UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Parliament has never officially exercised the provision of secret sitting despite having the authority. The only near-instance was in 1962 during the Indo-China war, where the idea was proposed but not executed. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Both statements are accurate: Though provisions exist, India has never officially held a secret sitting in either House. During the 1962 Indo-China conflict, the idea of secret sitting was proposed, but Prime Minister Nehru rejected it, favoring transparency. This event is cited as the closest India came to a secret sitting, which explains the non-use of the provision. Incorrect Solution: C Both statements are accurate: Though provisions exist, India has never officially held a secret sitting in either House. During the 1962 Indo-China conflict, the idea of secret sitting was proposed, but Prime Minister Nehru rejected it, favoring transparency. This event is cited as the closest India came to a secret sitting, which explains the non-use of the provision.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Parliament has never officially exercised the provision of secret sitting despite having the authority.

• The only near-instance was in 1962 during the Indo-China war, where the idea was proposed but not executed.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Both statements are accurate:

• Though provisions exist, India has never officially held a secret sitting in either House.

• During the 1962 Indo-China conflict, the idea of secret sitting was proposed, but Prime Minister Nehru rejected it, favoring transparency. This event is cited as the closest India came to a secret sitting, which explains the non-use of the provision.

Solution: C

Both statements are accurate:

• Though provisions exist, India has never officially held a secret sitting in either House.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following objectives of the UN80 Initiative: Strengthening strategic planning and cost-effectiveness. Enhancing collaboration among different UN bodies for better coordination. Establishing a separate financial institution to oversee UN funding. Encouraging timely financial contributions from member states. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only Correct Solution: C Explanation: The UN80 Initiative is a recent reform-oriented effort within the United Nations framework, aimed at enhancing the efficiency, coordination, and financial sustainability of the global body in the run-up to its 80th anniversary. Statement 1 is correct — One of its core goals is to strengthen strategic planning and promote cost-effective deployment of resources, especially in humanitarian, development, and peacekeeping operations. Statement 2 is correct — The initiative stresses greater inter-agency collaboration among UN bodies, ensuring synergy and cohesion in global responses to crises, including climate change, pandemics, and conflict. Statement 3 is incorrect — The initiative does not propose the creation of a separate financial institution. Instead, it advocates for internal financial reforms within the current UN structure to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency. Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation. Incorrect Solution: C Explanation: The UN80 Initiative is a recent reform-oriented effort within the United Nations framework, aimed at enhancing the efficiency, coordination, and financial sustainability of the global body in the run-up to its 80th anniversary. Statement 1 is correct — One of its core goals is to strengthen strategic planning and promote cost-effective deployment of resources, especially in humanitarian, development, and peacekeeping operations. Statement 2 is correct — The initiative stresses greater inter-agency collaboration among UN bodies, ensuring synergy and cohesion in global responses to crises, including climate change, pandemics, and conflict. Statement 3 is incorrect — The initiative does not propose the creation of a separate financial institution. Instead, it advocates for internal financial reforms within the current UN structure to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency. Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following objectives of the UN80 Initiative:

• Strengthening strategic planning and cost-effectiveness.

• Enhancing collaboration among different UN bodies for better coordination.

• Establishing a separate financial institution to oversee UN funding.

• Encouraging timely financial contributions from member states.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2, and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2, and 4 only

• (d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Solution: C

Explanation:

• The UN80 Initiative is a recent reform-oriented effort within the United Nations framework, aimed at enhancing the efficiency, coordination, and financial sustainability of the global body in the run-up to its 80th anniversary.

• Statement 1 is correct — One of its core goals is to strengthen strategic planning and promote cost-effective deployment of resources, especially in humanitarian, development, and peacekeeping operations.

• Statement 2 is correct — The initiative stresses greater inter-agency collaboration among UN bodies, ensuring synergy and cohesion in global responses to crises, including climate change, pandemics, and conflict.

• Statement 3 is incorrect — The initiative does not propose the creation of a separate financial institution. Instead, it advocates for internal financial reforms within the current UN structure to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency.

• Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation.

Solution: C

Explanation:

• Statement 4 is correct — Timely financial contributions from member states are crucial to address funding delays that often hinder program implementation.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (RPA 1950): It provides for the preparation of electoral rolls and the qualifications of voters. It deals with the conduct of elections and the removal of disqualified members from legislatures. It lays down provisions related to the allocation of seats in Parliament and State Legislatures. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, voter qualifications, and seat allocation for Parliament and state legislatures. Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act. Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, voter qualifications, and seat allocation for Parliament and state legislatures. Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act. Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (RPA 1950):

• It provides for the preparation of electoral rolls and the qualifications of voters.

• It deals with the conduct of elections and the removal of disqualified members from legislatures.

• It lays down provisions related to the allocation of seats in Parliament and State Legislatures.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct – The Representation of the People Act, 1950 primarily deals with the preparation of electoral rolls, voter qualifications, and seat allocation for Parliament and state legislatures.

• Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act.

• Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 2 is incorrect – The conduct of elections, corrupt practices, and disqualification of members fall under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not the 1950 Act.

• Statement 3 is correct – The RPA 1950 also provides for the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, as well as delimitation of constituencies.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s audit powers: The CAG can audit only those financial transactions that involve tax revenues. The CAG conducts three types of audits: compliance audit, financial audit, and propriety audit. The CAG directly advises the Prime Minister on financial matters related to policy decisions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions. Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits. Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions. Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits. Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the CAG’s audit powers:

• The CAG can audit only those financial transactions that involve tax revenues.

• The CAG conducts three types of audits: compliance audit, financial audit, and propriety audit.

• The CAG directly advises the Prime Minister on financial matters related to policy decisions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions.

• Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits.

• Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect – The CAG audits all government expenditure, including non-tax revenues and debt transactions.

• Statement 2 is correct – The CAG conducts compliance audits, financial audits, and propriety audits.

• Statement 3 is incorrect – The CAG does not advise the PM on policy matters; it is only responsible for auditing financial records.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the security and legal implications of autopen usage: Autopen-generated signatures are universally accepted in all legal and financial transactions worldwide. Autopen devices require biometric authentication before initiating a signature. The use of an autopen automatically invalidates the authenticity of a document in legal cases. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Explanation: The autopen is a mechanical or electronic device that replicates a person’s signature and is commonly used in administrative or official contexts, including by heads of state. However, its legal and security implications vary widely across jurisdictions. Statement 1 is incorrect — Autopen-generated signatures are not universally accepted in legal or financial transactions. While some countries and institutions may allow them in administrative contexts, many require manual or digital signatures authenticated through secure processes, especially in contracts or financial instruments. Statement 2 is incorrect — Traditional autopen machines do not use biometric authentication. They function mechanically or through stored electronic patterns of a signature. Some modern digital signature systems may use biometrics, but this is not inherent to autopens. Statement 3 is incorrect — The use of an autopen does not automatically invalidate a document, but in legal proceedings, its usage may be challenged and may require further verification or authorization. Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: The autopen is a mechanical or electronic device that replicates a person’s signature and is commonly used in administrative or official contexts, including by heads of state. However, its legal and security implications vary widely across jurisdictions. Statement 1 is incorrect — Autopen-generated signatures are not universally accepted in legal or financial transactions. While some countries and institutions may allow them in administrative contexts, many require manual or digital signatures authenticated through secure processes, especially in contracts or financial instruments. Statement 2 is incorrect — Traditional autopen machines do not use biometric authentication. They function mechanically or through stored electronic patterns of a signature. Some modern digital signature systems may use biometrics, but this is not inherent to autopens. Statement 3 is incorrect — The use of an autopen does not automatically invalidate a document, but in legal proceedings, its usage may be challenged and may require further verification or authorization.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the security and legal implications of autopen usage:

• Autopen-generated signatures are universally accepted in all legal and financial transactions worldwide.

• Autopen devices require biometric authentication before initiating a signature.

• The use of an autopen automatically invalidates the authenticity of a document in legal cases.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Explanation:

• The autopen is a mechanical or electronic device that replicates a person’s signature and is commonly used in administrative or official contexts, including by heads of state. However, its legal and security implications vary widely across jurisdictions.

• Statement 1 is incorrect — Autopen-generated signatures are not universally accepted in legal or financial transactions. While some countries and institutions may allow them in administrative contexts, many require manual or digital signatures authenticated through secure processes, especially in contracts or financial instruments.

• Statement 2 is incorrect — Traditional autopen machines do not use biometric authentication. They function mechanically or through stored electronic patterns of a signature. Some modern digital signature systems may use biometrics, but this is not inherent to autopens.

• Statement 3 is incorrect — The use of an autopen does not automatically invalidate a document, but in legal proceedings, its usage may be challenged and may require further verification or authorization.

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban. Consider the following statements regarding PPP-based green waste processing plant. Statement-I: India’s PPP-based green waste processing plant helps in reducing dependence on fossil fuels. Statement-II: The plant converts green waste into eco-friendly fuels that can replace coal. Which one of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a valid reason for Statement-I by explaining how green waste conversion into wooden pellets reduces fossil fuel dependence. Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban. About India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant: What it is: A Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model waste processing facility for converting green waste into eco-resources. Aim of the initiative: To process green waste (wood, leaves, branches, flowers) into pellets and sawdust, replacing coal and supporting clean energy goals. Key features: Partnered with Astronomical Industries Private Limited. Converts waste into wooden pellets, sawdust, and biodegradable products. End products: eco-friendly fuels, packaging materials, biodegradable plates, fertilizers. Reduces pollution, improves Air Quality Index (AQI), and contributes to energy conservation. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a valid reason for Statement-I by explaining how green waste conversion into wooden pellets reduces fossil fuel dependence. Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban. About India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant: What it is: A Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model waste processing facility for converting green waste into eco-resources. Aim of the initiative: To process green waste (wood, leaves, branches, flowers) into pellets and sawdust, replacing coal and supporting clean energy goals. Key features: Partnered with Astronomical Industries Private Limited. Converts waste into wooden pellets, sawdust, and biodegradable products. End products: eco-friendly fuels, packaging materials, biodegradable plates, fertilizers. Reduces pollution, improves Air Quality Index (AQI), and contributes to energy conservation.

#### 6. Question

Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban. Consider the following statements regarding PPP-based green waste processing plant.

Statement-I: India’s PPP-based green waste processing plant helps in reducing dependence on fossil fuels. Statement-II: The plant converts green waste into eco-friendly fuels that can replace coal.

Which one of the following is correct?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a valid reason for Statement-I by explaining how green waste conversion into wooden pellets reduces fossil fuel dependence.

Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban.

About India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant:

• What it is:

• A Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model waste processing facility for converting green waste into eco-resources.

• Aim of the initiative:

• To process green waste (wood, leaves, branches, flowers) into pellets and sawdust, replacing coal and supporting clean energy goals.

• Key features:

• Partnered with Astronomical Industries Private Limited. Converts waste into wooden pellets, sawdust, and biodegradable products. End products: eco-friendly fuels, packaging materials, biodegradable plates, fertilizers. Reduces pollution, improves Air Quality Index (AQI), and contributes to energy conservation.

• Partnered with Astronomical Industries Private Limited.

• Converts waste into wooden pellets, sawdust, and biodegradable products.

• End products: eco-friendly fuels, packaging materials, biodegradable plates, fertilizers.

• Reduces pollution, improves Air Quality Index (AQI), and contributes to energy conservation.

Solution: A

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides a valid reason for Statement-I by explaining how green waste conversion into wooden pellets reduces fossil fuel dependence.

Indore is set to launch India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban.

About India’s first PPP-based green waste processing plant:

• What it is:

• A Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model waste processing facility for converting green waste into eco-resources.

• Aim of the initiative:

• To process green waste (wood, leaves, branches, flowers) into pellets and sawdust, replacing coal and supporting clean energy goals.

• Key features:

• Partnered with Astronomical Industries Private Limited.

• Converts waste into wooden pellets, sawdust, and biodegradable products.

• End products: eco-friendly fuels, packaging materials, biodegradable plates, fertilizers.

• Reduces pollution, improves Air Quality Index (AQI), and contributes to energy conservation.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. Consider the following statements regarding APAAR. Statement-I: APAAR will help prevent duplication and fraud in academic credentials. Statement-II: APAAR mandates blockchain-based storage to secure academic records. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. APAAR provides a unique, Aadhaar-linked academic ID with verified and centrally stored records, which prevents fraud, duplication, and misrepresentation of educational credentials. It promotes institutional credibility and easier cross-verification. However, Statement-II is incorrect — APAAR does not currently mandate blockchain-based storage. It uses DigiLocker, which is a secure digital document repository, but not blockchain-based. While blockchain is being explored for educational credentials globally, APAAR relies on centralized digital infrastructure and verified institutional inputs, not decentralized ledgers. What is APAAR? APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry, a unique 12-digit student identification number. It consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. Ministry and Origin: Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Aim: To streamline academic record-keeping and facilitate seamless student transitions between institutions. To promote multiple entry-exit systems, track academic and co-curricular achievements, and enable transparent educational data management. Key Features: Permanent academic record stored on DigiLocker. Covers school and higher education students across India. Generated through the UDISE+ portal with Aadhaar linkage and parental consent for minors. Schools play a key role in verifying student data and assisting in the generation of the ID. Who Are Covered: All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions. Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors. Is It Mandatory? Officially voluntary, but State governments (like Uttar Pradesh) and authorities (CBSE) are pushing for 100% adoption, causing confusion. Parents can opt out by submitting written consent. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. APAAR provides a unique, Aadhaar-linked academic ID with verified and centrally stored records, which prevents fraud, duplication, and misrepresentation of educational credentials. It promotes institutional credibility and easier cross-verification. However, Statement-II is incorrect — APAAR does not currently mandate blockchain-based storage. It uses DigiLocker, which is a secure digital document repository, but not blockchain-based. While blockchain is being explored for educational credentials globally, APAAR relies on centralized digital infrastructure and verified institutional inputs, not decentralized ledgers. What is APAAR? APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry, a unique 12-digit student identification number. It consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. Ministry and Origin: Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Aim: To streamline academic record-keeping and facilitate seamless student transitions between institutions. To promote multiple entry-exit systems, track academic and co-curricular achievements, and enable transparent educational data management. Key Features: Permanent academic record stored on DigiLocker. Covers school and higher education students across India. Generated through the UDISE+ portal with Aadhaar linkage and parental consent for minors. Schools play a key role in verifying student data and assisting in the generation of the ID. Who Are Covered: All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions. Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors. Is It Mandatory? Officially voluntary, but State governments (like Uttar Pradesh) and authorities (CBSE) are pushing for 100% adoption, causing confusion. Parents can opt out by submitting written consent.

#### 7. Question

Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative. Consider the following statements regarding APAAR.

Statement-I: APAAR will help prevent duplication and fraud in academic credentials. Statement-II: APAAR mandates blockchain-based storage to secure academic records.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. APAAR provides a unique, Aadhaar-linked academic ID with verified and centrally stored records, which prevents fraud, duplication, and misrepresentation of educational credentials. It promotes institutional credibility and easier cross-verification.

• However, Statement-II is incorrect — APAAR does not currently mandate blockchain-based storage. It uses DigiLocker, which is a secure digital document repository, but not blockchain-based. While blockchain is being explored for educational credentials globally, APAAR relies on centralized digital infrastructure and verified institutional inputs, not decentralized ledgers.

• What is APAAR?

• APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry, a unique 12-digit student identification number. It consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative.

• APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry, a unique 12-digit student identification number.

• It consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative.

• Ministry and Origin:

• Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF).

• Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

• Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF).

• To streamline academic record-keeping and facilitate seamless student transitions between institutions. To promote multiple entry-exit systems, track academic and co-curricular achievements, and enable transparent educational data management.

• To streamline academic record-keeping and facilitate seamless student transitions between institutions.

• To promote multiple entry-exit systems, track academic and co-curricular achievements, and enable transparent educational data management.

• Key Features:

• Permanent academic record stored on DigiLocker. Covers school and higher education students across India. Generated through the UDISE+ portal with Aadhaar linkage and parental consent for minors. Schools play a key role in verifying student data and assisting in the generation of the ID.

• Permanent academic record stored on DigiLocker.

• Covers school and higher education students across India.

• Generated through the UDISE+ portal with Aadhaar linkage and parental consent for minors.

• Schools play a key role in verifying student data and assisting in the generation of the ID.

• Who Are Covered:

• All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions. Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors.

• All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions.

• Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors.

• Is It Mandatory?

• Officially voluntary, but State governments (like Uttar Pradesh) and authorities (CBSE) are pushing for 100% adoption, causing confusion. Parents can opt out by submitting written consent.

• Officially voluntary, but State governments (like Uttar Pradesh) and authorities (CBSE) are pushing for 100% adoption, causing confusion.

• Parents can opt out by submitting written consent.

Solution: C

• What is APAAR?

• APAAR stands for Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry, a unique 12-digit student identification number.

• It consolidates all academic records, making them accessible via DigiLocker under the ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative.

• Ministry and Origin:

• Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF).

• Launched by the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

• Introduced under National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF).

• To streamline academic record-keeping and facilitate seamless student transitions between institutions.

• To promote multiple entry-exit systems, track academic and co-curricular achievements, and enable transparent educational data management.

• Key Features:

• Permanent academic record stored on DigiLocker.

• Covers school and higher education students across India.

• Generated through the UDISE+ portal with Aadhaar linkage and parental consent for minors.

• Schools play a key role in verifying student data and assisting in the generation of the ID.

• Who Are Covered:

• All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions. Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors.

• All school and higher education students in India, both from government and private institutions.

• Mandatory Aadhaar authentication and parental consent for minors.

• Is It Mandatory?

• Officially voluntary, but State governments (like Uttar Pradesh) and authorities (CBSE) are pushing for 100% adoption, causing confusion.

• Parents can opt out by submitting written consent.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Audible Enclaves: Audible Enclaves emit sound omnidirectionally to surround the listener. The technology has already been commercialized for long-range outdoor broadcasting. Its functionality is unaffected by environmental noise or reflective surfaces. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D All three statements are incorrect. Audible Enclaves emit ultrasonic beams that only intersect at one precise point where audible sound is generated — this is the opposite of omnidirectional sound (Statement 1). Statement 2 is false — while the technology is promising, it remains experimental and has not yet been commercialized for long-range or public broadcasting due to limitations in range, power, and clarity. Statement 3 is also wrong — the performance of Audible Enclaves can be affected by environmental conditions, particularly reverberation, reflective surfaces, and background noise, which may interfere with the precise targeting of ultrasonic beams. What are Audible Enclaves? Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams. Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others. Principle Behind Audible Enclaves: Nonlinear Acoustic Effect: Two ultrasonic waves intersect and interact non-linearly to generate audible sound only at the intersection point. Use of Metasurfaces: 3D-printed acoustic lenses bend ultrasonic beams along curved paths to meet at a controlled point. How Audible Enclaves Work: Ultrasonic Transducers: Two devices emit ultrasonic beams at slightly different frequencies. Self-Bending Beams: Beams follow crescent-shaped paths due to metasurfaces’ directional control. Intersection Point: Audible sound is produced only where beams intersect, isolating the audio zone. Obstacle Navigation: The beams can bend around human heads or objects, reaching the precise point without disturbance. Key Features: Privacy Listening: Audio is only heard by the person within the sound beam intersection, ensuring confidentiality. Virtual Headset Effect: Users can listen without headphones, with no sound leakage to others. Indoor and Outdoor Usability: Tested in reverberant spaces, classrooms, vehicles, and open environments. Directional Sound Control: Can direct sound beams to targeted locations even behind barriers. Limitations: Short Range: Currently functional only up to 1 meter from the sound source. Low Sound Intensity: Output is limited to around 60 decibels, equivalent to a normal conversation. Power Limitations: Increasing range or volume requires higher ultrasonic beam intensity. Environmental Dependence: Effectiveness may reduce in noisy or unpredictable outdoor conditions. Incorrect Solution: D All three statements are incorrect. Audible Enclaves emit ultrasonic beams that only intersect at one precise point where audible sound is generated — this is the opposite of omnidirectional sound (Statement 1). Statement 2 is false — while the technology is promising, it remains experimental and has not yet been commercialized for long-range or public broadcasting due to limitations in range, power, and clarity. Statement 3 is also wrong — the performance of Audible Enclaves can be affected by environmental conditions, particularly reverberation, reflective surfaces, and background noise, which may interfere with the precise targeting of ultrasonic beams. What are Audible Enclaves? Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams. Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others. Principle Behind Audible Enclaves: Nonlinear Acoustic Effect: Two ultrasonic waves intersect and interact non-linearly to generate audible sound only at the intersection point. Use of Metasurfaces: 3D-printed acoustic lenses bend ultrasonic beams along curved paths to meet at a controlled point. How Audible Enclaves Work: Ultrasonic Transducers: Two devices emit ultrasonic beams at slightly different frequencies. Self-Bending Beams: Beams follow crescent-shaped paths due to metasurfaces’ directional control. Intersection Point: Audible sound is produced only where beams intersect, isolating the audio zone. Obstacle Navigation: The beams can bend around human heads or objects, reaching the precise point without disturbance. Key Features: Privacy Listening: Audio is only heard by the person within the sound beam intersection, ensuring confidentiality. Virtual Headset Effect: Users can listen without headphones, with no sound leakage to others. Indoor and Outdoor Usability: Tested in reverberant spaces, classrooms, vehicles, and open environments. Directional Sound Control: Can direct sound beams to targeted locations even behind barriers. Limitations: Short Range: Currently functional only up to 1 meter from the sound source. Low Sound Intensity: Output is limited to around 60 decibels, equivalent to a normal conversation. Power Limitations: Increasing range or volume requires higher ultrasonic beam intensity. Environmental Dependence: Effectiveness may reduce in noisy or unpredictable outdoor conditions.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Audible Enclaves:

• Audible Enclaves emit sound omnidirectionally to surround the listener. The technology has already been commercialized for long-range outdoor broadcasting. Its functionality is unaffected by environmental noise or reflective surfaces.

• Audible Enclaves emit sound omnidirectionally to surround the listener.

• The technology has already been commercialized for long-range outdoor broadcasting.

• Its functionality is unaffected by environmental noise or reflective surfaces.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

All three statements are incorrect.

• Audible Enclaves emit ultrasonic beams that only intersect at one precise point where audible sound is generated — this is the opposite of omnidirectional sound (Statement 1).

• Statement 2 is false — while the technology is promising, it remains experimental and has not yet been commercialized for long-range or public broadcasting due to limitations in range, power, and clarity.

• Statement 3 is also wrong — the performance of Audible Enclaves can be affected by environmental conditions, particularly reverberation, reflective surfaces, and background noise, which may interfere with the precise targeting of ultrasonic beams.

• What are Audible Enclaves?

• Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams. Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others.

• Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams.

• Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others.

• Principle Behind Audible Enclaves:

• Nonlinear Acoustic Effect: Two ultrasonic waves intersect and interact non-linearly to generate audible sound only at the intersection point. Use of Metasurfaces: 3D-printed acoustic lenses bend ultrasonic beams along curved paths to meet at a controlled point.

• Nonlinear Acoustic Effect: Two ultrasonic waves intersect and interact non-linearly to generate audible sound only at the intersection point.

• Use of Metasurfaces: 3D-printed acoustic lenses bend ultrasonic beams along curved paths to meet at a controlled point.

• How Audible Enclaves Work:

• Ultrasonic Transducers: Two devices emit ultrasonic beams at slightly different frequencies. Self-Bending Beams: Beams follow crescent-shaped paths due to metasurfaces’ directional control. Intersection Point: Audible sound is produced only where beams intersect, isolating the audio zone. Obstacle Navigation: The beams can bend around human heads or objects, reaching the precise point without disturbance.

• Ultrasonic Transducers: Two devices emit ultrasonic beams at slightly different frequencies.

• Self-Bending Beams: Beams follow crescent-shaped paths due to metasurfaces’ directional control.

• Intersection Point: Audible sound is produced only where beams intersect, isolating the audio zone.

• Obstacle Navigation: The beams can bend around human heads or objects, reaching the precise point without disturbance.

• Key Features:

• Privacy Listening: Audio is only heard by the person within the sound beam intersection, ensuring confidentiality. Virtual Headset Effect: Users can listen without headphones, with no sound leakage to others. Indoor and Outdoor Usability: Tested in reverberant spaces, classrooms, vehicles, and open environments. Directional Sound Control: Can direct sound beams to targeted locations even behind barriers.

• Privacy Listening: Audio is only heard by the person within the sound beam intersection, ensuring confidentiality.

• Virtual Headset Effect: Users can listen without headphones, with no sound leakage to others.

• Indoor and Outdoor Usability: Tested in reverberant spaces, classrooms, vehicles, and open environments.

• Directional Sound Control: Can direct sound beams to targeted locations even behind barriers.

• Limitations:

• Short Range: Currently functional only up to 1 meter from the sound source. Low Sound Intensity: Output is limited to around 60 decibels, equivalent to a normal conversation. Power Limitations: Increasing range or volume requires higher ultrasonic beam intensity. Environmental Dependence: Effectiveness may reduce in noisy or unpredictable outdoor conditions.

• Short Range: Currently functional only up to 1 meter from the sound source.

• Low Sound Intensity: Output is limited to around 60 decibels, equivalent to a normal conversation.

• Power Limitations: Increasing range or volume requires higher ultrasonic beam intensity.

• Environmental Dependence: Effectiveness may reduce in noisy or unpredictable outdoor conditions.

Solution: D

All three statements are incorrect.

• Audible Enclaves emit ultrasonic beams that only intersect at one precise point where audible sound is generated — this is the opposite of omnidirectional sound (Statement 1).

• What are Audible Enclaves?

• Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams. Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others.

• Localized pockets of sound heard only at precise intersection points of ultrasonic beams.

• Enable private audio delivery to individuals in public spaces without disturbing others.

• Principle Behind Audible Enclaves:

• Nonlinear Acoustic Effect: Two ultrasonic waves intersect and interact non-linearly to generate audible sound only at the intersection point.

• Use of Metasurfaces: 3D-printed acoustic lenses bend ultrasonic beams along curved paths to meet at a controlled point.

• How Audible Enclaves Work:

• Ultrasonic Transducers: Two devices emit ultrasonic beams at slightly different frequencies.

• Self-Bending Beams: Beams follow crescent-shaped paths due to metasurfaces’ directional control.

• Intersection Point: Audible sound is produced only where beams intersect, isolating the audio zone.

• Obstacle Navigation: The beams can bend around human heads or objects, reaching the precise point without disturbance.

• Key Features:

• Privacy Listening: Audio is only heard by the person within the sound beam intersection, ensuring confidentiality.

• Virtual Headset Effect: Users can listen without headphones, with no sound leakage to others.

• Indoor and Outdoor Usability: Tested in reverberant spaces, classrooms, vehicles, and open environments.

• Directional Sound Control: Can direct sound beams to targeted locations even behind barriers.

• Limitations:

• Short Range: Currently functional only up to 1 meter from the sound source.

• Low Sound Intensity: Output is limited to around 60 decibels, equivalent to a normal conversation.

• Power Limitations: Increasing range or volume requires higher ultrasonic beam intensity.

• Environmental Dependence: Effectiveness may reduce in noisy or unpredictable outdoor conditions.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Customs Act, 1962: It empowers the central government to prohibit imports for reasons including public health and conservation. The Act allows immediate confiscation of imported goods even if proper documentation is submitted. The Act provides a warehousing mechanism for imported goods before duty is paid. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – The Act gives the central government the authority to prohibit or restrict imports or exports to protect national interests like public health, morality, wildlife conservation, and security. Statement 3 is also correct – A distinctive feature of the Act is the warehousing provision, which permits imported goods to be stored in licensed warehouses without immediate payment of duties, until cleared for home consumption or re-export. Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished. What is the Customs Act of 1962? The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India. It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade. Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance. Key Provisions of the Act: Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health. Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance. Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export. Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals): General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers. Gold Allowance: Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000). Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000). NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption). Other Allowances: One laptop per adult passenger. Alcohol: 2 litres. Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent. Cash Carrying Limit: Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration. Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange. Fines and Punishment for Smuggling: Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity. Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct – The Act gives the central government the authority to prohibit or restrict imports or exports to protect national interests like public health, morality, wildlife conservation, and security. Statement 3 is also correct – A distinctive feature of the Act is the warehousing provision, which permits imported goods to be stored in licensed warehouses without immediate payment of duties, until cleared for home consumption or re-export. Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished. What is the Customs Act of 1962? The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India. It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade. Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance. Key Provisions of the Act: Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health. Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance. Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export. Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals): General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers. Gold Allowance: Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000). Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000). NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption). Other Allowances: One laptop per adult passenger. Alcohol: 2 litres. Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent. Cash Carrying Limit: Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration. Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange. Fines and Punishment for Smuggling: Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity. Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Customs Act, 1962:

• It empowers the central government to prohibit imports for reasons including public health and conservation. The Act allows immediate confiscation of imported goods even if proper documentation is submitted. The Act provides a warehousing mechanism for imported goods before duty is paid.

• It empowers the central government to prohibit imports for reasons including public health and conservation.

• The Act allows immediate confiscation of imported goods even if proper documentation is submitted.

• The Act provides a warehousing mechanism for imported goods before duty is paid.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct – The Act gives the central government the authority to prohibit or restrict imports or exports to protect national interests like public health, morality, wildlife conservation, and security.

• Statement 3 is also correct – A distinctive feature of the Act is the warehousing provision, which permits imported goods to be stored in licensed warehouses without immediate payment of duties, until cleared for home consumption or re-export.

• Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished.

• What is the Customs Act of 1962?

• The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India. It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.

• The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India.

• It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.

• Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance.

• Key Provisions of the Act:

• Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health. Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance. Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export.

• Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.

• Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health.

• Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance.

• Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export.

• Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals):

• General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers. Gold Allowance: Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000). Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000). NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption). Other Allowances: One laptop per adult passenger. Alcohol: 2 litres. Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.

• General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers.

• Gold Allowance: Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000). Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000). NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption).

• Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000).

• Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000).

• NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption).

• Other Allowances: One laptop per adult passenger. Alcohol: 2 litres. Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.

• One laptop per adult passenger.

• Alcohol: 2 litres.

• Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.

• Cash Carrying Limit:

• Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration. Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.

• Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration.

• Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.

• Fines and Punishment for Smuggling:

• Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity. Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.

• Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity.

• Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is incorrect – confiscation of goods generally arises from violations such as misdeclaration, undervaluation, or smuggling, not when documentation is properly furnished.

• What is the Customs Act of 1962?

• The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India. It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.

• The Customs Act, 1962 regulates the import and export of goods in India.

• It safeguards the economy, controls smuggling, and promotes legal international trade.

• Implementing Agency: Administered by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) under the Ministry of Finance.

• Key Provisions of the Act:

• Customs Duty: Imposes duties on imported and exported goods based on the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.

• Prohibitions and Restrictions: Empowers the government to ban or restrict certain imports/exports for national security and public health.

• Clearance Procedures: Mandates proper documentation, duty payment, and adherence to customs protocols before clearance.

• Warehousing Provisions: Allows imported goods to be stored without immediate duty payment until released for consumption or export.

• Exemptions Allowed for Passengers (International Arrivals):

• General Duty-Free Allowance: ₹50,000 worth of goods for international passengers.

• Male passengers: 20 gm of gold (value up to ₹50,000).

• Female passengers: 40 gm of gold (value up to ₹1,00,000).

• NRIs: Can bring up to 10,000 gm once in six months (duty applicable beyond exemption).

• Other Allowances: One laptop per adult passenger. Alcohol: 2 litres. Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.

• One laptop per adult passenger.

• Alcohol: 2 litres.

• Tobacco: 100 cigarettes or equivalent.

• Cash Carrying Limit:

• Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration. Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.

• Passengers can carry up to ₹25,000 in Indian currency without declaration.

• Must declare foreign currency if exceeding $5,000 or $10,000 equivalent in total foreign exchange.

• Fines and Punishment for Smuggling:

• Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity. Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.

• Imprisonment: Jail term between 3 to 7 years, based on severity.

• Fines: Penalties may extend up to three times the value of smuggled goods.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Samarth Incubation Program: It provides access to C-DOT labs and expert mentorship to selected startups. It is implemented directly by the Department of Science and Technology. Startups must be recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to be eligible. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B The Samarth Incubation Program is a focused initiative under the Ministry of Communications, implemented by the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) with support from the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). It aims to foster innovation in the telecom sector by nurturing early-stage startups and MSMEs. Statement 1 is correct — The program provides selected startups with access to C-DOT’s advanced telecom R&D labs, mentorship from domain experts, funding support, and networking opportunities to scale commercially viable solutions. Statement 2 is incorrect — The program is not implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). Instead, it is driven by STPI under DoT, which focuses on telecom-specific innovation. Statement 3 is correct — To ensure alignment with India’s formal startup framework, only startups recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible to apply. Incorrect Solution: B The Samarth Incubation Program is a focused initiative under the Ministry of Communications, implemented by the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) with support from the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). It aims to foster innovation in the telecom sector by nurturing early-stage startups and MSMEs. Statement 1 is correct — The program provides selected startups with access to C-DOT’s advanced telecom R&D labs, mentorship from domain experts, funding support, and networking opportunities to scale commercially viable solutions. Statement 2 is incorrect — The program is not implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). Instead, it is driven by STPI under DoT, which focuses on telecom-specific innovation. Statement 3 is correct — To ensure alignment with India’s formal startup framework, only startups recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible to apply.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Samarth Incubation Program:

• It provides access to C-DOT labs and expert mentorship to selected startups.

• It is implemented directly by the Department of Science and Technology.

• Startups must be recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to be eligible.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Samarth Incubation Program is a focused initiative under the Ministry of Communications, implemented by the Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) with support from the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) and the Department of Telecommunications (DoT). It aims to foster innovation in the telecom sector by nurturing early-stage startups and MSMEs.

• Statement 1 is correct — The program provides selected startups with access to C-DOT’s advanced telecom R&D labs, mentorship from domain experts, funding support, and networking opportunities to scale commercially viable solutions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect — The program is not implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). Instead, it is driven by STPI under DoT, which focuses on telecom-specific innovation.

• Statement 3 is correct — To ensure alignment with India’s formal startup framework, only startups recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible to apply.

Solution: B

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