continuity with other tribal groups and strengthens their claim for ST status.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Match the National Park/Tiger Reserve in List-I with its State in List-II and a Key Feature in List-III. List-I (Park/Reserve) List-II (State) List-III (Key Feature) 1. Betla National Park A. Assam P. Known for its one-horned rhinoceros population. 2. Palamau Tiger Reserve B. Jharkhand Q. Location of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre. 3. Kaziranga National Park C. Jharkhand R. One of the first nine tiger reserves under Project Tiger. Which of the following is the correct match? (a) 1-B-Q, 2-C-P, 3-A-R (b) 1-B-P, 2-C-Q, 3-A-R (c) 1-C-Q, 2-B-R, 3-A-P (d) 1-B-Q, 2-C-R, 3-A-P Correct Solution: D Betla National Park is located in Jharkhand (B) and is the site of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre (Q). So, the correct combination is 1-B-Q. Palamau Tiger Reserve, which contains Betla National Park as its core, is also in Jharkhand (C). It holds the distinction of being one of the first nine tiger reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973 (R). So, the correct combination is 2-C-R. Kaziranga National Park is a world-famous park located in Assam (A). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site renowned for its success in conserving the one-horned rhinoceros (P), hosting the world’s largest population. So, the correct combination is 3-A-P. Incorrect Solution: D Betla National Park is located in Jharkhand (B) and is the site of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre (Q). So, the correct combination is 1-B-Q. Palamau Tiger Reserve, which contains Betla National Park as its core, is also in Jharkhand (C). It holds the distinction of being one of the first nine tiger reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973 (R). So, the correct combination is 2-C-R. Kaziranga National Park is a world-famous park located in Assam (A). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site renowned for its success in conserving the one-horned rhinoceros (P), hosting the world’s largest population. So, the correct combination is 3-A-P.

#### 10. Question

Match the National Park/Tiger Reserve in List-I with its State in List-II and a Key Feature in List-III.

List-I (Park/Reserve) | List-II (State) | List-III (Key Feature)

1.Betla National Park | A. Assam | P. Known for its one-horned rhinoceros population.
2.Palamau Tiger Reserve | B. Jharkhand | Q. Location of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre.
3.Kaziranga National Park | C. Jharkhand | R. One of the first nine tiger reserves under Project Tiger.

Which of the following is the correct match?

• (a) 1-B-Q, 2-C-P, 3-A-R

• (b) 1-B-P, 2-C-Q, 3-A-R

• (c) 1-C-Q, 2-B-R, 3-A-P

• (d) 1-B-Q, 2-C-R, 3-A-P

Solution: D

• Betla National Park is located in Jharkhand (B) and is the site of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre (Q). So, the correct combination is 1-B-Q.

• Palamau Tiger Reserve, which contains Betla National Park as its core, is also in Jharkhand (C). It holds the distinction of being one of the first nine tiger reserves established under Project Tiger in 1973 (R). So, the correct combination is 2-C-R.

• Kaziranga National Park is a world-famous park located in Assam (A). It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site renowned for its success in conserving the one-horned rhinoceros (P), hosting the world’s largest population. So, the correct combination is 3-A-P.

Solution: D

• Betla National Park is located in Jharkhand (B) and is the site of India’s first AI-enabled nature experience centre (Q). So, the correct combination is 1-B-Q.

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