UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 26 April 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission. Statement-I: The Finance Commission ensures fiscal decentralization in India. Statement-II: It increases the borrowing capacity of States under Article 293 of the Constitution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement I is correct. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism, by recommending the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid, enabling states to function with autonomy. Statement II is incorrect. The power to regulate borrowing of States under Article 293 lies with the Central Government, not the Finance Commission. The FC neither authorizes nor regulates borrowing. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement I is correct. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism, by recommending the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid, enabling states to function with autonomy. Statement II is incorrect. The power to regulate borrowing of States under Article 293 lies with the Central Government, not the Finance Commission. The FC neither authorizes nor regulates borrowing.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission.
Statement-I: The Finance Commission ensures fiscal decentralization in India. Statement-II: It increases the borrowing capacity of States under Article 293 of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
Statement I is correct. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism, by recommending the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid, enabling states to function with autonomy. Statement II is incorrect. The power to regulate borrowing of States under Article 293 lies with the Central Government, not the Finance Commission. The FC neither authorizes nor regulates borrowing.
Solution: c)
Statement I is correct. The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in fiscal federalism, by recommending the devolution of taxes and grants-in-aid, enabling states to function with autonomy. Statement II is incorrect. The power to regulate borrowing of States under Article 293 lies with the Central Government, not the Finance Commission. The FC neither authorizes nor regulates borrowing.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones. Statement-I: Eco-Sensitive Zones help reduce the impact of human activity on India’s protected areas. Statement-II: ESZs function as eco-industrial corridors to enhance sustainable mining and thermal energy production. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement I is correct. ESZs serve as transition or buffer zones that regulate development around Protected Areas, thereby protecting core habitats. Statement II is incorrect. ESZs prohibit mining and polluting industries, and are not intended as industrial corridors. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement I is correct. ESZs serve as transition or buffer zones that regulate development around Protected Areas, thereby protecting core habitats. Statement II is incorrect. ESZs prohibit mining and polluting industries, and are not intended as industrial corridors.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones.
Statement-I: Eco-Sensitive Zones help reduce the impact of human activity on India’s protected areas. Statement-II: ESZs function as eco-industrial corridors to enhance sustainable mining and thermal energy production.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
Statement I is correct. ESZs serve as transition or buffer zones that regulate development around Protected Areas, thereby protecting core habitats. Statement II is incorrect. ESZs prohibit mining and polluting industries, and are not intended as industrial corridors.
Solution: c)
Statement I is correct. ESZs serve as transition or buffer zones that regulate development around Protected Areas, thereby protecting core habitats. Statement II is incorrect. ESZs prohibit mining and polluting industries, and are not intended as industrial corridors.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the core technological principle behind the Kavach system? a) Satellite-based GPS navigation for real-time control b) RFID-based signalling communication between train and trackside systems c) AI-based object detection through thermal imaging d) Blockchain-based data validation of train schedules Correct Solution: b) Kavach operates through Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) and ultra-high frequency (UHF) communication between the locomotive, track, and signalling infrastructure. These components collectively form an interconnected network that ensures automatic braking, speed regulation, and signal adherence. Unlike satellite or GPS-based navigation systems, which are external, RFID tags are installed along the tracks and communicate directly with onboard and trackside devices, ensuring reliability even in low-visibility or harsh weather. Incorrect Solution: b) Kavach operates through Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) and ultra-high frequency (UHF) communication between the locomotive, track, and signalling infrastructure. These components collectively form an interconnected network that ensures automatic braking, speed regulation, and signal adherence. Unlike satellite or GPS-based navigation systems, which are external, RFID tags are installed along the tracks and communicate directly with onboard and trackside devices, ensuring reliability even in low-visibility or harsh weather.
#### 3. Question
Which of the following best explains the core technological principle behind the Kavach system?
• a) Satellite-based GPS navigation for real-time control
• b) RFID-based signalling communication between train and trackside systems
• c) AI-based object detection through thermal imaging
• d) Blockchain-based data validation of train schedules
Solution: b)
Kavach operates through Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) and ultra-high frequency (UHF) communication between the locomotive, track, and signalling infrastructure. These components collectively form an interconnected network that ensures automatic braking, speed regulation, and signal adherence.
Unlike satellite or GPS-based navigation systems, which are external, RFID tags are installed along the tracks and communicate directly with onboard and trackside devices, ensuring reliability even in low-visibility or harsh weather.
Solution: b)
Kavach operates through Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) and ultra-high frequency (UHF) communication between the locomotive, track, and signalling infrastructure. These components collectively form an interconnected network that ensures automatic braking, speed regulation, and signal adherence.
Unlike satellite or GPS-based navigation systems, which are external, RFID tags are installed along the tracks and communicate directly with onboard and trackside devices, ensuring reliability even in low-visibility or harsh weather.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding X-band radar: It is ideal for long-range maritime surveillance because of its deep atmospheric penetration. It can detect rainfall and cloud structures with fine spatial resolution. It uses Rayleigh scattering principles to analyze small object movements like raindrops. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statements 2 and 3 are correct. X-band radar excels in meteorological applications, including cloud tracking, rain rate estimation, and short-range storm monitoring, owing to its short wavelength. It also relies on Rayleigh scattering, where the object size is much smaller than the wavelength, making it effective in analyzing droplet-scale movements. Statement 1 is incorrect — X-band radars have limited range due to signal attenuation and are not used for maritime or long-distance surveillance; lower frequency bands like S- or L-band are preferred there. X-band Radar Feature Details Purpose Monitors smaller particles like rain droplets or soil movements. Frequency Range 8-12 GHz (corresponds to wavelengths of 2-4 cm). Technology Uses Doppler radar and Rayleigh scattering to detect object movement. Resolution Produces higher resolution images due to shorter wavelength. Range Shorter range compared to lower frequency bands, ideal for localized studies. Application in Wayanad Will monitor soil movement for landslide warnings and high temporal sampling. Meteorological Use Tracks clouds, rain patterns, and storm formation in real time. Limitations Shorter range due to higher attenuation of the signal. Previous Installation in India First X-band radar installed in New Delhi in 1970. Incorrect Solution: b) Statements 2 and 3 are correct. X-band radar excels in meteorological applications, including cloud tracking, rain rate estimation, and short-range storm monitoring, owing to its short wavelength. It also relies on Rayleigh scattering, where the object size is much smaller than the wavelength, making it effective in analyzing droplet-scale movements. Statement 1 is incorrect — X-band radars have limited range due to signal attenuation and are not used for maritime or long-distance surveillance; lower frequency bands like S- or L-band are preferred there. X-band Radar Feature Details Purpose Monitors smaller particles like rain droplets or soil movements. Frequency Range 8-12 GHz (corresponds to wavelengths of 2-4 cm). Technology Uses Doppler radar and Rayleigh scattering to detect object movement. Resolution Produces higher resolution images due to shorter wavelength. Range Shorter range compared to lower frequency bands, ideal for localized studies. Application in Wayanad Will monitor soil movement for landslide warnings and high temporal sampling. Meteorological Use Tracks clouds, rain patterns, and storm formation in real time. Limitations Shorter range due to higher attenuation of the signal. Previous Installation in India First X-band radar installed in New Delhi in 1970.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding X-band radar:
• It is ideal for long-range maritime surveillance because of its deep atmospheric penetration.
• It can detect rainfall and cloud structures with fine spatial resolution.
• It uses Rayleigh scattering principles to analyze small object movements like raindrops.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. X-band radar excels in meteorological applications, including cloud tracking, rain rate estimation, and short-range storm monitoring, owing to its short wavelength. It also relies on Rayleigh scattering, where the object size is much smaller than the wavelength, making it effective in analyzing droplet-scale movements. Statement 1 is incorrect — X-band radars have limited range due to signal attenuation and are not used for maritime or long-distance surveillance; lower frequency bands like S- or L-band are preferred there.
X-band Radar
Feature | Details
Purpose | Monitors smaller particles like rain droplets or soil movements.
Frequency Range | 8-12 GHz (corresponds to wavelengths of 2-4 cm).
Technology | Uses Doppler radar and Rayleigh scattering to detect object movement.
Resolution | Produces higher resolution images due to shorter wavelength.
Range | Shorter range compared to lower frequency bands, ideal for localized studies.
Application in Wayanad | Will monitor soil movement for landslide warnings and high temporal sampling.
Meteorological Use | Tracks clouds, rain patterns, and storm formation in real time.
Limitations | Shorter range due to higher attenuation of the signal.
Previous Installation in India | First X-band radar installed in New Delhi in 1970.
Solution: b)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. X-band radar excels in meteorological applications, including cloud tracking, rain rate estimation, and short-range storm monitoring, owing to its short wavelength. It also relies on Rayleigh scattering, where the object size is much smaller than the wavelength, making it effective in analyzing droplet-scale movements. Statement 1 is incorrect — X-band radars have limited range due to signal attenuation and are not used for maritime or long-distance surveillance; lower frequency bands like S- or L-band are preferred there.
X-band Radar
Feature | Details
Purpose | Monitors smaller particles like rain droplets or soil movements.
Frequency Range | 8-12 GHz (corresponds to wavelengths of 2-4 cm).
Technology | Uses Doppler radar and Rayleigh scattering to detect object movement.
Resolution | Produces higher resolution images due to shorter wavelength.
Range | Shorter range compared to lower frequency bands, ideal for localized studies.
Application in Wayanad | Will monitor soil movement for landslide warnings and high temporal sampling.
Meteorological Use | Tracks clouds, rain patterns, and storm formation in real time.
Limitations | Shorter range due to higher attenuation of the signal.
Previous Installation in India | First X-band radar installed in New Delhi in 1970.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN) and India’s mineral strategy: India is a net exporter of lithium and cobalt, supplying global EV industries. MSFN provides India access to rare earth processing technologies unavailable domestically. India’s engagement with MSFN aligns with its ambitions under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. India’s inclusion in MSFN supports its PLI-linked industries such as EVs, semiconductors, and solar modules, all of which require stable mineral inputs. Statement 1 is incorrect — India is a net importer of critical minerals, especially lithium and cobalt, with negligible domestic reserves. Statement 2 is incorrect — MSFN is primarily about financing supply chains, not technology transfer. Rare earth processing remains a tech-sensitive sector, often guarded by dominant players like China. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. India’s inclusion in MSFN supports its PLI-linked industries such as EVs, semiconductors, and solar modules, all of which require stable mineral inputs. Statement 1 is incorrect — India is a net importer of critical minerals, especially lithium and cobalt, with negligible domestic reserves. Statement 2 is incorrect — MSFN is primarily about financing supply chains, not technology transfer. Rare earth processing remains a tech-sensitive sector, often guarded by dominant players like China.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN) and India’s mineral strategy:
• India is a net exporter of lithium and cobalt, supplying global EV industries.
• MSFN provides India access to rare earth processing technologies unavailable domestically.
• India’s engagement with MSFN aligns with its ambitions under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Only Statement 3 is correct.
• India’s inclusion in MSFN supports its PLI-linked industries such as EVs, semiconductors, and solar modules, all of which require stable mineral inputs.
• Statement 1 is incorrect — India is a net importer of critical minerals, especially lithium and cobalt, with negligible domestic reserves.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — MSFN is primarily about financing supply chains, not technology transfer. Rare earth processing remains a tech-sensitive sector, often guarded by dominant players like China.
Solution: a)
Only Statement 3 is correct.
• India’s inclusion in MSFN supports its PLI-linked industries such as EVs, semiconductors, and solar modules, all of which require stable mineral inputs.
• Statement 1 is incorrect — India is a net importer of critical minerals, especially lithium and cobalt, with negligible domestic reserves.
• Statement 2 is incorrect — MSFN is primarily about financing supply chains, not technology transfer. Rare earth processing remains a tech-sensitive sector, often guarded by dominant players like China.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC): The ICC was established by a UN Security Council Resolution under UN Charter. It has universal jurisdiction over all crimes against humanity committed globally. It is empowered to try individuals only when they are serving heads of state. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) All statements are incorrect. The ICC was established by the Rome Statute (1998), an independent treaty, not by a UNSC resolution. It does not have universal jurisdiction; it can act only where a crime occurs in a member state, or the accused is a citizen of a member state, or via UNSC referral. The ICC tries individuals regardless of rank, and has indicted serving heads of state like Sudan’s Omar al-Bashir, but its jurisdiction is not limited to them. Incorrect Solution: d) All statements are incorrect. The ICC was established by the Rome Statute (1998), an independent treaty, not by a UNSC resolution. It does not have universal jurisdiction; it can act only where a crime occurs in a member state, or the accused is a citizen of a member state, or via UNSC referral. The ICC tries individuals regardless of rank, and has indicted serving heads of state like Sudan’s Omar al-Bashir, but its jurisdiction is not limited to them.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):
• The ICC was established by a UN Security Council Resolution under UN Charter.
• It has universal jurisdiction over all crimes against humanity committed globally.
• It is empowered to try individuals only when they are serving heads of state.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: d)
All statements are incorrect.
• The ICC was established by the Rome Statute (1998), an independent treaty, not by a UNSC resolution.
• It does not have universal jurisdiction; it can act only where a crime occurs in a member state, or the accused is a citizen of a member state, or via UNSC referral.
• The ICC tries individuals regardless of rank, and has indicted serving heads of state like Sudan’s Omar al-Bashir, but its jurisdiction is not limited to them.
Solution: d)
All statements are incorrect.
• The ICC was established by the Rome Statute (1998), an independent treaty, not by a UNSC resolution.
• It does not have universal jurisdiction; it can act only where a crime occurs in a member state, or the accused is a citizen of a member state, or via UNSC referral.
• The ICC tries individuals regardless of rank, and has indicted serving heads of state like Sudan’s Omar al-Bashir, but its jurisdiction is not limited to them.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following best reflects the original geopolitical context in which ASEAN was formed in 1967? a) Regional stability amidst Cold War-era ideological tensions b) Promotion of military integration among post-colonial Asian states c) Need to counter Chinese influence in Indo-China following the Korean War d) Alignment of Southeast Asian nations against non-aligned bloc policies Correct Solution: a) ASEAN was formed in 1967 during the Cold War, primarily to maintain regional peace and political stability. The founding members—Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand—sought to limit the spread of communism and foster economic and political cooperation to ensure peace in post-colonial Southeast Asia. Though China’s rise and U.S.-Soviet rivalry loomed in the background, ASEAN’s immediate focus was internal cohesion in a fragile geopolitical landscape, not military alignment or ideological confrontation. Incorrect Solution: a) ASEAN was formed in 1967 during the Cold War, primarily to maintain regional peace and political stability. The founding members—Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand—sought to limit the spread of communism and foster economic and political cooperation to ensure peace in post-colonial Southeast Asia. Though China’s rise and U.S.-Soviet rivalry loomed in the background, ASEAN’s immediate focus was internal cohesion in a fragile geopolitical landscape, not military alignment or ideological confrontation.
#### 7. Question
Which of the following best reflects the original geopolitical context in which ASEAN was formed in 1967?
• a) Regional stability amidst Cold War-era ideological tensions
• b) Promotion of military integration among post-colonial Asian states
• c) Need to counter Chinese influence in Indo-China following the Korean War
• d) Alignment of Southeast Asian nations against non-aligned bloc policies
Solution: a)
ASEAN was formed in 1967 during the Cold War, primarily to maintain regional peace and political stability. The founding members—Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand—sought to limit the spread of communism and foster economic and political cooperation to ensure peace in post-colonial Southeast Asia. Though China’s rise and U.S.-Soviet rivalry loomed in the background, ASEAN’s immediate focus was internal cohesion in a fragile geopolitical landscape, not military alignment or ideological confrontation.
Solution: a)
ASEAN was formed in 1967 during the Cold War, primarily to maintain regional peace and political stability. The founding members—Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand—sought to limit the spread of communism and foster economic and political cooperation to ensure peace in post-colonial Southeast Asia. Though China’s rise and U.S.-Soviet rivalry loomed in the background, ASEAN’s immediate focus was internal cohesion in a fragile geopolitical landscape, not military alignment or ideological confrontation.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points The Manama Dialogue serves as a critical forum primarily for: a) Legal arbitration between Gulf countries and Western powers b) Economic integration among oil-exporting nations in the Middle East c) Strategic dialogue on regional security and diplomacy in West Asia d) Military pact formulation among the Arab League countries Correct Solution: c) The Manama Dialogue, hosted annually in Bahrain and organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS), provides a geopolitical and strategic platform for countries across the Middle East, Asia, Europe, and North America. Its core purpose is security dialogue, especially regarding regional conflicts, power rivalries, and diplomatic trends. While economic and defense dimensions are discussed, it is not a military alliance platform, nor does it serve as a legal arbitration body. The 2024 theme, emphasizing Middle Eastern leadership in prosperity and security, underscores its role in diplomatic thought-leadership, not binding decisions. Incorrect Solution: c) The Manama Dialogue, hosted annually in Bahrain and organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS), provides a geopolitical and strategic platform for countries across the Middle East, Asia, Europe, and North America. Its core purpose is security dialogue, especially regarding regional conflicts, power rivalries, and diplomatic trends. While economic and defense dimensions are discussed, it is not a military alliance platform, nor does it serve as a legal arbitration body. The 2024 theme, emphasizing Middle Eastern leadership in prosperity and security, underscores its role in diplomatic thought-leadership, not binding decisions.
#### 8. Question
The Manama Dialogue serves as a critical forum primarily for:
• a) Legal arbitration between Gulf countries and Western powers
• b) Economic integration among oil-exporting nations in the Middle East
• c) Strategic dialogue on regional security and diplomacy in West Asia
• d) Military pact formulation among the Arab League countries
Solution: c)
The Manama Dialogue, hosted annually in Bahrain and organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS), provides a geopolitical and strategic platform for countries across the Middle East, Asia, Europe, and North America. Its core purpose is security dialogue, especially regarding regional conflicts, power rivalries, and diplomatic trends. While economic and defense dimensions are discussed, it is not a military alliance platform, nor does it serve as a legal arbitration body. The 2024 theme, emphasizing Middle Eastern leadership in prosperity and security, underscores its role in diplomatic thought-leadership, not binding decisions.
Solution: c)
The Manama Dialogue, hosted annually in Bahrain and organized by the International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS), provides a geopolitical and strategic platform for countries across the Middle East, Asia, Europe, and North America. Its core purpose is security dialogue, especially regarding regional conflicts, power rivalries, and diplomatic trends. While economic and defense dimensions are discussed, it is not a military alliance platform, nor does it serve as a legal arbitration body. The 2024 theme, emphasizing Middle Eastern leadership in prosperity and security, underscores its role in diplomatic thought-leadership, not binding decisions.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA): It is the largest free trade area in terms of participating countries since the WTO. It mandates a single African customs authority with uniform external tariffs. It aims to eliminate tariffs on 90% of goods traded within Africa. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The AfCFTA, launched in 2018, is the largest trade bloc by membership since the WTO’s formation, covering all 55 AU states (though implementation varies). Its objective includes removing tariffs on 90% of intra-African goods, aiming to boost regional trade, currently under 15%. Statement 2 is incorrect — AfCFTA does not enforce a single customs authority or tariff; each state maintains its own, though harmonization efforts are underway through rules of origin and tariff schedules. Incorrect Solution: b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The AfCFTA, launched in 2018, is the largest trade bloc by membership since the WTO’s formation, covering all 55 AU states (though implementation varies). Its objective includes removing tariffs on 90% of intra-African goods, aiming to boost regional trade, currently under 15%. Statement 2 is incorrect — AfCFTA does not enforce a single customs authority or tariff; each state maintains its own, though harmonization efforts are underway through rules of origin and tariff schedules.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA):
• It is the largest free trade area in terms of participating countries since the WTO.
• It mandates a single African customs authority with uniform external tariffs.
• It aims to eliminate tariffs on 90% of goods traded within Africa.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• The AfCFTA, launched in 2018, is the largest trade bloc by membership since the WTO’s formation, covering all 55 AU states (though implementation varies).
Its objective includes removing tariffs on 90% of intra-African goods, aiming to boost regional trade, currently under 15%. Statement 2 is incorrect — AfCFTA does not enforce a single customs authority or tariff; each state maintains its own, though harmonization efforts are underway through rules of origin and tariff schedules.
Solution: b)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• The AfCFTA, launched in 2018, is the largest trade bloc by membership since the WTO’s formation, covering all 55 AU states (though implementation varies).
Its objective includes removing tariffs on 90% of intra-African goods, aiming to boost regional trade, currently under 15%. Statement 2 is incorrect — AfCFTA does not enforce a single customs authority or tariff; each state maintains its own, though harmonization efforts are underway through rules of origin and tariff schedules.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Majuli is located in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region. It was formed by volcanic activity. UNESCO has already inscribed Majuli as a World Heritage Site. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1: Majuli is located within the Brahmaputra River, not in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region. Statement 2: Majuli’s origin is fluvial, formed by sediment deposition and channel shifting of the Brahmaputra—not volcanic. Statement 3: Majuli is currently proposed, but not yet inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Its inclusion is pending, subject to documentation and evaluation. Thus, none of the statements hold. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1: Majuli is located within the Brahmaputra River, not in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region. Statement 2: Majuli’s origin is fluvial, formed by sediment deposition and channel shifting of the Brahmaputra—not volcanic. Statement 3: Majuli is currently proposed, but not yet inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Its inclusion is pending, subject to documentation and evaluation. Thus, none of the statements hold.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Majuli is located in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region.
• It was formed by volcanic activity.
• UNESCO has already inscribed Majuli as a World Heritage Site.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: d)
Statement 1: Majuli is located within the Brahmaputra River, not in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region. Statement 2: Majuli’s origin is fluvial, formed by sediment deposition and channel shifting of the Brahmaputra—not volcanic. Statement 3: Majuli is currently proposed, but not yet inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Its inclusion is pending, subject to documentation and evaluation. Thus, none of the statements hold.
Solution: d)
Statement 1: Majuli is located within the Brahmaputra River, not in the Ganga-Brahmaputra deltaic region. Statement 2: Majuli’s origin is fluvial, formed by sediment deposition and channel shifting of the Brahmaputra—not volcanic. Statement 3: Majuli is currently proposed, but not yet inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Its inclusion is pending, subject to documentation and evaluation. Thus, none of the statements hold.
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