UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the procedure for altering the name of a State in India under Article 3 of the Constitution, consider the following statements: A Bill for renaming a State can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President. The President is constitutionally bound to accept the views of the State Legislature regarding the proposed name change. Such a Bill is considered a Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 and requires a special majority in both Houses. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. The procedure is unique to India’s “indestructible Union of destructible States” Statement 1 is correct because any Bill for this purpose requires the prior recommendation of the President. Before recommending the Bill, the President refers it to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period. However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the Parliament (and the President) is not bound by the views of the State Legislature; it may accept or reject them, even if the views are received on time. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 4 of the Constitution explicitly states that laws made under Article 3 are not to be deemed as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. They can be passed by a simple majority through the ordinary legislative process. This ensures that the Union maintains territorial flexibility. The recent proposal to rename Kerala as ‘Keralam’ highlights this process, reflecting linguistic identity rooted in the Aikya Kerala movement. Incorrect Solution: B Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. The procedure is unique to India’s “indestructible Union of destructible States” Statement 1 is correct because any Bill for this purpose requires the prior recommendation of the President. Before recommending the Bill, the President refers it to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period. However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the Parliament (and the President) is not bound by the views of the State Legislature; it may accept or reject them, even if the views are received on time. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 4 of the Constitution explicitly states that laws made under Article 3 are not to be deemed as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. They can be passed by a simple majority through the ordinary legislative process. This ensures that the Union maintains territorial flexibility. The recent proposal to rename Kerala as ‘Keralam’ highlights this process, reflecting linguistic identity rooted in the Aikya Kerala movement.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the procedure for altering the name of a State in India under Article 3 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

• A Bill for renaming a State can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President.

• The President is constitutionally bound to accept the views of the State Legislature regarding the proposed name change.

• Such a Bill is considered a Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 and requires a special majority in both Houses.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States. The procedure is unique to India’s “indestructible Union of destructible States”

• Statement 1 is correct because any Bill for this purpose requires the prior recommendation of the President. Before recommending the Bill, the President refers it to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views within a specified period.

• However, Statement 2 is incorrect; the Parliament (and the President) is not bound by the views of the State Legislature; it may accept or reject them, even if the views are received on time.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 4 of the Constitution explicitly states that laws made under Article 3 are not to be deemed as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. They can be passed by a simple majority through the ordinary legislative process. This ensures that the Union maintains territorial flexibility. The recent proposal to rename Kerala as ‘Keralam’ highlights this process, reflecting linguistic identity rooted in the Aikya Kerala movement.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs of Military Exercises: Exercise Participating Nations Focus Area 1. DHARMA GUARDIAN India and Japan Semi-urban environment operations 2. VAJRA PRAHAR India and USA Special operations in mountainous terrain 3. SAMPRITI India and Israel Coastal security and anti-piracy Which of the pairs given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Military exercises are vital for interoperability and strategic cooperation. Pair 1 is correct; Exercise DHARMA GUARDIAN is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan Ground Self-Defense Force. It focuses on tactical drills in semi-urban environments, incorporating modern technology like ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance) Pair 2 is correct; Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR involves the Special Forces of India and the US (Green Berets). It is specifically designed to enhance coordination in mountainous terrain, focusing on mission planning and specialized tactics. Pair 3 is incorrect; SAMPRITI is a bilateral exercise between India and Bangladesh, not Israel. India and Israel share deep defense ties, including R&D and supply of defense systems, but the specific exercise mentioned is mispaired. These joint operations help participating nations share best practices and improve operational readiness against common security threats, such as terrorism or regional instability, through realistic combat simulations. Incorrect Solution: C Military exercises are vital for interoperability and strategic cooperation. Pair 1 is correct; Exercise DHARMA GUARDIAN is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan Ground Self-Defense Force. It focuses on tactical drills in semi-urban environments, incorporating modern technology like ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance) Pair 2 is correct; Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR involves the Special Forces of India and the US (Green Berets). It is specifically designed to enhance coordination in mountainous terrain, focusing on mission planning and specialized tactics. Pair 3 is incorrect; SAMPRITI is a bilateral exercise between India and Bangladesh, not Israel. India and Israel share deep defense ties, including R&D and supply of defense systems, but the specific exercise mentioned is mispaired. These joint operations help participating nations share best practices and improve operational readiness against common security threats, such as terrorism or regional instability, through realistic combat simulations.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs of Military Exercises:

Exercise | Participating Nations | Focus Area

1.DHARMA GUARDIAN | India and Japan | Semi-urban environment operations
2.VAJRA PRAHAR | India and USA | Special operations in mountainous terrain
3.SAMPRITI | India and Israel | Coastal security and anti-piracy

Which of the pairs given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Military exercises are vital for interoperability and strategic cooperation.

• Pair 1 is correct; Exercise DHARMA GUARDIAN is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the Japan Ground Self-Defense Force. It focuses on tactical drills in semi-urban environments, incorporating modern technology like ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance)

• Pair 2 is correct; Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR involves the Special Forces of India and the US (Green Berets). It is specifically designed to enhance coordination in mountainous terrain, focusing on mission planning and specialized tactics.

• Pair 3 is incorrect; SAMPRITI is a bilateral exercise between India and Bangladesh, not Israel. India and Israel share deep defense ties, including R&D and supply of defense systems, but the specific exercise mentioned is mispaired.

• These joint operations help participating nations share best practices and improve operational readiness against common security threats, such as terrorism or regional instability, through realistic combat simulations.

Solution: C

• Military exercises are vital for interoperability and strategic cooperation.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Congo Basin lakes: The blackwater appearance of Lakes Mai Ndombe and Tumba is due to low concentrations of humic acids. These lakes act as a significant source of CO2 emissions because of the decomposition of ancient peat carbon. The Tumba-Ngiri-Maindombe area is recognized under the Ramsar Convention as a Wetland of International Importance. Peat formation in this region occurs when dead vegetation accumulates slower than it decomposes in oxygen-rich conditions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the blackwater appearance is actually due to high concentrations (not low) of dissolved organic matter and humic acids. Statement 2 is correct; research shows that up to 40% of the CO2 from these lakes comes from ancient peat carbon (over 3,000 years old) being released into the atmosphere. Statement 3 is correct; the area is the world’s largest Ramsar site. Statement 4 is incorrect; peat formation occurs when vegetation accumulates faster than it decomposes, and this happens specifically in oxygen-poor (anaerobic), waterlogged conditions, not oxygen-rich ones. The “Central Basin” or Cuvette Centrale is a unique environment where climate change and drying are now “reactivating” these ancient stores, posing a threat to global carbon budgets. Protecting these wetlands is crucial because they cover only 0.3% of land but hold a disproportionate amount of tropical carbon. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the blackwater appearance is actually due to high concentrations (not low) of dissolved organic matter and humic acids. Statement 2 is correct; research shows that up to 40% of the CO2 from these lakes comes from ancient peat carbon (over 3,000 years old) being released into the atmosphere. Statement 3 is correct; the area is the world’s largest Ramsar site. Statement 4 is incorrect; peat formation occurs when vegetation accumulates faster than it decomposes, and this happens specifically in oxygen-poor (anaerobic), waterlogged conditions, not oxygen-rich ones. The “Central Basin” or Cuvette Centrale is a unique environment where climate change and drying are now “reactivating” these ancient stores, posing a threat to global carbon budgets. Protecting these wetlands is crucial because they cover only 0.3% of land but hold a disproportionate amount of tropical carbon.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Congo Basin lakes:

• The blackwater appearance of Lakes Mai Ndombe and Tumba is due to low concentrations of humic acids.

• These lakes act as a significant source of CO2 emissions because of the decomposition of ancient peat carbon.

• The Tumba-Ngiri-Maindombe area is recognized under the Ramsar Convention as a Wetland of International Importance.

• Peat formation in this region occurs when dead vegetation accumulates slower than it decomposes in oxygen-rich conditions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the blackwater appearance is actually due to high concentrations (not low) of dissolved organic matter and humic acids.

• Statement 2 is correct; research shows that up to 40% of the CO2 from these lakes comes from ancient peat carbon (over 3,000 years old) being released into the atmosphere.

• Statement 3 is correct; the area is the world’s largest Ramsar site.

• Statement 4 is incorrect; peat formation occurs when vegetation accumulates faster than it decomposes, and this happens specifically in oxygen-poor (anaerobic), waterlogged conditions, not oxygen-rich ones.

• The “Central Basin” or Cuvette Centrale is a unique environment where climate change and drying are now “reactivating” these ancient stores, posing a threat to global carbon budgets. Protecting these wetlands is crucial because they cover only 0.3% of land but hold a disproportionate amount of tropical carbon.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect; the blackwater appearance is actually due to high concentrations (not low) of dissolved organic matter and humic acids.

• Statement 2 is correct; research shows that up to 40% of the CO2 from these lakes comes from ancient peat carbon (over 3,000 years old) being released into the atmosphere.

• Statement 3 is correct; the area is the world’s largest Ramsar site.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Project Tiger: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented through the core–buffer strategy. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The buffer area of a tiger reserve is an inviolate space with the legal status of a National Park or Sanctuary. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Project Tiger, launched in 1973, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at tiger conservation. It utilizes a core–buffer strategy, where the core area is kept as an undisturbed habitat and the buffer area allows for human-wildlife coexistence. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, it functions under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Its primary role is to provide statutory backing to tiger conservation and oversee the implementation of Project Tiger. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the core–buffer strategy, it is the Core area that has the legal status of a National Park or Sanctuary and is intended to be kept inviolate (free from human disturbance). The Buffer area, on the other hand, consists of multiple-use landscapes where people-oriented development and livelihood activities are permitted alongside conservation goals. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Project Tiger, launched in 1973, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at tiger conservation. It utilizes a core–buffer strategy, where the core area is kept as an undisturbed habitat and the buffer area allows for human-wildlife coexistence. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, it functions under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Its primary role is to provide statutory backing to tiger conservation and oversee the implementation of Project Tiger. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the core–buffer strategy, it is the Core area that has the legal status of a National Park or Sanctuary and is intended to be kept inviolate (free from human disturbance). The Buffer area, on the other hand, consists of multiple-use landscapes where people-oriented development and livelihood activities are permitted alongside conservation goals.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Project Tiger:

• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented through the core–buffer strategy.

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• The buffer area of a tiger reserve is an inviolate space with the legal status of a National Park or Sanctuary.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Project Tiger, launched in 1973, is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at tiger conservation. It utilizes a core–buffer strategy, where the core area is kept as an undisturbed habitat and the buffer area allows for human-wildlife coexistence.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body, it functions under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Its primary role is to provide statutory backing to tiger conservation and oversee the implementation of Project Tiger.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the core–buffer strategy, it is the Core area that has the legal status of a National Park or Sanctuary and is intended to be kept inviolate (free from human disturbance). The Buffer area, on the other hand, consists of multiple-use landscapes where people-oriented development and livelihood activities are permitted alongside conservation goals.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Mons Mouton on the Moon: It is a flat-topped lunar mountain massif located near the lunar North Pole. The region is characterized by near-continuous sunlight and lacks permanently shadowed regions. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Mons Mouton is a large flat-topped lunar mountain massif located near the Moon’s South Pole, not the North Pole. It is situated approximately 160 km from the lunar south pole, close to the rim of the South Pole–Aitken (SPA) Basin. Geologically, Mons Mouton is believed to have formed during the ancient massive asteroid impacts that created the SPA Basin. The resulting rim uplift exposed the deep lunar crust, which provides a unique window into the Moon’s early formation and geological history, making it a high-priority target for scientific study. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the defining features of Mons Mouton and the broader lunar south polar region is its unique illumination conditions. While some areas on the mountain receive near-continuous sunlight (useful for solar power), other nearby areas are in permanent shadow. These permanently shadowed regions are of immense interest as they may contain lunar volatiles like water ice. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. Mons Mouton is a large flat-topped lunar mountain massif located near the Moon’s South Pole, not the North Pole. It is situated approximately 160 km from the lunar south pole, close to the rim of the South Pole–Aitken (SPA) Basin. Geologically, Mons Mouton is believed to have formed during the ancient massive asteroid impacts that created the SPA Basin. The resulting rim uplift exposed the deep lunar crust, which provides a unique window into the Moon’s early formation and geological history, making it a high-priority target for scientific study. Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the defining features of Mons Mouton and the broader lunar south polar region is its unique illumination conditions. While some areas on the mountain receive near-continuous sunlight (useful for solar power), other nearby areas are in permanent shadow. These permanently shadowed regions are of immense interest as they may contain lunar volatiles like water ice.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Mons Mouton on the Moon:

• It is a flat-topped lunar mountain massif located near the lunar North Pole.

• The region is characterized by near-continuous sunlight and lacks permanently shadowed regions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mons Mouton is a large flat-topped lunar mountain massif located near the Moon’s South Pole, not the North Pole. It is situated approximately 160 km from the lunar south pole, close to the rim of the South Pole–Aitken (SPA) Basin.

• Geologically, Mons Mouton is believed to have formed during the ancient massive asteroid impacts that created the SPA Basin. The resulting rim uplift exposed the deep lunar crust, which provides a unique window into the Moon’s early formation and geological history, making it a high-priority target for scientific study.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the defining features of Mons Mouton and the broader lunar south polar region is its unique illumination conditions. While some areas on the mountain receive near-continuous sunlight (useful for solar power), other nearby areas are in permanent shadow. These permanently shadowed regions are of immense interest as they may contain lunar volatiles like water ice.

Solution: D

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following describes the IMPACT framework mentioned in the context of India–Malaysia relations? (a) A military cooperation pact for maritime security in the South China Sea. (b) A bilateral agreement on the repatriation of historical artifacts. (c) A framework for the joint production of high-end semiconductor chips. (d) A strategic vision for economic growth, digital integration, and diaspora ties. Correct Solution: D The IMPACT framework stands for India–Malaysia Partnership for Advancing Collective Transformation. It was articulated by the Prime Minister of India to define a strategic vision that moves bilateral ties beyond transactional engagement. The framework focuses on economic and technology cooperation, digital connectivity (such as the launch of UPI in Malaysia), diaspora linkages (leveraging the second-largest Indian-origin community globally), and cultural bonds. It aims to position the India–Malaysia relationship as a driver for Asia’s collective growth. While maritime security and strategic regional outlooks are part of the broader partnership, the acronym “IMPACT” specifically encapsulates the digital, economic, and people-centric pillars of the bilateral transformation. It emphasizes “soft power” elements like the expansion of OCI eligibility to the 6th generation and historical civilizational links. Incorrect Solution: D The IMPACT framework stands for India–Malaysia Partnership for Advancing Collective Transformation. It was articulated by the Prime Minister of India to define a strategic vision that moves bilateral ties beyond transactional engagement. The framework focuses on economic and technology cooperation, digital connectivity (such as the launch of UPI in Malaysia), diaspora linkages (leveraging the second-largest Indian-origin community globally), and cultural bonds. It aims to position the India–Malaysia relationship as a driver for Asia’s collective growth. While maritime security and strategic regional outlooks are part of the broader partnership, the acronym “IMPACT” specifically encapsulates the digital, economic, and people-centric pillars of the bilateral transformation. It emphasizes “soft power” elements like the expansion of OCI eligibility to the 6th generation and historical civilizational links.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following describes the IMPACT framework mentioned in the context of India–Malaysia relations?

• (a) A military cooperation pact for maritime security in the South China Sea.

• (b) A bilateral agreement on the repatriation of historical artifacts.

• (c) A framework for the joint production of high-end semiconductor chips.

• (d) A strategic vision for economic growth, digital integration, and diaspora ties.

Solution: D

• The IMPACT framework stands for India–Malaysia Partnership for Advancing Collective Transformation. It was articulated by the Prime Minister of India to define a strategic vision that moves bilateral ties beyond transactional engagement.

• The framework focuses on economic and technology cooperation, digital connectivity (such as the launch of UPI in Malaysia), diaspora linkages (leveraging the second-largest Indian-origin community globally), and cultural bonds.

• It aims to position the India–Malaysia relationship as a driver for Asia’s collective growth. While maritime security and strategic regional outlooks are part of the broader partnership, the acronym “IMPACT” specifically encapsulates the digital, economic, and people-centric pillars of the bilateral transformation. It emphasizes “soft power” elements like the expansion of OCI eligibility to the 6th generation and historical civilizational links.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme: The scheme is a central sector initiative implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA) to integrate cooperatives into the Ayushman Bharat ecosystem. It provides financial assistance only to those cooperative societies that are registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act. The scheme includes a specific financial incentive in the form of an interest rebate for cooperatives where women hold a majority ownership. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Ayushman Sahakar Scheme is a unique initiative designed to bridge the gap between cooperative societies and healthcare infrastructure. Statement 1 is incorrect because while it aligns with the National Health Policy 2017, it is implemented by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), not the NHA. The NCDC functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Cooperation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the eligibility criteria are broad; any cooperative society registered under either the State Cooperative Societies Act or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act can apply, provided their bye-laws contain provisions for healthcare services. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme specifically incentivizes women’s participation in the cooperative sector. It offers a 1% interest rebate to women-majority cooperatives to encourage community-owned healthcare delivery. The scheme provides term loans for up to 8 years with a moratorium of 1-2 years. It signifies a move toward decentralized healthcare, focusing on holistic and affordable services. By leveraging the vast network of cooperatives, the government aims to strengthen AYUSH services and digital health participation, particularly in rural areas where traditional infrastructure may be lacking. Incorrect Solution: A The Ayushman Sahakar Scheme is a unique initiative designed to bridge the gap between cooperative societies and healthcare infrastructure. Statement 1 is incorrect because while it aligns with the National Health Policy 2017, it is implemented by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), not the NHA. The NCDC functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Cooperation. Statement 2 is incorrect because the eligibility criteria are broad; any cooperative society registered under either the State Cooperative Societies Act or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act can apply, provided their bye-laws contain provisions for healthcare services. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme specifically incentivizes women’s participation in the cooperative sector. It offers a 1% interest rebate to women-majority cooperatives to encourage community-owned healthcare delivery. The scheme provides term loans for up to 8 years with a moratorium of 1-2 years. It signifies a move toward decentralized healthcare, focusing on holistic and affordable services. By leveraging the vast network of cooperatives, the government aims to strengthen AYUSH services and digital health participation, particularly in rural areas where traditional infrastructure may be lacking.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme:

• The scheme is a central sector initiative implemented by the National Health Authority (NHA) to integrate cooperatives into the Ayushman Bharat ecosystem.

• It provides financial assistance only to those cooperative societies that are registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act.

• The scheme includes a specific financial incentive in the form of an interest rebate for cooperatives where women hold a majority ownership.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Ayushman Sahakar Scheme is a unique initiative designed to bridge the gap between cooperative societies and healthcare infrastructure.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while it aligns with the National Health Policy 2017, it is implemented by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC), not the NHA. The NCDC functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Cooperation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the eligibility criteria are broad; any cooperative society registered under either the State Cooperative Societies Act or the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act can apply, provided their bye-laws contain provisions for healthcare services.

• Statement 3 is correct as the scheme specifically incentivizes women’s participation in the cooperative sector. It offers a 1% interest rebate to women-majority cooperatives to encourage community-owned healthcare delivery. The scheme provides term loans for up to 8 years with a moratorium of 1-2 years. It signifies a move toward decentralized healthcare, focusing on holistic and affordable services.

• By leveraging the vast network of cooperatives, the government aims to strengthen AYUSH services and digital health participation, particularly in rural areas where traditional infrastructure may be lacking.

Solution: A

• The Ayushman Sahakar Scheme is a unique initiative designed to bridge the gap between cooperative societies and healthcare infrastructure.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) facilitates the integration of Compressed Biogas (CBG) into the City Gas Distribution (CGD) networks. Statement-II: The integration of domestically produced CBG reduces the reliance on imported Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) and enhances India’s energy security. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct because the PNGRB has recently approved guidelines specifically allowing the injection of Compressed Biogas (CBG) into both Natural Gas Pipelines (NGPL) and City Gas Distribution (CGD) As a statutory body established under the PNGRB Act, 2006, it regulates the midstream and downstream sectors, ensuring that infrastructure is used efficiently to reach the end consumer. Statement-II is correct and provides the underlying rationale for the regulatory shift. India currently imports a significant portion of its natural gas requirement as LNG. By mainstreaming “green gas” like CBG—which is produced from agricultural and organic waste—the country utilizes indigenous resources. This integration is crucial for energy security as it creates a circular economy, provides a stable evacuation route for CBG producers, and ensures a cleaner fuel mix for the transport and domestic sectors. Since the objective of promoting CBG integration (Statement-I) is driven by the need for energy independence and security (Statement-II), the latter is the correct explanation for the former. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct because the PNGRB has recently approved guidelines specifically allowing the injection of Compressed Biogas (CBG) into both Natural Gas Pipelines (NGPL) and City Gas Distribution (CGD) As a statutory body established under the PNGRB Act, 2006, it regulates the midstream and downstream sectors, ensuring that infrastructure is used efficiently to reach the end consumer. Statement-II is correct and provides the underlying rationale for the regulatory shift. India currently imports a significant portion of its natural gas requirement as LNG. By mainstreaming “green gas” like CBG—which is produced from agricultural and organic waste—the country utilizes indigenous resources. This integration is crucial for energy security as it creates a circular economy, provides a stable evacuation route for CBG producers, and ensures a cleaner fuel mix for the transport and domestic sectors. Since the objective of promoting CBG integration (Statement-I) is driven by the need for energy independence and security (Statement-II), the latter is the correct explanation for the former.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) facilitates the integration of Compressed Biogas (CBG) into the City Gas Distribution (CGD) networks.

Statement-II: The integration of domestically produced CBG reduces the reliance on imported Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) and enhances India’s energy security.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct because the PNGRB has recently approved guidelines specifically allowing the injection of Compressed Biogas (CBG) into both Natural Gas Pipelines (NGPL) and City Gas Distribution (CGD) As a statutory body established under the PNGRB Act, 2006, it regulates the midstream and downstream sectors, ensuring that infrastructure is used efficiently to reach the end consumer.

• Statement-II is correct and provides the underlying rationale for the regulatory shift. India currently imports a significant portion of its natural gas requirement as LNG. By mainstreaming “green gas” like CBG—which is produced from agricultural and organic waste—the country utilizes indigenous resources. This integration is crucial for energy security as it creates a circular economy, provides a stable evacuation route for CBG producers, and ensures a cleaner fuel mix for the transport and domestic sectors.

• Since the objective of promoting CBG integration (Statement-I) is driven by the need for energy independence and security (Statement-II), the latter is the correct explanation for the former.

Solution: A

• Since the objective of promoting CBG integration (Statement-I) is driven by the need for energy independence and security (Statement-II), the latter is the correct explanation for the former.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, consider the following statements: The Act applies primarily to government servants and does not extend its jurisdiction to private individuals or Indian citizens residing abroad. A person can be prosecuted under the Act for communicating with foreign agents, and such association can be treated as evidence of an offense against State security. Courts can take cognizance of an offense under the OSA based on a private complaint filed by any citizen of India. The Act allows the exclusion of the public from court proceedings if the disclosure of evidence is deemed prejudicial to the security of the State. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, is a colonial-era legislation that remains a cornerstone of India’s national security legal framework. Statement 1 is incorrect because the OSA has a very broad scope; it applies to all persons, including government servants, private citizens, and companies. Crucially, it has extra-territorial jurisdiction, meaning it applies to Indian citizens even when they are outside the country. Statement 2 is correct under Section 4 of the Act, which stipulates that contact with foreign agents can be used as evidence in a prosecution related to espionage or threats to state integrity. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 13 of the Act places a restriction on trials. A court can only take cognizance of an offense if the complaint is authorized by the appropriate Government or an officer empowered by it. This ensures executive oversight before a trial begins. Statement 4 is correct as Section 14 allows for in-camera If the publication of evidence is likely to harm the security of the State, the court may exclude the public from the proceedings. The Act continues to be relevant for retired personnel, as seen in recent guidelines regarding the publication of memoirs by former defense officials. Incorrect Solution: B The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, is a colonial-era legislation that remains a cornerstone of India’s national security legal framework. Statement 1 is incorrect because the OSA has a very broad scope; it applies to all persons, including government servants, private citizens, and companies. Crucially, it has extra-territorial jurisdiction, meaning it applies to Indian citizens even when they are outside the country. Statement 2 is correct under Section 4 of the Act, which stipulates that contact with foreign agents can be used as evidence in a prosecution related to espionage or threats to state integrity. Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 13 of the Act places a restriction on trials. A court can only take cognizance of an offense if the complaint is authorized by the appropriate Government or an officer empowered by it. This ensures executive oversight before a trial begins. Statement 4 is correct as Section 14 allows for in-camera If the publication of evidence is likely to harm the security of the State, the court may exclude the public from the proceedings. The Act continues to be relevant for retired personnel, as seen in recent guidelines regarding the publication of memoirs by former defense officials.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, consider the following statements:

• The Act applies primarily to government servants and does not extend its jurisdiction to private individuals or Indian citizens residing abroad.

• A person can be prosecuted under the Act for communicating with foreign agents, and such association can be treated as evidence of an offense against State security.

• Courts can take cognizance of an offense under the OSA based on a private complaint filed by any citizen of India.

• The Act allows the exclusion of the public from court proceedings if the disclosure of evidence is deemed prejudicial to the security of the State.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, is a colonial-era legislation that remains a cornerstone of India’s national security legal framework.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the OSA has a very broad scope; it applies to all persons, including government servants, private citizens, and companies. Crucially, it has extra-territorial jurisdiction, meaning it applies to Indian citizens even when they are outside the country.

• Statement 2 is correct under Section 4 of the Act, which stipulates that contact with foreign agents can be used as evidence in a prosecution related to espionage or threats to state integrity.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because Section 13 of the Act places a restriction on trials. A court can only take cognizance of an offense if the complaint is authorized by the appropriate Government or an officer empowered by it. This ensures executive oversight before a trial begins.

• Statement 4 is correct as Section 14 allows for in-camera If the publication of evidence is likely to harm the security of the State, the court may exclude the public from the proceedings. The Act continues to be relevant for retired personnel, as seen in recent guidelines regarding the publication of memoirs by former defense officials.

Solution: B

• The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, is a colonial-era legislation that remains a cornerstone of India’s national security legal framework.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The “Cikai Korran” name, recently discovered in the Valley of the Kings, Egypt, provides evidence for which of the following? (a) The spread of Buddhism to North Africa during the Ashokan period. (b) The diplomatic missions sent by the Chola Empire to the Mediterranean. (c) The presence of Tamil traders or visitors in the Nile Valley during the Roman era (d) The migration of Indus Valley people to the Egyptian civilization. Correct Solution: C The discovery of Tamil Brahmi inscriptions in the Valley of the Kings is a significant archaeological milestone. Option (c) is the correct answer. These inscriptions, dating from the 1st to 3rd centuries CE, include the repeated name “Cikai Korran” across multiple tombs. This suggests that Indian individuals, likely traders or maritime travelers, were not just visiting coastal ports like Berenike on the Red Sea but were traveling deep into the Egyptian mainland along the Nile River. The presence of Tamil, Prakrit, and Sanskrit names indicates a diverse group of Indians involved in Indo-Roman trade networks. This period corresponds to the Sangam era in South India, known for its flourishing maritime commerce. The inscriptions were found alongside Greek graffiti, showing that Indian visitors followed the local custom of commemorating their presence in sacred or significant sites. This discovery reinforces the historical depth of trans-oceanic cultural interactions and proves that the ancient world was highly interconnected through robust trade routes. Incorrect Solution: C The discovery of Tamil Brahmi inscriptions in the Valley of the Kings is a significant archaeological milestone. Option (c) is the correct answer. These inscriptions, dating from the 1st to 3rd centuries CE, include the repeated name “Cikai Korran” across multiple tombs. This suggests that Indian individuals, likely traders or maritime travelers, were not just visiting coastal ports like Berenike on the Red Sea but were traveling deep into the Egyptian mainland along the Nile River. The presence of Tamil, Prakrit, and Sanskrit names indicates a diverse group of Indians involved in Indo-Roman trade networks. This period corresponds to the Sangam era in South India, known for its flourishing maritime commerce. The inscriptions were found alongside Greek graffiti, showing that Indian visitors followed the local custom of commemorating their presence in sacred or significant sites. This discovery reinforces the historical depth of trans-oceanic cultural interactions and proves that the ancient world was highly interconnected through robust trade routes.

#### 10. Question

The “Cikai Korran” name, recently discovered in the Valley of the Kings, Egypt, provides evidence for which of the following?

• (a) The spread of Buddhism to North Africa during the Ashokan period.

• (b) The diplomatic missions sent by the Chola Empire to the Mediterranean.

• (c) The presence of Tamil traders or visitors in the Nile Valley during the Roman era

• (d) The migration of Indus Valley people to the Egyptian civilization.

Solution: C

• The discovery of Tamil Brahmi inscriptions in the Valley of the Kings is a significant archaeological milestone.

• Option (c) is the correct answer. These inscriptions, dating from the 1st to 3rd centuries CE, include the repeated name “Cikai Korran” across multiple tombs. This suggests that Indian individuals, likely traders or maritime travelers, were not just visiting coastal ports like Berenike on the Red Sea but were traveling deep into the Egyptian mainland along the Nile River.

• The presence of Tamil, Prakrit, and Sanskrit names indicates a diverse group of Indians involved in Indo-Roman trade networks. This period corresponds to the Sangam era in South India, known for its flourishing maritime commerce. The inscriptions were found alongside Greek graffiti, showing that Indian visitors followed the local custom of commemorating their presence in sacred or significant sites.

• This discovery reinforces the historical depth of trans-oceanic cultural interactions and proves that the ancient world was highly interconnected through robust trade routes.

Solution: C

• The discovery of Tamil Brahmi inscriptions in the Valley of the Kings is a significant archaeological milestone.

• This discovery reinforces the historical depth of trans-oceanic cultural interactions and proves that the ancient world was highly interconnected through robust trade routes.

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