UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Henley Passport Index 2025, which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary criterion for ranking the passports? (a) The number of countries a passport holder can enter based on visa-free access, visa-on-arrival, and pre-arranged visas combined. (b) The diplomatic strength and global perception of a country, measured through qualitative surveys. (c) The economic influence of a country, which directly facilitates visa liberalisation policies with other nations. (d) The total number of destinations a passport holder can access without requiring a visa prior to arrival. Correct Solution: D The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on a specific and quantitative metric: the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa. This includes scenarios where a visa is not needed at all (visa-free), where a visa can be obtained upon arrival (visa-on-arrival), or where an electronic travel authorization (eTA) can be acquired before departure. The index does not consider destinations for which a traditional pre-arranged visa is required from an embassy or consulate. It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), which maintains the world’s largest travel information database. Incorrect Solution: D The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on a specific and quantitative metric: the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa. This includes scenarios where a visa is not needed at all (visa-free), where a visa can be obtained upon arrival (visa-on-arrival), or where an electronic travel authorization (eTA) can be acquired before departure. The index does not consider destinations for which a traditional pre-arranged visa is required from an embassy or consulate. It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), which maintains the world’s largest travel information database.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Henley Passport Index 2025, which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary criterion for ranking the passports?

• (a) The number of countries a passport holder can enter based on visa-free access, visa-on-arrival, and pre-arranged visas combined.

• (b) The diplomatic strength and global perception of a country, measured through qualitative surveys.

• (c) The economic influence of a country, which directly facilitates visa liberalisation policies with other nations.

• (d) The total number of destinations a passport holder can access without requiring a visa prior to arrival.

Solution: D

• The Henley Passport Index ranks passports based on a specific and quantitative metric: the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa. This includes scenarios where a visa is not needed at all (visa-free), where a visa can be obtained upon arrival (visa-on-arrival), or where an electronic travel authorization (eTA) can be acquired before departure.

The index does not consider destinations for which a traditional pre-arranged visa is required from an embassy or consulate. It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), which maintains the world’s largest travel information database.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA): Its purview extends to all listed companies in India, regardless of the stock exchange they are listed on. It covers unlisted public companies with a paid-up capital of ₹500 crore or more, or an annual turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more. The Central Government can refer any entity, including private companies, for investigation by the NFRA in the public interest. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has a broad mandate designed to cover systemically important entities. Statement 1 is correct: NFRA’s jurisdiction covers companies whose securities are listed on any stock exchange in India or outside India. This ensures comprehensive oversight over entities that access public capital markets. Statement 2 is correct: The rules specify clear thresholds for large unlisted public companies. These include companies with a paid-up capital of not less than ₹500 crore, or an annual turnover of not less than ₹1,000 crore, or having aggregate outstanding loans, debentures, and deposits of not less than ₹500 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013, grants the Central Government the power to refer any body corporate or person to the NFRA for investigation if it deems it necessary in the public interest. This provides a flexible mechanism to address emerging financial irregularities in entities not automatically under NFRA’s purview. Incorrect Solution: C The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has a broad mandate designed to cover systemically important entities. Statement 1 is correct: NFRA’s jurisdiction covers companies whose securities are listed on any stock exchange in India or outside India. This ensures comprehensive oversight over entities that access public capital markets. Statement 2 is correct: The rules specify clear thresholds for large unlisted public companies. These include companies with a paid-up capital of not less than ₹500 crore, or an annual turnover of not less than ₹1,000 crore, or having aggregate outstanding loans, debentures, and deposits of not less than ₹500 crore. Statement 3 is correct: Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013, grants the Central Government the power to refer any body corporate or person to the NFRA for investigation if it deems it necessary in the public interest. This provides a flexible mechanism to address emerging financial irregularities in entities not automatically under NFRA’s purview.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):

• Its purview extends to all listed companies in India, regardless of the stock exchange they are listed on.

• It covers unlisted public companies with a paid-up capital of ₹500 crore or more, or an annual turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more.

• The Central Government can refer any entity, including private companies, for investigation by the NFRA in the public interest.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has a broad mandate designed to cover systemically important entities.

• Statement 1 is correct: NFRA’s jurisdiction covers companies whose securities are listed on any stock exchange in India or outside India. This ensures comprehensive oversight over entities that access public capital markets.

• Statement 2 is correct: The rules specify clear thresholds for large unlisted public companies. These include companies with a paid-up capital of not less than ₹500 crore, or an annual turnover of not less than ₹1,000 crore, or having aggregate outstanding loans, debentures, and deposits of not less than ₹500 crore.

Statement 3 is correct: Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013, grants the Central Government the power to refer any body corporate or person to the NFRA for investigation if it deems it necessary in the public interest. This provides a flexible mechanism to address emerging financial irregularities in entities not automatically under NFRA’s purview.

Solution: C

The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) has a broad mandate designed to cover systemically important entities.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the National Cooperative Policy – 2025, consider the following statements: It aims to establish at least one cooperative in every village to enhance rural economic integration. A key objective is to triple the cooperative sector’s contribution to the national GDP by 2034. The policy proposes the creation of new cooperatives in emerging sectors like green energy and insurance. It introduces a legal provision for the mandatory review and updation of cooperative laws every five years. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The National Cooperative Policy – 2025 is a comprehensive framework to revitalise India’s cooperative sector. Statement 1 is correct: A foundational goal of the policy is to ensure grassroots presence by establishing at least one cooperative in every village. Statement 2 is correct: The policy sets an ambitious economic target to triple the cooperative sector’s share in the nation’s GDP within a decade, aiming for 2034. Statement 3 is correct: To modernise and diversify the sector, the policy encourages the formation of new cooperatives in contemporary sectors such as taxi services, tourism, green energy, and insurance. Statement 4 is incorrect: The policy document states that legal provisions will be reviewed and updated to keep them relevant, but the specified timeframe is every 10 years, not every five years. Incorrect Solution: C The National Cooperative Policy – 2025 is a comprehensive framework to revitalise India’s cooperative sector. Statement 1 is correct: A foundational goal of the policy is to ensure grassroots presence by establishing at least one cooperative in every village. Statement 2 is correct: The policy sets an ambitious economic target to triple the cooperative sector’s share in the nation’s GDP within a decade, aiming for 2034. Statement 3 is correct: To modernise and diversify the sector, the policy encourages the formation of new cooperatives in contemporary sectors such as taxi services, tourism, green energy, and insurance. Statement 4 is incorrect: The policy document states that legal provisions will be reviewed and updated to keep them relevant, but the specified timeframe is every 10 years, not every five years.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the National Cooperative Policy – 2025, consider the following statements:

• It aims to establish at least one cooperative in every village to enhance rural economic integration.

• A key objective is to triple the cooperative sector’s contribution to the national GDP by 2034.

• The policy proposes the creation of new cooperatives in emerging sectors like green energy and insurance.

• It introduces a legal provision for the mandatory review and updation of cooperative laws every five years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

The National Cooperative Policy – 2025 is a comprehensive framework to revitalise India’s cooperative sector.

• Statement 1 is correct: A foundational goal of the policy is to ensure grassroots presence by establishing at least one cooperative in every village.

• Statement 2 is correct: The policy sets an ambitious economic target to triple the cooperative sector’s share in the nation’s GDP within a decade, aiming for 2034.

• Statement 3 is correct: To modernise and diversify the sector, the policy encourages the formation of new cooperatives in contemporary sectors such as taxi services, tourism, green energy, and insurance.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The policy document states that legal provisions will be reviewed and updated to keep them relevant, but the specified timeframe is every 10 years, not every five years.

Solution: C

The National Cooperative Policy – 2025 is a comprehensive framework to revitalise India’s cooperative sector.

• Statement 1 is correct: A foundational goal of the policy is to ensure grassroots presence by establishing at least one cooperative in every village.

• Statement 2 is correct: The policy sets an ambitious economic target to triple the cooperative sector’s share in the nation’s GDP within a decade, aiming for 2034.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3: It is a fire-and-forget missile that relies exclusively on a LASER guidance system for targeting. The missile has a uniform effective range for both day and night operations. It was developed solely by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) without private sector collaboration. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The ULPGM-V3 is a fire-and-forget missile, but its guidance is based on an imaging infrared (IIR) seeker, not a LASER guidance system. The IIR seeker allows for autonomous target acquisition and tracking during both day and night without external illumination. Statement 2 is incorrect: The missile’s effective range is not uniform. It has an extended range of 4 km for daytime operations, but this is reduced to 5 km during the night due to the operational characteristics of its IIR seeker and thermal contrast limitations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The development of ULPGM-V3 is a prime example of a public-private partnership under the Make in India initiative. It was developed by DRDO in collaboration with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), Adani Defence & Aerospace, and several MSMEs and start-ups. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The ULPGM-V3 is a fire-and-forget missile, but its guidance is based on an imaging infrared (IIR) seeker, not a LASER guidance system. The IIR seeker allows for autonomous target acquisition and tracking during both day and night without external illumination. Statement 2 is incorrect: The missile’s effective range is not uniform. It has an extended range of 4 km for daytime operations, but this is reduced to 5 km during the night due to the operational characteristics of its IIR seeker and thermal contrast limitations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The development of ULPGM-V3 is a prime example of a public-private partnership under the Make in India initiative. It was developed by DRDO in collaboration with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), Adani Defence & Aerospace, and several MSMEs and start-ups.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3:

• It is a fire-and-forget missile that relies exclusively on a LASER guidance system for targeting.

• The missile has a uniform effective range for both day and night operations.

• It was developed solely by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) without private sector collaboration.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The ULPGM-V3 is a fire-and-forget missile, but its guidance is based on an imaging infrared (IIR) seeker, not a LASER guidance system. The IIR seeker allows for autonomous target acquisition and tracking during both day and night without external illumination.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The missile’s effective range is not uniform. It has an extended range of 4 km for daytime operations, but this is reduced to 5 km during the night due to the operational characteristics of its IIR seeker and thermal contrast limitations.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The development of ULPGM-V3 is a prime example of a public-private partnership under the Make in India initiative. It was developed by DRDO in collaboration with Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), Adani Defence & Aerospace, and several MSMEs and start-ups.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the AI-driven Dynamic Targeting Technology developed by NASA, consider the following statements: The technology enables a satellite to physically alter its orbital path to avoid cloud cover over a target area. Its primary function is to enhance communication links between satellites by predicting atmospheric interference. The system uses an onboard AI processor to analyze sensor data and autonomously adjust the satellite’s imaging plan in real-time. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The technology focuses on intelligent data acquisition, not orbital maneuvering or communication enhancement. Statement 1 is incorrect: The satellite does not alter its orbital path. Instead, it uses a “pivot and shoot” mechanism. It tilts its sensor to look ahead, analyzes the upcoming terrain for clouds, and then adjusts its imaging angle to capture clear ground data without changing its fundamental orbit. This is a change in orientation, not trajectory. Statement 2 is incorrect: The purpose of Dynamic Targeting is to optimize Earth observation, specifically by avoiding clouds to maximize the yield of usable scientific imagery of the Earth’s surface. It is not designed for managing inter-satellite communication links or predicting atmospheric interference for that purpose. Statement 3 is correct: This is the core of the technology. It leverages onboard AI and edge processing to make autonomous decisions in space. The system analyzes data from a lookahead sensor in less than 90 seconds and decides whether to capture an image, thereby eliminating the delay of ground-based commands and significantly improving operational efficiency. Incorrect Solution: A The technology focuses on intelligent data acquisition, not orbital maneuvering or communication enhancement. Statement 1 is incorrect: The satellite does not alter its orbital path. Instead, it uses a “pivot and shoot” mechanism. It tilts its sensor to look ahead, analyzes the upcoming terrain for clouds, and then adjusts its imaging angle to capture clear ground data without changing its fundamental orbit. This is a change in orientation, not trajectory. Statement 2 is incorrect: The purpose of Dynamic Targeting is to optimize Earth observation, specifically by avoiding clouds to maximize the yield of usable scientific imagery of the Earth’s surface. It is not designed for managing inter-satellite communication links or predicting atmospheric interference for that purpose. Statement 3 is correct: This is the core of the technology. It leverages onboard AI and edge processing to make autonomous decisions in space. The system analyzes data from a lookahead sensor in less than 90 seconds and decides whether to capture an image, thereby eliminating the delay of ground-based commands and significantly improving operational efficiency.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the AI-driven Dynamic Targeting Technology developed by NASA, consider the following statements:

• The technology enables a satellite to physically alter its orbital path to avoid cloud cover over a target area.

• Its primary function is to enhance communication links between satellites by predicting atmospheric interference.

• The system uses an onboard AI processor to analyze sensor data and autonomously adjust the satellite’s imaging plan in real-time.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

The technology focuses on intelligent data acquisition, not orbital maneuvering or communication enhancement.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The satellite does not alter its orbital path. Instead, it uses a “pivot and shoot” mechanism. It tilts its sensor to look ahead, analyzes the upcoming terrain for clouds, and then adjusts its imaging angle to capture clear ground data without changing its fundamental orbit. This is a change in orientation, not trajectory.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The purpose of Dynamic Targeting is to optimize Earth observation, specifically by avoiding clouds to maximize the yield of usable scientific imagery of the Earth’s surface. It is not designed for managing inter-satellite communication links or predicting atmospheric interference for that purpose.

Statement 3 is correct: This is the core of the technology. It leverages onboard AI and edge processing to make autonomous decisions in space. The system analyzes data from a lookahead sensor in less than 90 seconds and decides whether to capture an image, thereby eliminating the delay of ground-based commands and significantly improving operational efficiency.

Solution: A

The technology focuses on intelligent data acquisition, not orbital maneuvering or communication enhancement.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following two statements: Statement-I: The establishment of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is considered a significant step towards enhancing investor confidence in India’s capital markets. Statement-II: NFRA acts as an independent regulator with powers to investigate and penalise misconduct by auditors of large public-interest entities, thereby filling an oversight gap previously managed by self-regulatory bodies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The creation of a strong, independent audit regulator like NFRA is globally recognised as a crucial reform for building trust in corporate financial disclosures. Reliable financial reporting is the bedrock of investor confidence, as it allows for informed investment decisions. Statement-II is correct. NFRA’s core function is to oversee the auditors of Public Interest Entities (PIEs), which include listed companies and large unlisted firms. Before NFRA, this oversight was primarily handled by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), a self-regulatory organisation. The perception of potential conflicts of interest in a self-regulatory model led to calls for an independent government-backed regulator. NFRA’s statutory powers to investigate, impose penalties, and debar auditors provide a credible deterrent against professional misconduct. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The creation of a strong, independent audit regulator like NFRA is globally recognised as a crucial reform for building trust in corporate financial disclosures. Reliable financial reporting is the bedrock of investor confidence, as it allows for informed investment decisions. Statement-II is correct. NFRA’s core function is to oversee the auditors of Public Interest Entities (PIEs), which include listed companies and large unlisted firms. Before NFRA, this oversight was primarily handled by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), a self-regulatory organisation. The perception of potential conflicts of interest in a self-regulatory model led to calls for an independent government-backed regulator. NFRA’s statutory powers to investigate, impose penalties, and debar auditors provide a credible deterrent against professional misconduct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following two statements:

Statement-I: The establishment of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is considered a significant step towards enhancing investor confidence in India’s capital markets.

Statement-II: NFRA acts as an independent regulator with powers to investigate and penalise misconduct by auditors of large public-interest entities, thereby filling an oversight gap previously managed by self-regulatory bodies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The creation of a strong, independent audit regulator like NFRA is globally recognised as a crucial reform for building trust in corporate financial disclosures. Reliable financial reporting is the bedrock of investor confidence, as it allows for informed investment decisions.

Statement-II is correct. NFRA’s core function is to oversee the auditors of Public Interest Entities (PIEs), which include listed companies and large unlisted firms. Before NFRA, this oversight was primarily handled by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), a self-regulatory organisation. The perception of potential conflicts of interest in a self-regulatory model led to calls for an independent government-backed regulator. NFRA’s statutory powers to investigate, impose penalties, and debar auditors provide a credible deterrent against professional misconduct.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Ta Muen Thom temple complex, a site of recent border tensions, is located on a strategic mountain pass along the historical highway that connected which two ancient centres? (a) Sukhothai (Thailand) and Pagan (Myanmar) (b) Phimai (Thailand) and Angkor (Cambodia) (c) Ayutthaya (Thailand) and Luang Prabang (Laos) (d) Borobudur (Indonesia) and Wat Phu (Laos) Correct Solution: B The Ta Muen Thom temple complex occupies a strategically significant location on the Dangrek mountain range, which forms a natural border between modern-day Thailand and Cambodia. This location was not arbitrary; it was situated on the ancient Khmer Highway. This major route was crucial for trade, pilgrimage, and military movements during the zenith of the Khmer Empire. It directly connected the empire’s grand capital, Angkor (in present-day Cambodia), with one of its major provincial administrative and religious centres, Phimai (in present-day northeastern Thailand). The temple complex itself, including structures like a hospital shrine and a rest house (Dharma Sala), served travellers along this vital artery. Incorrect Solution: B The Ta Muen Thom temple complex occupies a strategically significant location on the Dangrek mountain range, which forms a natural border between modern-day Thailand and Cambodia. This location was not arbitrary; it was situated on the ancient Khmer Highway. This major route was crucial for trade, pilgrimage, and military movements during the zenith of the Khmer Empire. It directly connected the empire’s grand capital, Angkor (in present-day Cambodia), with one of its major provincial administrative and religious centres, Phimai (in present-day northeastern Thailand). The temple complex itself, including structures like a hospital shrine and a rest house (Dharma Sala), served travellers along this vital artery.

#### 7. Question

The Ta Muen Thom temple complex, a site of recent border tensions, is located on a strategic mountain pass along the historical highway that connected which two ancient centres?

• (a) Sukhothai (Thailand) and Pagan (Myanmar)

• (b) Phimai (Thailand) and Angkor (Cambodia)

• (c) Ayutthaya (Thailand) and Luang Prabang (Laos)

• (d) Borobudur (Indonesia) and Wat Phu (Laos)

Solution: B

• The Ta Muen Thom temple complex occupies a strategically significant location on the Dangrek mountain range, which forms a natural border between modern-day Thailand and Cambodia.

• This location was not arbitrary; it was situated on the ancient Khmer Highway. This major route was crucial for trade, pilgrimage, and military movements during the zenith of the Khmer Empire.

• It directly connected the empire’s grand capital, Angkor (in present-day Cambodia), with one of its major provincial administrative and religious centres, Phimai (in present-day northeastern Thailand).

• The temple complex itself, including structures like a hospital shrine and a rest house (Dharma Sala), served travellers along this vital artery.

Solution: B

• The Ta Muen Thom temple complex occupies a strategically significant location on the Dangrek mountain range, which forms a natural border between modern-day Thailand and Cambodia.

• The temple complex itself, including structures like a hospital shrine and a rest house (Dharma Sala), served travellers along this vital artery.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The ‘Sahkar Taxi’ initiative, mentioned as part of the National Cooperative Policy – 2025, is primarily aimed at: (a) Providing subsidised transportation for members of cooperative societies in urban areas. (b) Creating a national-level logistics cooperative for inter-state transport of agricultural goods. (c) Establishing a driver-centric profit model in the taxi sector through cooperative ownership. (d) Integrating electric vehicles into the rural transport ecosystem through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Correct Solution: C The ‘Sahkar Taxi’ initiative is a novel proposal under the National Cooperative Policy – 2025 designed to introduce the cooperative model into the app-based taxi aggregation sector. Its primary objective is to create a driver-centric profit model. Unlike the prevailing aggregator models where a significant portion of the revenue is taken by the platform company, the Sahkar Taxi cooperative would be owned and operated by the drivers themselves. This ensures that profits are distributed among the driver-members, empowering them financially and creating a more equitable business ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C The ‘Sahkar Taxi’ initiative is a novel proposal under the National Cooperative Policy – 2025 designed to introduce the cooperative model into the app-based taxi aggregation sector. Its primary objective is to create a driver-centric profit model. Unlike the prevailing aggregator models where a significant portion of the revenue is taken by the platform company, the Sahkar Taxi cooperative would be owned and operated by the drivers themselves. This ensures that profits are distributed among the driver-members, empowering them financially and creating a more equitable business ecosystem.

#### 8. Question

The ‘Sahkar Taxi’ initiative, mentioned as part of the National Cooperative Policy – 2025, is primarily aimed at:

• (a) Providing subsidised transportation for members of cooperative societies in urban areas.

• (b) Creating a national-level logistics cooperative for inter-state transport of agricultural goods.

• (c) Establishing a driver-centric profit model in the taxi sector through cooperative ownership.

• (d) Integrating electric vehicles into the rural transport ecosystem through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).

Solution: C

• The ‘Sahkar Taxi’ initiative is a novel proposal under the National Cooperative Policy – 2025 designed to introduce the cooperative model into the app-based taxi aggregation sector. Its primary objective is to create a driver-centric profit model.

• Unlike the prevailing aggregator models where a significant portion of the revenue is taken by the platform company, the Sahkar Taxi cooperative would be owned and operated by the drivers themselves.

• This ensures that profits are distributed among the driver-members, empowering them financially and creating a more equitable business ecosystem.

Solution: C

• This ensures that profits are distributed among the driver-members, empowering them financially and creating a more equitable business ecosystem.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Henley Passport Index: The index is published annually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) based on data from national immigration authorities. The ranking gives additional weightage to passports of countries that are permanent members of the UN Security Council. Japan and Germany have consistently held the top position jointly for the last five years. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The Henley Passport Index is published by Henley & Partners, a private global citizenship and residence advisory firm, not the IMF. The data it uses is sourced primarily from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), not directly from national immigration authorities. Statement 2 is incorrect: The index’s methodology is purely quantitative and objective. It simply counts the number of destinations a passport can access without a prior visa. There is no political or qualitative weightage given to any country based on its status in international bodies like the UN Security Council. Each destination provides one point. Statement 3 is incorrect: While Japan and Germany are consistently high performers, they have not held the top position jointly for the last five years. The top ranks have seen shifts, with countries like Singapore now holding the number one spot in the 2025 index. Japan and South Korea share the 2nd position in the 2025 rankings. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: The Henley Passport Index is published by Henley & Partners, a private global citizenship and residence advisory firm, not the IMF. The data it uses is sourced primarily from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), not directly from national immigration authorities. Statement 2 is incorrect: The index’s methodology is purely quantitative and objective. It simply counts the number of destinations a passport can access without a prior visa. There is no political or qualitative weightage given to any country based on its status in international bodies like the UN Security Council. Each destination provides one point. Statement 3 is incorrect: While Japan and Germany are consistently high performers, they have not held the top position jointly for the last five years. The top ranks have seen shifts, with countries like Singapore now holding the number one spot in the 2025 index. Japan and South Korea share the 2nd position in the 2025 rankings.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Henley Passport Index:

• The index is published annually by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) based on data from national immigration authorities.

• The ranking gives additional weightage to passports of countries that are permanent members of the UN Security Council.

• Japan and Germany have consistently held the top position jointly for the last five years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Henley Passport Index is published by Henley & Partners, a private global citizenship and residence advisory firm, not the IMF. The data it uses is sourced primarily from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), not directly from national immigration authorities.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The index’s methodology is purely quantitative and objective. It simply counts the number of destinations a passport can access without a prior visa. There is no political or qualitative weightage given to any country based on its status in international bodies like the UN Security Council. Each destination provides one point.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While Japan and Germany are consistently high performers, they have not held the top position jointly for the last five years. The top ranks have seen shifts, with countries like Singapore now holding the number one spot in the 2025 index. Japan and South Korea share the 2nd position in the 2025 rankings.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following two statements regarding the ULPGM-V3 missile: Statement-I: The successful development of ULPGM-V3 enhances India’s strategic autonomy in UAV-based offensive operations. Statement-II: The missile is equipped with a two-way datalink, enabling real-time communication and mid-course target updates from the launch platform. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. By indigenously developing a sophisticated weapon like the ULPGM-V3, India reduces its dependence on foreign suppliers for armed drones and their munitions. This self-reliance in a critical defence technology directly translates to greater strategic autonomy, allowing India to deploy such assets in border surveillance, counter-insurgency, and tactical strike roles without external constraints. Statement-II is correct. A key advanced feature of the ULPGM-V3 is its two-way datalink. This allows the operator to receive feedback from the missile’s seeker and send mid-course updates, a capability often referred to as ‘man-in-the-loop’. This significantly enhances precision, especially against moving targets. However, while the datalink (Statement-II) is a crucial technological feature that makes the missile effective, the strategic autonomy (Statement-I) is a result of the entire act of indigenous development and manufacturing, not just one specific feature. Therefore, Statement-II is a correct fact but not the complete or correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. By indigenously developing a sophisticated weapon like the ULPGM-V3, India reduces its dependence on foreign suppliers for armed drones and their munitions. This self-reliance in a critical defence technology directly translates to greater strategic autonomy, allowing India to deploy such assets in border surveillance, counter-insurgency, and tactical strike roles without external constraints. Statement-II is correct. A key advanced feature of the ULPGM-V3 is its two-way datalink. This allows the operator to receive feedback from the missile’s seeker and send mid-course updates, a capability often referred to as ‘man-in-the-loop’. This significantly enhances precision, especially against moving targets. However, while the datalink (Statement-II) is a crucial technological feature that makes the missile effective, the strategic autonomy (Statement-I) is a result of the entire act of indigenous development and manufacturing, not just one specific feature. Therefore, Statement-II is a correct fact but not the complete or correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following two statements regarding the ULPGM-V3 missile:

Statement-I: The successful development of ULPGM-V3 enhances India’s strategic autonomy in UAV-based offensive operations.

Statement-II: The missile is equipped with a two-way datalink, enabling real-time communication and mid-course target updates from the launch platform.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. By indigenously developing a sophisticated weapon like the ULPGM-V3, India reduces its dependence on foreign suppliers for armed drones and their munitions. This self-reliance in a critical defence technology directly translates to greater strategic autonomy, allowing India to deploy such assets in border surveillance, counter-insurgency, and tactical strike roles without external constraints.

• Statement-II is correct. A key advanced feature of the ULPGM-V3 is its two-way datalink. This allows the operator to receive feedback from the missile’s seeker and send mid-course updates, a capability often referred to as ‘man-in-the-loop’. This significantly enhances precision, especially against moving targets.

• However, while the datalink (Statement-II) is a crucial technological feature that makes the missile effective, the strategic autonomy (Statement-I) is a result of the entire act of indigenous development and manufacturing, not just one specific feature. Therefore, Statement-II is a correct fact but not the complete or correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: B

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