UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 September 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the L-1 Visa of the United States, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It is a non-immigrant visa designed for students pursuing specialized technical courses in U.S. universities. (b) The L-1 visa has a strict annual numerical cap, which often leads to a lottery system for applicants. (c) It allows for 'dual intent', meaning a holder can apply for a Green Card without jeopardizing their current visa status. (d) An employee must have worked for the parent company for a minimum of five continuous years before being eligible for an intra-company transfer. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. The L-1 visa is for intra-company transfers of employees (managers, executives, or those with specialized knowledge), not for students. Student visas typically fall under F-1 or M-1 categories. Option (b) is incorrect. A key advantage of the L-1 visa over the H-1B visa is that it has no annual cap or lottery system. This makes it a more predictable pathway for multinational companies to transfer employees. Option (c) is correct. The L-1 visa allows for ‘dual intent’. This legal provision permits visa holders to temporarily work in the U.S. while simultaneously pursuing lawful permanent residency (a Green Card). This is a significant feature not available with all non-immigrant visas. Option (d) is incorrect. The eligibility requirement is that the employee must have worked for the company abroad for at least one continuous year within the last three years, not five years. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. The L-1 visa is for intra-company transfers of employees (managers, executives, or those with specialized knowledge), not for students. Student visas typically fall under F-1 or M-1 categories. Option (b) is incorrect. A key advantage of the L-1 visa over the H-1B visa is that it has no annual cap or lottery system. This makes it a more predictable pathway for multinational companies to transfer employees. Option (c) is correct. The L-1 visa allows for ‘dual intent’. This legal provision permits visa holders to temporarily work in the U.S. while simultaneously pursuing lawful permanent residency (a Green Card). This is a significant feature not available with all non-immigrant visas. Option (d) is incorrect. The eligibility requirement is that the employee must have worked for the company abroad for at least one continuous year within the last three years, not five years.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the L-1 Visa of the United States, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is a non-immigrant visa designed for students pursuing specialized technical courses in U.S. universities.

• (b) The L-1 visa has a strict annual numerical cap, which often leads to a lottery system for applicants.

• (c) It allows for 'dual intent', meaning a holder can apply for a Green Card without jeopardizing their current visa status.

• (d) An employee must have worked for the parent company for a minimum of five continuous years before being eligible for an intra-company transfer.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. The L-1 visa is for intra-company transfers of employees (managers, executives, or those with specialized knowledge), not for students. Student visas typically fall under F-1 or M-1 categories.

• Option (b) is incorrect. A key advantage of the L-1 visa over the H-1B visa is that it has no annual cap or lottery system. This makes it a more predictable pathway for multinational companies to transfer employees.

• Option (c) is correct. The L-1 visa allows for ‘dual intent’. This legal provision permits visa holders to temporarily work in the U.S. while simultaneously pursuing lawful permanent residency (a Green Card). This is a significant feature not available with all non-immigrant visas.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The eligibility requirement is that the employee must have worked for the company abroad for at least one continuous year within the last three years, not five years.

Solution: C

• Option (d) is incorrect. The eligibility requirement is that the employee must have worked for the company abroad for at least one continuous year within the last three years, not five years.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: List-I (Dam/Project) List-II (River) 1. Almatti Dam Krishna 2. Srisailam Dam Godavari 3. Jurala Project Krishna 4. Prakasam Barrage Pennar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Almatti Dam is a major hydroelectric and irrigation project built across the Krishna River in the Bijapur (Vijayapura) district of Karnataka. It is the main reservoir of the Upper Krishna Irrigation Project. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River, not the Godavari. It is located on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and is a significant project for both power generation and irrigation. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Jurala Project, also known as the Priyadarshini Jurala Project, is located on the Krishna River in Telangana. It is the first major project on the river as it enters the state. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Prakasam Barrage is built across the Krishna River at Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. It is a crucial structure for irrigating the Krishna delta region. The Pennar is a separate river system. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Almatti Dam is a major hydroelectric and irrigation project built across the Krishna River in the Bijapur (Vijayapura) district of Karnataka. It is the main reservoir of the Upper Krishna Irrigation Project. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River, not the Godavari. It is located on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and is a significant project for both power generation and irrigation. Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Jurala Project, also known as the Priyadarshini Jurala Project, is located on the Krishna River in Telangana. It is the first major project on the river as it enters the state. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Prakasam Barrage is built across the Krishna River at Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. It is a crucial structure for irrigating the Krishna delta region. The Pennar is a separate river system.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs:

List-I (Dam/Project) | List-II (River)

1.Almatti Dam | Krishna
2.Srisailam Dam | Godavari
3.Jurala Project | Krishna
4.Prakasam Barrage | Pennar

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Almatti Dam is a major hydroelectric and irrigation project built across the Krishna River in the Bijapur (Vijayapura) district of Karnataka. It is the main reservoir of the Upper Krishna Irrigation Project.

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River, not the Godavari. It is located on the border of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and is a significant project for both power generation and irrigation.

• Pair 3 is correctly matched. The Jurala Project, also known as the Priyadarshini Jurala Project, is located on the Krishna River in Telangana. It is the first major project on the river as it enters the state.

• Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. The Prakasam Barrage is built across the Krishna River at Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh. It is a crucial structure for irrigating the Krishna delta region. The Pennar is a separate river system.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Paracetamol: It is classified as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is highly effective in reducing inflammation-related pain. Excessive consumption beyond the recommended daily dosage can lead to severe hepatotoxicity (liver damage). Which of the above statements are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer). It is distinct from NSAIDs like ibuprofen or aspirin. While it relieves pain, it has very weak anti-inflammatory properties and is less effective than NSAIDs for inflammation-related pain like arthritis. Statement 2 is correct. While generally safe when taken as directed, Paracetamol has a narrow therapeutic index. Overdosing, typically exceeding 3-4 grams per day for an adult, can cause severe and potentially fatal liver damage (hepatotoxicity). This is one of its most significant limitations and risks. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer). It is distinct from NSAIDs like ibuprofen or aspirin. While it relieves pain, it has very weak anti-inflammatory properties and is less effective than NSAIDs for inflammation-related pain like arthritis. Statement 2 is correct. While generally safe when taken as directed, Paracetamol has a narrow therapeutic index. Overdosing, typically exceeding 3-4 grams per day for an adult, can cause severe and potentially fatal liver damage (hepatotoxicity). This is one of its most significant limitations and risks.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Paracetamol:

• It is classified as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is highly effective in reducing inflammation-related pain.

• Excessive consumption beyond the recommended daily dosage can lead to severe hepatotoxicity (liver damage).

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer). It is distinct from NSAIDs like ibuprofen or aspirin. While it relieves pain, it has very weak anti-inflammatory properties and is less effective than NSAIDs for inflammation-related pain like arthritis.

• Statement 2 is correct. While generally safe when taken as directed, Paracetamol has a narrow therapeutic index. Overdosing, typically exceeding 3-4 grams per day for an adult, can cause severe and potentially fatal liver damage (hepatotoxicity). This is one of its most significant limitations and risks.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to Estonia, consider the following statements: It is a landlocked country located in Northeastern Europe. Estonia is a member of both the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and the European Union (EU). Article 5 of the NATO treaty, which Estonia can invoke, pertains to mutual consultation when a member’s territorial integrity is threatened. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Estonia is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline along the Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland. It shares land borders with Russia and Latvia. A key feature of its geography is its maritime access. Statement 2 is correct. Estonia strategically aligned with Western institutions after regaining independence. It joined both NATO and the EU in 2004, which is central to its national security and foreign policy. Statement 3 is incorrect. The article pertaining to mutual consultation when territorial integrity is threatened is Article 4. Article 5 is the collective defence clause, which states that an attack on one member is an attack on all. This is a much stronger commitment and has only been invoked once in NATO’s history (after the 9/11 attacks). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Estonia is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline along the Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland. It shares land borders with Russia and Latvia. A key feature of its geography is its maritime access. Statement 2 is correct. Estonia strategically aligned with Western institutions after regaining independence. It joined both NATO and the EU in 2004, which is central to its national security and foreign policy. Statement 3 is incorrect. The article pertaining to mutual consultation when territorial integrity is threatened is Article 4. Article 5 is the collective defence clause, which states that an attack on one member is an attack on all. This is a much stronger commitment and has only been invoked once in NATO’s history (after the 9/11 attacks).

#### 4. Question

With reference to Estonia, consider the following statements:

• It is a landlocked country located in Northeastern Europe.

• Estonia is a member of both the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and the European Union (EU).

• Article 5 of the NATO treaty, which Estonia can invoke, pertains to mutual consultation when a member’s territorial integrity is threatened.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Estonia is not landlocked. It has an extensive coastline along the Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland. It shares land borders with Russia and Latvia. A key feature of its geography is its maritime access.

• Statement 2 is correct. Estonia strategically aligned with Western institutions after regaining independence. It joined both NATO and the EU in 2004, which is central to its national security and foreign policy.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The article pertaining to mutual consultation when territorial integrity is threatened is Article 4. Article 5 is the collective defence clause, which states that an attack on one member is an attack on all. This is a much stronger commitment and has only been invoked once in NATO’s history (after the 9/11 attacks).

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Exercise Cold Start: It is a bilateral exercise conducted annually between India and the United States. The exercise is designed to test the integration of drones, UAVs, and counter-drone systems in a simulated conflict scenario. The conceptual framework for the exercise is inspired by the ‘Sudarshan Chakra’ model for integrated defence. It involves participation solely from the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Cold Start is an indigenous tri-service exercise, not a bilateral exercise with the United States. It involves internal evaluation of India’s capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The primary aim of the exercise is to evaluate operational readiness against aerial threats posed by drones and UAVs. It focuses on testing defence responses, jamming, and electronic warfare systems in this specific domain of modern warfare. Statement 3 is correct. The exercise’s concept is inspired by the Sudarshan Chakra model, which envisages an integrated, multi-layered defence mechanism against a wide spectrum of aerial threats, including drones, UAVs, and hypersonic missiles. Statement 4 is incorrect. The exercise is explicitly described as a “tri-service” drill, meaning it involves joint participation from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, highlighting the importance of jointness in modern warfare. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Cold Start is an indigenous tri-service exercise, not a bilateral exercise with the United States. It involves internal evaluation of India’s capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The primary aim of the exercise is to evaluate operational readiness against aerial threats posed by drones and UAVs. It focuses on testing defence responses, jamming, and electronic warfare systems in this specific domain of modern warfare. Statement 3 is correct. The exercise’s concept is inspired by the Sudarshan Chakra model, which envisages an integrated, multi-layered defence mechanism against a wide spectrum of aerial threats, including drones, UAVs, and hypersonic missiles. Statement 4 is incorrect. The exercise is explicitly described as a “tri-service” drill, meaning it involves joint participation from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, highlighting the importance of jointness in modern warfare.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Exercise Cold Start:

• It is a bilateral exercise conducted annually between India and the United States.

• The exercise is designed to test the integration of drones, UAVs, and counter-drone systems in a simulated conflict scenario.

• The conceptual framework for the exercise is inspired by the ‘Sudarshan Chakra’ model for integrated defence.

• It involves participation solely from the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Exercise Cold Start is an indigenous tri-service exercise, not a bilateral exercise with the United States. It involves internal evaluation of India’s capabilities.

• Statement 2 is correct. The primary aim of the exercise is to evaluate operational readiness against aerial threats posed by drones and UAVs. It focuses on testing defence responses, jamming, and electronic warfare systems in this specific domain of modern warfare.

• Statement 3 is correct. The exercise’s concept is inspired by the Sudarshan Chakra model, which envisages an integrated, multi-layered defence mechanism against a wide spectrum of aerial threats, including drones, UAVs, and hypersonic missiles.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The exercise is explicitly described as a “tri-service” drill, meaning it involves joint participation from the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force, highlighting the importance of jointness in modern warfare.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the World Food India (WFI) event: It is a biennial event organized by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. The event aims to position India as the “Food Basket of the World” by promoting investment in its food processing sector. The 2025 edition of WFI will host the Global Food Regulators Summit, organized by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The event is hosted by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), not the Ministry of Agriculture. While related, the focus is specifically on the value addition and processing aspect of the food chain. Also, the frequency is not strictly biennial; the editions in 2017, 2023, 2024, and 2025, suggesting it has become an annual event recently. Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of WFI is to strengthen India’s global positioning as the “Food Basket of the World.” It serves as a global platform to attract foreign and domestic investment into the entire food processing value chain, from farm-to-fork linkages to retail and logistics. Statement 3 is correct. The 4th edition in 2025 will feature several parallel events, including the 3rd Global Food Regulators Summit, which is a significant component organized by FSSAI. This highlights the event’s comprehensive nature, covering policy and regulation alongside business and technology. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The event is hosted by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), not the Ministry of Agriculture. While related, the focus is specifically on the value addition and processing aspect of the food chain. Also, the frequency is not strictly biennial; the editions in 2017, 2023, 2024, and 2025, suggesting it has become an annual event recently. Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of WFI is to strengthen India’s global positioning as the “Food Basket of the World.” It serves as a global platform to attract foreign and domestic investment into the entire food processing value chain, from farm-to-fork linkages to retail and logistics. Statement 3 is correct. The 4th edition in 2025 will feature several parallel events, including the 3rd Global Food Regulators Summit, which is a significant component organized by FSSAI. This highlights the event’s comprehensive nature, covering policy and regulation alongside business and technology.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the World Food India (WFI) event:

• It is a biennial event organized by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

• The event aims to position India as the “Food Basket of the World” by promoting investment in its food processing sector.

• The 2025 edition of WFI will host the Global Food Regulators Summit, organized by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The event is hosted by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), not the Ministry of Agriculture. While related, the focus is specifically on the value addition and processing aspect of the food chain. Also, the frequency is not strictly biennial; the editions in 2017, 2023, 2024, and 2025, suggesting it has become an annual event recently.

• Statement 2 is correct. A core objective of WFI is to strengthen India’s global positioning as the “Food Basket of the World.” It serves as a global platform to attract foreign and domestic investment into the entire food processing value chain, from farm-to-fork linkages to retail and logistics.

• Statement 3 is correct. The 4th edition in 2025 will feature several parallel events, including the 3rd Global Food Regulators Summit, which is a significant component organized by FSSAI. This highlights the event’s comprehensive nature, covering policy and regulation alongside business and technology.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about different visa types: The L-1B visa is intended for intra-company transferees who are executives or managers. Unlike the H-1B visa, the L-1 visa does not permit the visa holder’s spouse to work in the U.S. A key limitation of the L-1 visa is that the employee is tied to the transferring employer and cannot switch to another company in the U.S. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The L-1 visa has two sub-categories. The L-1A visa is for executives and managers. The L-1B visa is specifically for employees with “specialized knowledge” of the company’s products, services, research, or management. The distinction is crucial for eligibility and maximum stay duration. Statement 2 is incorrect. Spouses of L-1 visa holders, who are granted an L-2 visa, are permitted to apply for an Employment Authorization Document (EAD) and can work without restriction for any employer in the U.S. This is a major benefit of the L-1 visa program for families. Statement 3 is correct. L-1 visa is an intra-company transfer visa, meaning the holder’s right to work in the U.S. is tied specifically to the multinational company that sponsored their transfer. They cannot switch to a different U.S. employer without changing their visa status, which is often a complex process. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The L-1 visa has two sub-categories. The L-1A visa is for executives and managers. The L-1B visa is specifically for employees with “specialized knowledge” of the company’s products, services, research, or management. The distinction is crucial for eligibility and maximum stay duration. Statement 2 is incorrect. Spouses of L-1 visa holders, who are granted an L-2 visa, are permitted to apply for an Employment Authorization Document (EAD) and can work without restriction for any employer in the U.S. This is a major benefit of the L-1 visa program for families. Statement 3 is correct. L-1 visa is an intra-company transfer visa, meaning the holder’s right to work in the U.S. is tied specifically to the multinational company that sponsored their transfer. They cannot switch to a different U.S. employer without changing their visa status, which is often a complex process.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about different visa types:

• The L-1B visa is intended for intra-company transferees who are executives or managers.

• Unlike the H-1B visa, the L-1 visa does not permit the visa holder’s spouse to work in the U.S.

• A key limitation of the L-1 visa is that the employee is tied to the transferring employer and cannot switch to another company in the U.S.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The L-1 visa has two sub-categories. The L-1A visa is for executives and managers. The L-1B visa is specifically for employees with “specialized knowledge” of the company’s products, services, research, or management. The distinction is crucial for eligibility and maximum stay duration.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Spouses of L-1 visa holders, who are granted an L-2 visa, are permitted to apply for an Employment Authorization Document (EAD) and can work without restriction for any employer in the U.S. This is a major benefit of the L-1 visa program for families.

• Statement 3 is correct. L-1 visa is an intra-company transfer visa, meaning the holder’s right to work in the U.S. is tied specifically to the multinational company that sponsored their transfer. They cannot switch to a different U.S. employer without changing their visa status, which is often a complex process.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025: The policy identifies the Himalayas, the Cambay Graben, and the Godavari Basin as high-potential geothermal provinces. It allows for 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the geothermal sector. The policy promotes the development of hybrid systems, combining geothermal energy with other renewable sources like solar. The Ministry of Power is the nodal agency for the implementation of this policy. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C The policy explicitly recognizes several geothermal provinces, including the Himalayas, Cambay Graben, and Godavari Basin, and highlights specific high-potential zones like Puga (Ladakh) and Tattapani (Chhattisgarh). To attract investment and technology, the policy permits 100% FDI in the geothermal sector. It also encourages the development of hybrid systems (e.g., geothermal-solar) to improve efficiency and economic viability. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power, is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy. Incorrect Solution: C The policy explicitly recognizes several geothermal provinces, including the Himalayas, Cambay Graben, and Godavari Basin, and highlights specific high-potential zones like Puga (Ladakh) and Tattapani (Chhattisgarh). To attract investment and technology, the policy permits 100% FDI in the geothermal sector. It also encourages the development of hybrid systems (e.g., geothermal-solar) to improve efficiency and economic viability. Statement 4 is incorrect. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power, is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Policy on Geothermal Energy 2025:

• The policy identifies the Himalayas, the Cambay Graben, and the Godavari Basin as high-potential geothermal provinces.

• It allows for 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the geothermal sector.

• The policy promotes the development of hybrid systems, combining geothermal energy with other renewable sources like solar.

• The Ministry of Power is the nodal agency for the implementation of this policy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• The policy explicitly recognizes several geothermal provinces, including the Himalayas, Cambay Graben, and Godavari Basin, and highlights specific high-potential zones like Puga (Ladakh) and Tattapani (Chhattisgarh). To attract investment and technology, the policy permits 100% FDI in the geothermal sector. It also encourages the development of hybrid systems (e.g., geothermal-solar) to improve efficiency and economic viability.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power, is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of the National Policy on Geothermal Energy.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings at Sarnath: The Dhamek Stupa, a massive cylindrical stone structure, is believed to mark the exact spot where the Buddha delivered his first sermon. The Lion Capital of Ashoka, which is now the National Emblem of India, was originally placed atop a pillar at Sarnath. The sculptures found at Sarnath, particularly from the Gupta period, are characterized by their abstract and highly stylized forms. The excavations at Sarnath were initiated by Sir John Marshall in the early 20th century. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The impressive Dhamek Stupa is traditionally believed to mark the location of the Buddha’s first discourse. Statement 2 is correct. The iconic Lion Capital, a masterpiece of Mauryan art, was originally mounted on top of a pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at Sarnath. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sarnath school of sculpture, especially during the Gupta period, is renowned for its elegance, refinement, and serene naturalism, not abstract or stylized forms. The seated Buddha in Dharmachakra Mudra is a prime example of this classical style. Statement 4 is incorrect. The first systematic and scientific excavations at Sarnath were conducted by Friedrich Oertel in 1904-05, not Sir John Marshall. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The impressive Dhamek Stupa is traditionally believed to mark the location of the Buddha’s first discourse. Statement 2 is correct. The iconic Lion Capital, a masterpiece of Mauryan art, was originally mounted on top of a pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at Sarnath. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sarnath school of sculpture, especially during the Gupta period, is renowned for its elegance, refinement, and serene naturalism, not abstract or stylized forms. The seated Buddha in Dharmachakra Mudra is a prime example of this classical style. Statement 4 is incorrect. The first systematic and scientific excavations at Sarnath were conducted by Friedrich Oertel in 1904-05, not Sir John Marshall.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings at Sarnath:

• The Dhamek Stupa, a massive cylindrical stone structure, is believed to mark the exact spot where the Buddha delivered his first sermon.

• The Lion Capital of Ashoka, which is now the National Emblem of India, was originally placed atop a pillar at Sarnath.

• The sculptures found at Sarnath, particularly from the Gupta period, are characterized by their abstract and highly stylized forms.

• The excavations at Sarnath were initiated by Sir John Marshall in the early 20th century.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The impressive Dhamek Stupa is traditionally believed to mark the location of the Buddha’s first discourse.

• Statement 2 is correct. The iconic Lion Capital, a masterpiece of Mauryan art, was originally mounted on top of a pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at Sarnath.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Sarnath school of sculpture, especially during the Gupta period, is renowned for its elegance, refinement, and serene naturalism, not abstract or stylized forms. The seated Buddha in Dharmachakra Mudra is a prime example of this classical style.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The first systematic and scientific excavations at Sarnath were conducted by Friedrich Oertel in 1904-05, not Sir John Marshall.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The impressive Dhamek Stupa is traditionally believed to mark the location of the Buddha’s first discourse.

• Statement 2 is correct. The iconic Lion Capital, a masterpiece of Mauryan art, was originally mounted on top of a pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at Sarnath.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. The first systematic and scientific excavations at Sarnath were conducted by Friedrich Oertel in 1904-05, not Sir John Marshall.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The graffiti marks found at the Kilnamandi archaeological site are significant because they: represent the earliest known form of writing in the Indian subcontinent. provide definitive proof of the migration of Harappan people to Tamil Nadu. suggest a potential cultural link or shared symbolic system with the Indus Valley Civilization. indicate the use of an advanced iron-based ink for pottery marking. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indus script is considered the earliest known form of writing in the subcontinent, and it remains undeciphered. The graffiti marks from Kilnamandi are symbols, not necessarily a full-fledged writing system, and they are from a later period (Late Harappan). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the similar symbols suggest a connection, they do not provide definitive proof of a large-scale migration. The connection could be through trade, cultural exchange, or the movement of ideas, not necessarily a mass movement of people. Archaeology often deals with probabilities and interpretations rather than definitive proofs. Statement 3 is correct. The high degree of similarity (~90%) between the Kilnamandi graffiti and Indus Valley symbols is the most significant aspect. It strongly suggests a cultural link or a shared symbolic vocabulary between the two distant regions during the Late Harappan period. This opens up new avenues for research into the extent of Harappan influence and the nature of north-south interactions in ancient India. Statement 4 is incorrect. Graffiti marks on pottery are typically incised or scratched onto the surface before or after firing; they are not written with ink. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indus script is considered the earliest known form of writing in the subcontinent, and it remains undeciphered. The graffiti marks from Kilnamandi are symbols, not necessarily a full-fledged writing system, and they are from a later period (Late Harappan). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the similar symbols suggest a connection, they do not provide definitive proof of a large-scale migration. The connection could be through trade, cultural exchange, or the movement of ideas, not necessarily a mass movement of people. Archaeology often deals with probabilities and interpretations rather than definitive proofs. Statement 3 is correct. The high degree of similarity (~90%) between the Kilnamandi graffiti and Indus Valley symbols is the most significant aspect. It strongly suggests a cultural link or a shared symbolic vocabulary between the two distant regions during the Late Harappan period. This opens up new avenues for research into the extent of Harappan influence and the nature of north-south interactions in ancient India. Statement 4 is incorrect. Graffiti marks on pottery are typically incised or scratched onto the surface before or after firing; they are not written with ink.

#### 10. Question

The graffiti marks found at the Kilnamandi archaeological site are significant because they:

• represent the earliest known form of writing in the Indian subcontinent.

• provide definitive proof of the migration of Harappan people to Tamil Nadu.

• suggest a potential cultural link or shared symbolic system with the Indus Valley Civilization.

• indicate the use of an advanced iron-based ink for pottery marking.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 2 and 4 only

• (d) 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indus script is considered the earliest known form of writing in the subcontinent, and it remains undeciphered. The graffiti marks from Kilnamandi are symbols, not necessarily a full-fledged writing system, and they are from a later period (Late Harappan).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the similar symbols suggest a connection, they do not provide definitive proof of a large-scale migration. The connection could be through trade, cultural exchange, or the movement of ideas, not necessarily a mass movement of people. Archaeology often deals with probabilities and interpretations rather than definitive proofs.

• Statement 3 is correct. The high degree of similarity (~90%) between the Kilnamandi graffiti and Indus Valley symbols is the most significant aspect. It strongly suggests a cultural link or a shared symbolic vocabulary between the two distant regions during the Late Harappan period. This opens up new avenues for research into the extent of Harappan influence and the nature of north-south interactions in ancient India.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Graffiti marks on pottery are typically incised or scratched onto the surface before or after firing; they are not written with ink.

Solution: D

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Graffiti marks on pottery are typically incised or scratched onto the surface before or after firing; they are not written with ink.

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