UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Dharti Aaba Janbhagidari Abhiyan (DAJA): It is a campaign focused on ensuring the saturation of welfare schemes in all rural villages across India. The campaign is driven by the Ministry of Rural Development. It integrates the provision of multiple government services like Aadhaar, Ayushman Bharat, and PM-KISAN at the grassroots level. The Abhiyan is named in honour of the tribal leader Bhagwan Birsa Munda. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The DAJA campaign is specifically targeted at tribal communities and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in over one lakh tribal villages and habitations. It is not a universal campaign for all rural villages in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, reflecting its specific focus on tribal welfare and empowerment, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Abhiyan is the integration and convergence of services. It aims to provide last-mile delivery of schemes such as Aadhaar, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan, PM Ujjwala, Jan Dhan, and facilitate Forest Rights Act (FRA) claims, all through a single, coordinated effort. Statement 4 is correct. The campaign explicitly aims to honour the legacy of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, who is reverentially known as ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The DAJA campaign is specifically targeted at tribal communities and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in over one lakh tribal villages and habitations. It is not a universal campaign for all rural villages in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, reflecting its specific focus on tribal welfare and empowerment, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Abhiyan is the integration and convergence of services. It aims to provide last-mile delivery of schemes such as Aadhaar, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan, PM Ujjwala, Jan Dhan, and facilitate Forest Rights Act (FRA) claims, all through a single, coordinated effort. Statement 4 is correct. The campaign explicitly aims to honour the legacy of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, who is reverentially known as ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth).

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Dharti Aaba Janbhagidari Abhiyan (DAJA):

• It is a campaign focused on ensuring the saturation of welfare schemes in all rural villages across India.

• The campaign is driven by the Ministry of Rural Development.

• It integrates the provision of multiple government services like Aadhaar, Ayushman Bharat, and PM-KISAN at the grassroots level.

• The Abhiyan is named in honour of the tribal leader Bhagwan Birsa Munda.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The DAJA campaign is specifically targeted at tribal communities and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in over one lakh tribal villages and habitations. It is not a universal campaign for all rural villages in India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The campaign was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, reflecting its specific focus on tribal welfare and empowerment, not the Ministry of Rural Development.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the Abhiyan is the integration and convergence of services. It aims to provide last-mile delivery of schemes such as Aadhaar, Ayushman Bharat, PM Kisan, PM Ujjwala, Jan Dhan, and facilitate Forest Rights Act (FRA) claims, all through a single, coordinated effort.

Statement 4 is correct. The campaign explicitly aims to honour the legacy of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, who is reverentially known as ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth).

Solution: B

Statement 4 is correct. The campaign explicitly aims to honour the legacy of Bhagwan Birsa Munda, who is reverentially known as ‘Dharti Aaba’ (Father of the Earth).

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS): Statement-I: The Chief of Defence Staff has recently been empowered to issue unified instructions applicable to the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Statement-II: CDS can exercise direct military command over the three service chiefs, superseding their individual authority over their respective forces. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Defence Minister has authorised the CDS, in his capacity as the Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA), to issue joint instructions and orders. This is a significant move away from the previous system where each service issued its own orders for joint activities, and it is aimed at enhancing synergy and streamlining command flow for inter-service matters. Statement-II is incorrect. The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three service chiefs, who retain full operational control of their respective forces. The CDS’s role is to act as the Principal Military Adviser, ensure jointness, and head the DMA. The new power pertains to issuing joint instructions for synergy and administrative efficiency in tri-service matters, not assuming direct command, which remains with the individual chiefs. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Defence Minister has authorised the CDS, in his capacity as the Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA), to issue joint instructions and orders. This is a significant move away from the previous system where each service issued its own orders for joint activities, and it is aimed at enhancing synergy and streamlining command flow for inter-service matters. Statement-II is incorrect. The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three service chiefs, who retain full operational control of their respective forces. The CDS’s role is to act as the Principal Military Adviser, ensure jointness, and head the DMA. The new power pertains to issuing joint instructions for synergy and administrative efficiency in tri-service matters, not assuming direct command, which remains with the individual chiefs.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):

Statement-I: The Chief of Defence Staff has recently been empowered to issue unified instructions applicable to the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Statement-II: CDS can exercise direct military command over the three service chiefs, superseding their individual authority over their respective forces.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct. The Defence Minister has authorised the CDS, in his capacity as the Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA), to issue joint instructions and orders. This is a significant move away from the previous system where each service issued its own orders for joint activities, and it is aimed at enhancing synergy and streamlining command flow for inter-service matters.

Statement-II is incorrect. The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three service chiefs, who retain full operational control of their respective forces. The CDS’s role is to act as the Principal Military Adviser, ensure jointness, and head the DMA. The new power pertains to issuing joint instructions for synergy and administrative efficiency in tri-service matters, not assuming direct command, which remains with the individual chiefs.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to coffee cultivation in India, consider the following statements: India is the only major coffee-producing country where the entire crop is grown under a two-tier shade canopy. Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state, followed by Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Indian coffee plantations are characterized by high biodiversity, often inter-cropping spices like pepper and cardamom. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. A unique and defining feature of Indian coffee is that 100% of it is shade-grown. It is cultivated under a diverse canopy of over 50 types of trees, which contributes to its mild acidity, full-bodied flavour, and distinct aroma, setting it apart from sun-grown coffee from other regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Karnataka is the largest producer, contributing approximately 70% of India’s coffee, the second-largest producer is Kerala, not Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer. Statement 3 is correct. The shade-grown cultivation method makes Indian coffee plantations a model of high biodiversity. These plantations are not monocultures; they are often integrated ecosystems where various spices such as pepper, cardamom, cinnamon, and vanilla are grown alongside the coffee plants. This practice contributes to both the unique flavour profile of the coffee and the economic sustainability of the farms. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. A unique and defining feature of Indian coffee is that 100% of it is shade-grown. It is cultivated under a diverse canopy of over 50 types of trees, which contributes to its mild acidity, full-bodied flavour, and distinct aroma, setting it apart from sun-grown coffee from other regions. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Karnataka is the largest producer, contributing approximately 70% of India’s coffee, the second-largest producer is Kerala, not Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer. Statement 3 is correct. The shade-grown cultivation method makes Indian coffee plantations a model of high biodiversity. These plantations are not monocultures; they are often integrated ecosystems where various spices such as pepper, cardamom, cinnamon, and vanilla are grown alongside the coffee plants. This practice contributes to both the unique flavour profile of the coffee and the economic sustainability of the farms.

#### 3. Question

With reference to coffee cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

• India is the only major coffee-producing country where the entire crop is grown under a two-tier shade canopy.

• Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state, followed by Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

• Indian coffee plantations are characterized by high biodiversity, often inter-cropping spices like pepper and cardamom.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. A unique and defining feature of Indian coffee is that 100% of it is shade-grown. It is cultivated under a diverse canopy of over 50 types of trees, which contributes to its mild acidity, full-bodied flavour, and distinct aroma, setting it apart from sun-grown coffee from other regions.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While Karnataka is the largest producer, contributing approximately 70% of India’s coffee, the second-largest producer is Kerala, not Andhra Pradesh. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer.

Statement 3 is correct. The shade-grown cultivation method makes Indian coffee plantations a model of high biodiversity. These plantations are not monocultures; they are often integrated ecosystems where various spices such as pepper, cardamom, cinnamon, and vanilla are grown alongside the coffee plants. This practice contributes to both the unique flavour profile of the coffee and the economic sustainability of the farms.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library (PMML): It is an autonomous institution functioning directly under the control of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO). The institution is located at the Teen Murti House, which was the official residence of Jawaharlal Nehru. Its sole objective is to preserve and promote the ideals and contributions of Jawaharlal Nehru. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMML is an autonomous institution governed by the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library Society, which operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture, not the Prime Minister’s Office. Its governance structure is distinct from the executive office of the PM. Statement 2 is correct. The PMML is located at the historic Teen Murti House. This estate served as the official residence of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, from 1948 until his death in 1964, after which it was converted into a museum and library dedicated to his memory, and later expanded to include all Prime Ministers. Statement 3 is incorrect. While it was originally established as the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library with a focus on Jawaharlal Nehru, its objective has been broadened. It is now dedicated to scholarly research on modern and contemporary Indian history and governance, with a scope that encompasses the lives and contributions of all Prime Ministers of India, not just Nehru. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMML is an autonomous institution governed by the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library Society, which operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture, not the Prime Minister’s Office. Its governance structure is distinct from the executive office of the PM. Statement 2 is correct. The PMML is located at the historic Teen Murti House. This estate served as the official residence of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, from 1948 until his death in 1964, after which it was converted into a museum and library dedicated to his memory, and later expanded to include all Prime Ministers. Statement 3 is incorrect. While it was originally established as the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library with a focus on Jawaharlal Nehru, its objective has been broadened. It is now dedicated to scholarly research on modern and contemporary Indian history and governance, with a scope that encompasses the lives and contributions of all Prime Ministers of India, not just Nehru.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library (PMML):

• It is an autonomous institution functioning directly under the control of the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).

• The institution is located at the Teen Murti House, which was the official residence of Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Its sole objective is to preserve and promote the ideals and contributions of Jawaharlal Nehru.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMML is an autonomous institution governed by the Prime Ministers’ Museum and Library Society, which operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Culture, not the Prime Minister’s Office. Its governance structure is distinct from the executive office of the PM.

• Statement 2 is correct. The PMML is located at the historic Teen Murti House. This estate served as the official residence of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, from 1948 until his death in 1964, after which it was converted into a museum and library dedicated to his memory, and later expanded to include all Prime Ministers.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While it was originally established as the Nehru Memorial Museum and Library with a focus on Jawaharlal Nehru, its objective has been broadened. It is now dedicated to scholarly research on modern and contemporary Indian history and governance, with a scope that encompasses the lives and contributions of all Prime Ministers of India, not just Nehru.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO) new spending target on defence and security: Statement-I: In response to heightened security threats, NATO members are considering adopting a new target to spend 5% of their GDP on defence and security. Statement-II: The new proposed target includes a component for broader security aspects like cyber defence and energy protection, in addition to core military spending. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Amid rising security concerns, particularly stemming from the war in Ukraine, NATO members are set to discuss and potentially adopt a new, more ambitious spending target of 5% of their combined GDP on defence and security. This marks a significant increase from the previous 2% target. Statement-II is also correct. The proposed 5% target is not solely for traditional military expenditure. It has a structured composition: 3.5% of GDP is allocated for core military spending (personnel, equipment), while the remaining 1.5% is designated for broader security investments, including critical areas like cyber defence, protecting energy infrastructure, and enhancing overall national resilience. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it clarifies the nature and composition of the new 5% target mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Amid rising security concerns, particularly stemming from the war in Ukraine, NATO members are set to discuss and potentially adopt a new, more ambitious spending target of 5% of their combined GDP on defence and security. This marks a significant increase from the previous 2% target. Statement-II is also correct. The proposed 5% target is not solely for traditional military expenditure. It has a structured composition: 3.5% of GDP is allocated for core military spending (personnel, equipment), while the remaining 1.5% is designated for broader security investments, including critical areas like cyber defence, protecting energy infrastructure, and enhancing overall national resilience. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it clarifies the nature and composition of the new 5% target mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO) new spending target on defence and security:

Statement-I: In response to heightened security threats, NATO members are considering adopting a new target to spend 5% of their GDP on defence and security.

Statement-II: The new proposed target includes a component for broader security aspects like cyber defence and energy protection, in addition to core military spending.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct. Amid rising security concerns, particularly stemming from the war in Ukraine, NATO members are set to discuss and potentially adopt a new, more ambitious spending target of 5% of their combined GDP on defence and security. This marks a significant increase from the previous 2% target.

Statement-II is also correct. The proposed 5% target is not solely for traditional military expenditure. It has a structured composition: 3.5% of GDP is allocated for core military spending (personnel, equipment), while the remaining 1.5% is designated for broader security investments, including critical areas like cyber defence, protecting energy infrastructure, and enhancing overall national resilience.

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it clarifies the nature and composition of the new 5% target mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because it clarifies the nature and composition of the new 5% target mentioned in Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Kosi River, consider the following statements: It is a trans-boundary river that originates in the Tibetan plateau and flows through Nepal before entering India. In India, it flows majorly through the state of Bihar. It is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganges River. The river is known for its highly braided channels and frequent, devastating floods. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Kosi River is a trans-boundary river. Its headwaters, including the Arun, Sun Kosi, and Tamur rivers, originate in the Himalayas of Tibet (China) and Nepal. The combined stream then flows through Nepal before entering the plains of India. Statement 2 is correct. Within India, the Kosi River flows primarily and almost entirely through the state of Bihar, where it has its most significant impact, before merging with the Ganges. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kosi River is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganges River. It joins the Ganges from the north, near Kursela in the Katihar district of Bihar. Right-bank tributaries of the Ganga include the Yamuna and Son. Statement 4 is correct. The Kosi carries a massive sediment load from the Himalayas, leading to the formation of a large alluvial fan. This causes its channel to be highly braided and to shift its course frequently and unpredictably, resulting in catastrophic floods. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Kosi River is a trans-boundary river. Its headwaters, including the Arun, Sun Kosi, and Tamur rivers, originate in the Himalayas of Tibet (China) and Nepal. The combined stream then flows through Nepal before entering the plains of India. Statement 2 is correct. Within India, the Kosi River flows primarily and almost entirely through the state of Bihar, where it has its most significant impact, before merging with the Ganges. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kosi River is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganges River. It joins the Ganges from the north, near Kursela in the Katihar district of Bihar. Right-bank tributaries of the Ganga include the Yamuna and Son. Statement 4 is correct. The Kosi carries a massive sediment load from the Himalayas, leading to the formation of a large alluvial fan. This causes its channel to be highly braided and to shift its course frequently and unpredictably, resulting in catastrophic floods.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Kosi River, consider the following statements:

• It is a trans-boundary river that originates in the Tibetan plateau and flows through Nepal before entering India.

• In India, it flows majorly through the state of Bihar.

• It is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganges River.

• The river is known for its highly braided channels and frequent, devastating floods.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Kosi River is a trans-boundary river. Its headwaters, including the Arun, Sun Kosi, and Tamur rivers, originate in the Himalayas of Tibet (China) and Nepal. The combined stream then flows through Nepal before entering the plains of India.

• Statement 2 is correct. Within India, the Kosi River flows primarily and almost entirely through the state of Bihar, where it has its most significant impact, before merging with the Ganges.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kosi River is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganges River. It joins the Ganges from the north, near Kursela in the Katihar district of Bihar. Right-bank tributaries of the Ganga include the Yamuna and Son.

Statement 4 is correct. The Kosi carries a massive sediment load from the Himalayas, leading to the formation of a large alluvial fan. This causes its channel to be highly braided and to shift its course frequently and unpredictably, resulting in catastrophic floods.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the command and advisory structure of the Indian Armed Forces: The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) and also functions as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister. The establishment of Integrated Theatre Commands is aimed at enhancing the individual war-fighting capabilities of the Army, Navy, and Air Force separately. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The position of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) has two key roles. The CDS heads the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence, and simultaneously serves as the Principal Military Adviser to the Raksha Mantri (Defence Minister) on all tri-service matters. This dual role is central to the mandate of the CDS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective of creating Integrated Theatre Commands is the opposite of what is stated. It is meant to integrate the capabilities of the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) under a single commander for a specific geographical area. The goal is to promote jointness and synergy, building joint war-fighting capabilities, not enhancing their separate or individual capacities. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The position of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) has two key roles. The CDS heads the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence, and simultaneously serves as the Principal Military Adviser to the Raksha Mantri (Defence Minister) on all tri-service matters. This dual role is central to the mandate of the CDS. Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective of creating Integrated Theatre Commands is the opposite of what is stated. It is meant to integrate the capabilities of the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) under a single commander for a specific geographical area. The goal is to promote jointness and synergy, building joint war-fighting capabilities, not enhancing their separate or individual capacities.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the command and advisory structure of the Indian Armed Forces:

• The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) and also functions as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister.

• The establishment of Integrated Theatre Commands is aimed at enhancing the individual war-fighting capabilities of the Army, Navy, and Air Force separately.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The position of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) has two key roles. The CDS heads the newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) within the Ministry of Defence, and simultaneously serves as the Principal Military Adviser to the Raksha Mantri (Defence Minister) on all tri-service matters. This dual role is central to the mandate of the CDS.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary objective of creating Integrated Theatre Commands is the opposite of what is stated. It is meant to integrate the capabilities of the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) under a single commander for a specific geographical area. The goal is to promote jointness and synergy, building joint war-fighting capabilities, not enhancing their separate or individual capacities.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to BSNL’s Quantum 5G Fixed Wireless Access (FWA), consider the following statements: It delivers high-speed internet by leveraging the existing optical fibre cable network. The technology stack, including the core network and Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), is entirely indigenous. The service has been initially launched in multiple metropolitan and Tier-II cities across India simultaneously. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Quantum 5G FWA is a wireless Its primary advantage is that it provides high-speed, fibre-like internet without the need for physical fibre connections to the premises. It uses 5G radio waves to transmit data from the tower to the Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), making it ideal for areas where laying fibre is difficult or costly. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this service, aligned with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative, is its fully indigenous technology stack. The core network, Radio Access Network (RAN), and the CPE have been developed and integrated by Indian vendors, ensuring data sovereignty and technological self-reliance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The service was soft-launched first in Hyderabad. While there is a roadmap for expansion to other pilot cities like Bengaluru, Pune, and Chandigarh by September 2025, the initial launch was not a simultaneous multi-city rollout. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Quantum 5G FWA is a wireless Its primary advantage is that it provides high-speed, fibre-like internet without the need for physical fibre connections to the premises. It uses 5G radio waves to transmit data from the tower to the Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), making it ideal for areas where laying fibre is difficult or costly. Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this service, aligned with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative, is its fully indigenous technology stack. The core network, Radio Access Network (RAN), and the CPE have been developed and integrated by Indian vendors, ensuring data sovereignty and technological self-reliance. Statement 3 is incorrect. The service was soft-launched first in Hyderabad. While there is a roadmap for expansion to other pilot cities like Bengaluru, Pune, and Chandigarh by September 2025, the initial launch was not a simultaneous multi-city rollout.

#### 8. Question

With reference to BSNL’s Quantum 5G Fixed Wireless Access (FWA), consider the following statements:

• It delivers high-speed internet by leveraging the existing optical fibre cable network.

• The technology stack, including the core network and Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), is entirely indigenous.

• The service has been initially launched in multiple metropolitan and Tier-II cities across India simultaneously.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Quantum 5G FWA is a wireless Its primary advantage is that it provides high-speed, fibre-like internet without the need for physical fibre connections to the premises. It uses 5G radio waves to transmit data from the tower to the Customer Premises Equipment (CPE), making it ideal for areas where laying fibre is difficult or costly.

• Statement 2 is correct. A key feature of this service, aligned with the ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ initiative, is its fully indigenous technology stack. The core network, Radio Access Network (RAN), and the CPE have been developed and integrated by Indian vendors, ensuring data sovereignty and technological self-reliance.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The service was soft-launched first in Hyderabad. While there is a roadmap for expansion to other pilot cities like Bengaluru, Pune, and Chandigarh by September 2025, the initial launch was not a simultaneous multi-city rollout.

Solution: B

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Fordow Nuclear Facility: Statement I: The Fordow facility is considered a highly critical and challenging target in Iran’s nuclear program. Statement II: The facility is located deep inside a mountain and is protected by multi-layered air defence systems. Statement III: It is primarily used for the research and development of civilian nuclear energy for power generation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. The Fordow Nuclear Facility is of immense strategic importance and a point of major concern for international bodies and other nations due to its role in Iran’s nuclear activities. Its resilience makes it a difficult target. Statement II is also correct and directly explains why Fordow is a critical and challenging target (Statement I). It is not a surface-level facility. It is buried approximately 80 metres deep inside a mountain near the city of Qom. This deep underground construction, reinforced with concrete and rock, combined with extensive and sophisticated air defence systems, makes it highly resistant to conventional military strikes. Statement III is incorrect. While Iran maintains its nuclear program is for peaceful purposes, the Fordow facility is not primarily for civilian power generation research. It has been used for enriching uranium to higher purity levels (up to 60%), which is significantly closer to the weapons-grade threshold (around 90%). This function is what makes it a central element in discussions about Iran’s potential nuclear weapons breakout capability, not its contribution to civilian energy. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. The Fordow Nuclear Facility is of immense strategic importance and a point of major concern for international bodies and other nations due to its role in Iran’s nuclear activities. Its resilience makes it a difficult target. Statement II is also correct and directly explains why Fordow is a critical and challenging target (Statement I). It is not a surface-level facility. It is buried approximately 80 metres deep inside a mountain near the city of Qom. This deep underground construction, reinforced with concrete and rock, combined with extensive and sophisticated air defence systems, makes it highly resistant to conventional military strikes. Statement III is incorrect. While Iran maintains its nuclear program is for peaceful purposes, the Fordow facility is not primarily for civilian power generation research. It has been used for enriching uranium to higher purity levels (up to 60%), which is significantly closer to the weapons-grade threshold (around 90%). This function is what makes it a central element in discussions about Iran’s potential nuclear weapons breakout capability, not its contribution to civilian energy.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Fordow Nuclear Facility:

Statement I: The Fordow facility is considered a highly critical and challenging target in Iran’s nuclear program.

Statement II: The facility is located deep inside a mountain and is protected by multi-layered air defence systems.

Statement III: It is primarily used for the research and development of civilian nuclear energy for power generation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• c) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I

• d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. The Fordow Nuclear Facility is of immense strategic importance and a point of major concern for international bodies and other nations due to its role in Iran’s nuclear activities. Its resilience makes it a difficult target.

• Statement II is also correct and directly explains why Fordow is a critical and challenging target (Statement I). It is not a surface-level facility. It is buried approximately 80 metres deep inside a mountain near the city of Qom. This deep underground construction, reinforced with concrete and rock, combined with extensive and sophisticated air defence systems, makes it highly resistant to conventional military strikes.

Statement III is incorrect. While Iran maintains its nuclear program is for peaceful purposes, the Fordow facility is not primarily for civilian power generation research. It has been used for enriching uranium to higher purity levels (up to 60%), which is significantly closer to the weapons-grade threshold (around 90%). This function is what makes it a central element in discussions about Iran’s potential nuclear weapons breakout capability, not its contribution to civilian energy.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With regard to the Digital Payments Award conferred by the Ministry of Finance, consider the following: The award is exclusively open to Payments Banks and Small Finance Banks. It recognizes initiatives that contribute to financial literacy and secure digital payment ecosystems. The performance of entities is benchmarked on an index that considers innovation and outreach. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility for the Digital Payments Award is broad and not exclusive. It is open to a wide range of financial service providers, including banks, payments banks, fintech companies, and other institutions that are actively promoting digital payments in India. Statement 2 is correct. The award’s objective goes beyond just transaction volumes. It aims to honor organizations that are building a holistic and sustainable digital ecosystem. This includes promoting financial literacy to onboard new users, ensuring the security of transactions to build trust, and enhancing the accessibility of digital payment services. Statement 3 is correct. The evaluation criteria for the award are comprehensive. Entities are assessed based on a performance index which quantitatively measures their contribution. Key parameters include the level of innovation in their products or delivery channels and the effectiveness of their outreach efforts, especially in underserved regions, to ensure inclusive growth. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility for the Digital Payments Award is broad and not exclusive. It is open to a wide range of financial service providers, including banks, payments banks, fintech companies, and other institutions that are actively promoting digital payments in India. Statement 2 is correct. The award’s objective goes beyond just transaction volumes. It aims to honor organizations that are building a holistic and sustainable digital ecosystem. This includes promoting financial literacy to onboard new users, ensuring the security of transactions to build trust, and enhancing the accessibility of digital payment services. Statement 3 is correct. The evaluation criteria for the award are comprehensive. Entities are assessed based on a performance index which quantitatively measures their contribution. Key parameters include the level of innovation in their products or delivery channels and the effectiveness of their outreach efforts, especially in underserved regions, to ensure inclusive growth.

#### 10. Question

With regard to the Digital Payments Award conferred by the Ministry of Finance, consider the following:

• The award is exclusively open to Payments Banks and Small Finance Banks.

• It recognizes initiatives that contribute to financial literacy and secure digital payment ecosystems.

• The performance of entities is benchmarked on an index that considers innovation and outreach.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The eligibility for the Digital Payments Award is broad and not exclusive. It is open to a wide range of financial service providers, including banks, payments banks, fintech companies, and other institutions that are actively promoting digital payments in India.

• Statement 2 is correct. The award’s objective goes beyond just transaction volumes. It aims to honor organizations that are building a holistic and sustainable digital ecosystem. This includes promoting financial literacy to onboard new users, ensuring the security of transactions to build trust, and enhancing the accessibility of digital payment services.

• Statement 3 is correct. The evaluation criteria for the award are comprehensive. Entities are assessed based on a performance index which quantitatively measures their contribution. Key parameters include the level of innovation in their products or delivery channels and the effectiveness of their outreach efforts, especially in underserved regions, to ensure inclusive growth.

Solution: D

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