UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 November 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the 28-Point Peace Plan for the Russia-Ukraine war, consider the following statements: Statement I: The plan proposes the creation of a Ukraine Development Fund managed by the U.S. to utilize frozen Russian assets for reconstruction. Statement II: The plan mandates that Ukraine must formally abandon its aspirations for NATO membership and enshrine neutrality in its Constitution. Statement III: The proposal suggests that NATO must station peacekeeping troops on Ukrainian soil to guarantee security against future aggression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The peace plan, associated with President Donald Trump’s team, proposes utilizing $100 billion in frozen Russian assets for Ukraine’s reconstruction. This would be done through a Ukraine Development Fund under U.S. management, with a profit-sharing mechanism where the U.S. receives 50% of the profits. Statement II is correct. A core component of the security architecture reset in the plan is that Ukraine must abandon NATO membership. It requires Ukraine to enshrine neutrality in its Constitution and accept permanent restrictions on its military size (capped at 600,000 troops). Statement III is incorrect. The plan explicitly states that NATO must avoid stationing troops on Ukrainian soil. While NATO is expected to guarantee that Ukraine will never be admitted, the security guarantee does not involve placing NATO boots on the ground; rather, it focuses on non-admission and external security assurances. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The peace plan, associated with President Donald Trump’s team, proposes utilizing $100 billion in frozen Russian assets for Ukraine’s reconstruction. This would be done through a Ukraine Development Fund under U.S. management, with a profit-sharing mechanism where the U.S. receives 50% of the profits. Statement II is correct. A core component of the security architecture reset in the plan is that Ukraine must abandon NATO membership. It requires Ukraine to enshrine neutrality in its Constitution and accept permanent restrictions on its military size (capped at 600,000 troops). Statement III is incorrect. The plan explicitly states that NATO must avoid stationing troops on Ukrainian soil. While NATO is expected to guarantee that Ukraine will never be admitted, the security guarantee does not involve placing NATO boots on the ground; rather, it focuses on non-admission and external security assurances.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the 28-Point Peace Plan for the Russia-Ukraine war, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The plan proposes the creation of a Ukraine Development Fund managed by the U.S. to utilize frozen Russian assets for reconstruction.

Statement II: The plan mandates that Ukraine must formally abandon its aspirations for NATO membership and enshrine neutrality in its Constitution.

Statement III: The proposal suggests that NATO must station peacekeeping troops on Ukrainian soil to guarantee security against future aggression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The peace plan, associated with President Donald Trump’s team, proposes utilizing $100 billion in frozen Russian assets for Ukraine’s reconstruction. This would be done through a Ukraine Development Fund under U.S. management, with a profit-sharing mechanism where the U.S. receives 50% of the profits.

• Statement II is correct. A core component of the security architecture reset in the plan is that Ukraine must abandon NATO membership. It requires Ukraine to enshrine neutrality in its Constitution and accept permanent restrictions on its military size (capped at 600,000 troops).

• Statement III is incorrect. The plan explicitly states that NATO must avoid stationing troops on Ukrainian soil. While NATO is expected to guarantee that Ukraine will never be admitted, the security guarantee does not involve placing NATO boots on the ground; rather, it focuses on non-admission and external security assurances.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs regarding the appointment of judges as per the Constitution of India: Article Subject Matter 1. Article 124(2) Appointment of Ad hoc Judges 2. Article 126 Appointment of Acting Chief Justice of India 3. Article 127 Appointment of Judges by warrant under President’s hand and seal 4. Article 128 Attendance of retired Judges at sittings of the Supreme Court How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Article 124(2) deals with the appointment of Judges (including the CJI) by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. It does not deal with Ad hoc judges. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 126 specifically provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice when the office of CJI is vacant or the CJI is unable to perform duties. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Article 127 deals with the appointment of ad hoc judges when there is a lack of quorum of permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Court. The warrant of appointment under the President’s hand (general appointment) is Article 124. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Article 128 provides for the attendance of retired judges of the Supreme Court (or High Courts who are qualified) to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Article 124(2) deals with the appointment of Judges (including the CJI) by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. It does not deal with Ad hoc judges. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 126 specifically provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice when the office of CJI is vacant or the CJI is unable to perform duties. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Article 127 deals with the appointment of ad hoc judges when there is a lack of quorum of permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Court. The warrant of appointment under the President’s hand (general appointment) is Article 124. Pair 4 is correctly matched. Article 128 provides for the attendance of retired judges of the Supreme Court (or High Courts who are qualified) to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following pairs regarding the appointment of judges as per the Constitution of India:

Article | Subject Matter

1.Article 124(2) | Appointment of Ad hoc Judges
2.Article 126 | Appointment of Acting Chief Justice of India
3.Article 127 | Appointment of Judges by warrant under President’s hand and seal
4.Article 128 | Attendance of retired Judges at sittings of the Supreme Court

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Article 124(2) deals with the appointment of Judges (including the CJI) by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. It does not deal with Ad hoc judges.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 126 specifically provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice when the office of CJI is vacant or the CJI is unable to perform duties.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Article 127 deals with the appointment of ad hoc judges when there is a lack of quorum of permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Court. The warrant of appointment under the President’s hand (general appointment) is Article 124.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched. Article 128 provides for the attendance of retired judges of the Supreme Court (or High Courts who are qualified) to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court.

Solution: B

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. Article 126 specifically provides for the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice when the office of CJI is vacant or the CJI is unable to perform duties.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to the African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus), consider the following statements: Statement I: The species is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN due to its slow reproductive rate and habitat destruction. Statement II: It is native to the humid subtropical forests of South America and is a key seed disperser in the Amazon basin. Statement III: India effectively regulates the trade of this species through a centralized registry of breeders and authorized pet shops in all states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II only (b) III only (c) I and III only (d) None of the statements are correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The African Grey Parrot is classified as Endangered by the IUCN, not Critically Endangered. While it faces threats from habitat loss and the pet trade, the classification is specific. Statement II is incorrect. The species is native to West and Central Africa, inhabiting savannas, mangroves, and forests there. It is an ecologically important seed disperser in African ecosystems, not the Amazon basin in South America. Statement III is incorrect. Despite being protected under CITES Appendix I, recent RTI responses reveal that no State Forest Department in India has a proper registry of breeders or authorized pet shops. There is a complete data vacuum, and the domestic market sells the species freely, indicating a lack of effective regulation. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect. The African Grey Parrot is classified as Endangered by the IUCN, not Critically Endangered. While it faces threats from habitat loss and the pet trade, the classification is specific. Statement II is incorrect. The species is native to West and Central Africa, inhabiting savannas, mangroves, and forests there. It is an ecologically important seed disperser in African ecosystems, not the Amazon basin in South America. Statement III is incorrect. Despite being protected under CITES Appendix I, recent RTI responses reveal that no State Forest Department in India has a proper registry of breeders or authorized pet shops. There is a complete data vacuum, and the domestic market sells the species freely, indicating a lack of effective regulation.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus), consider the following statements:

Statement I: The species is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN due to its slow reproductive rate and habitat destruction.

Statement II: It is native to the humid subtropical forests of South America and is a key seed disperser in the Amazon basin.

Statement III: India effectively regulates the trade of this species through a centralized registry of breeders and authorized pet shops in all states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) None of the statements are correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect. The African Grey Parrot is classified as Endangered by the IUCN, not Critically Endangered. While it faces threats from habitat loss and the pet trade, the classification is specific.

• Statement II is incorrect. The species is native to West and Central Africa, inhabiting savannas, mangroves, and forests there. It is an ecologically important seed disperser in African ecosystems, not the Amazon basin in South America.

• Statement III is incorrect. Despite being protected under CITES Appendix I, recent RTI responses reveal that no State Forest Department in India has a proper registry of breeders or authorized pet shops. There is a complete data vacuum, and the domestic market sells the species freely, indicating a lack of effective regulation.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) 1999’ regarding the judiciary? (a) It is a constitutional amendment that established the National Judicial Appointments Commission. (b) It is an executive order that empowers the Law Minister to veto the recommendation of the Collegium for High Court judges. (c) It is a set of guidelines codifying the convention that the appointment to the office of the CJI should be of the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit. (d) It is a judicial verdict that declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21. Correct Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) is a document that governs the process of appointment of judges. The 1999 MoP specifically codifies the practice regarding the Chief Justice of India, stating: “Appointment to the office of the CJI should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.” It formalizes the seniority convention and the interaction between the Judiciary and the Executive. Incorrect Solution: C Option (c) is correct. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) is a document that governs the process of appointment of judges. The 1999 MoP specifically codifies the practice regarding the Chief Justice of India, stating: “Appointment to the office of the CJI should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.” It formalizes the seniority convention and the interaction between the Judiciary and the Executive.

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) 1999’ regarding the judiciary?

• (a) It is a constitutional amendment that established the National Judicial Appointments Commission.

• (b) It is an executive order that empowers the Law Minister to veto the recommendation of the Collegium for High Court judges.

• (c) It is a set of guidelines codifying the convention that the appointment to the office of the CJI should be of the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit.

• (d) It is a judicial verdict that declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.

Solution: C

Option (c) is correct. The Memorandum of Procedure (MoP) is a document that governs the process of appointment of judges. The 1999 MoP specifically codifies the practice regarding the Chief Justice of India, stating: “Appointment to the office of the CJI should be of the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.” It formalizes the seniority convention and the interaction between the Judiciary and the Executive.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2025 seeks to empower the President to make regulations for Chandigarh equivalent to Acts of Parliament. Statement II: Chandigarh was designated as a Union Territory under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. Statement III: Article 240 currently applies to all Union Territories including Delhi and Puducherry without exception. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The Bill aims to bring Chandigarh under Article 240, which allows the President to frame regulations that have the force of law, bypassing the need for Parliament to pass Acts for local governance. Statement II is correct. Chandigarh was declared a Union Territory and the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. Statement III is incorrect. Article 240 does not apply to all UTs For example, in the case of Puducherry, the President cannot make regulations when the Legislature is functioning (only when dissolved/suspended). Delhi (NCT) has special provisions under Article 239AA. The proposed bill specifically seeks to add Chandigarh to the list under Article 240 which currently covers A&N Islands, Lakshadweep, DNHDD, and conditionally Puducherry. Both I and II are factually correct. Statement II provides the historical context (creation of the UT) which is relevant to its administrative status, but the specific legal change in Statement I is about the method of law-making (Article 240), not just its status as a UT. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The Bill aims to bring Chandigarh under Article 240, which allows the President to frame regulations that have the force of law, bypassing the need for Parliament to pass Acts for local governance. Statement II is correct. Chandigarh was declared a Union Territory and the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. Statement III is incorrect. Article 240 does not apply to all UTs For example, in the case of Puducherry, the President cannot make regulations when the Legislature is functioning (only when dissolved/suspended). Delhi (NCT) has special provisions under Article 239AA. The proposed bill specifically seeks to add Chandigarh to the list under Article 240 which currently covers A&N Islands, Lakshadweep, DNHDD, and conditionally Puducherry. Both I and II are factually correct. Statement II provides the historical context (creation of the UT) which is relevant to its administrative status, but the specific legal change in Statement I is about the method of law-making (Article 240), not just its status as a UT.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2025 seeks to empower the President to make regulations for Chandigarh equivalent to Acts of Parliament.

Statement II: Chandigarh was designated as a Union Territory under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.

Statement III: Article 240 currently applies to all Union Territories including Delhi and Puducherry without exception.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The Bill aims to bring Chandigarh under Article 240, which allows the President to frame regulations that have the force of law, bypassing the need for Parliament to pass Acts for local governance.

• Statement II is correct. Chandigarh was declared a Union Territory and the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.

• Statement III is incorrect. Article 240 does not apply to all UTs For example, in the case of Puducherry, the President cannot make regulations when the Legislature is functioning (only when dissolved/suspended). Delhi (NCT) has special provisions under Article 239AA. The proposed bill specifically seeks to add Chandigarh to the list under Article 240 which currently covers A&N Islands, Lakshadweep, DNHDD, and conditionally Puducherry.

• Both I and II are factually correct. Statement II provides the historical context (creation of the UT) which is relevant to its administrative status, but the specific legal change in Statement I is about the method of law-making (Article 240), not just its status as a UT.

Solution: A

• Statement II is correct. Chandigarh was declared a Union Territory and the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Georgia: The Greater Caucasus mountains dominate the northern terrain of the country. Mount Shkhara is the highest peak in the country. The Rioni and Inguri rivers flow into the Caspian Sea. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Caucasus range forms the northern barrier of Georgia, separating it from Russia. Statement 2 is correct. Mount Shkhara (5,068 m) is located in the Greater Caucasus range and is the country’s highest peak. Statement 3 is incorrect. The major rivers of western Georgia, including the Rioni and Inguri, flow westward into the Black Sea, not eastward into the Caspian Sea. The watershed of the Likhi Range divides the country into western (Black Sea basin) and eastern (Caspian Sea basin) halves. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Caucasus range forms the northern barrier of Georgia, separating it from Russia. Statement 2 is correct. Mount Shkhara (5,068 m) is located in the Greater Caucasus range and is the country’s highest peak. Statement 3 is incorrect. The major rivers of western Georgia, including the Rioni and Inguri, flow westward into the Black Sea, not eastward into the Caspian Sea. The watershed of the Likhi Range divides the country into western (Black Sea basin) and eastern (Caspian Sea basin) halves.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the geography of Georgia:

• The Greater Caucasus mountains dominate the northern terrain of the country.

• Mount Shkhara is the highest peak in the country.

• The Rioni and Inguri rivers flow into the Caspian Sea.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Caucasus range forms the northern barrier of Georgia, separating it from Russia.

• Statement 2 is correct. Mount Shkhara (5,068 m) is located in the Greater Caucasus range and is the country’s highest peak.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The major rivers of western Georgia, including the Rioni and Inguri, flow westward into the Black Sea, not eastward into the Caspian Sea. The watershed of the Likhi Range divides the country into western (Black Sea basin) and eastern (Caspian Sea basin) halves.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Greater Caucasus range forms the northern barrier of Georgia, separating it from Russia.

• Statement 2 is correct. Mount Shkhara (5,068 m) is located in the Greater Caucasus range and is the country’s highest peak.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points What is the fundamental nature of the Integrated Forum on Climate Change and Trade (IFCCT) that distinguishes it from a World Trade Organization (WTO) negotiation round? (a) It is a permanent structure aimed at enforcing binding climate-linked trade sanctions. (b) It is an emergency-response body launched to immediately resolve all pending WTO climate-trade disputes. (c) Its membership is restricted to the G20 countries and major carbon emitters. (d) It is a non-negotiating global platform focused on structured dialogue and policy coherence. Correct Solution: D The fundamental nature of the IFCCT, launched at COP30, is that it is a politically supported, non-negotiating dialogue platform. This characteristic is what distinguishes it from formal WTO negotiations, which aim for binding commitments. The IFCCT’s purpose is to facilitate structured discussions, coordination, and policy coherence between climate action and international trade without the pressure of formal agreement. Incorrect Solution: D The fundamental nature of the IFCCT, launched at COP30, is that it is a politically supported, non-negotiating dialogue platform. This characteristic is what distinguishes it from formal WTO negotiations, which aim for binding commitments. The IFCCT’s purpose is to facilitate structured discussions, coordination, and policy coherence between climate action and international trade without the pressure of formal agreement.

#### 7. Question

What is the fundamental nature of the Integrated Forum on Climate Change and Trade (IFCCT) that distinguishes it from a World Trade Organization (WTO) negotiation round?

• (a) It is a permanent structure aimed at enforcing binding climate-linked trade sanctions.

• (b) It is an emergency-response body launched to immediately resolve all pending WTO climate-trade disputes.

• (c) Its membership is restricted to the G20 countries and major carbon emitters.

• (d) It is a non-negotiating global platform focused on structured dialogue and policy coherence.

Solution: D

The fundamental nature of the IFCCT, launched at COP30, is that it is a politically supported, non-negotiating dialogue platform. This characteristic is what distinguishes it from formal WTO negotiations, which aim for binding commitments. The IFCCT’s purpose is to facilitate structured discussions, coordination, and policy coherence between climate action and international trade without the pressure of formal agreement.

Solution: D

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding African Swine Fever (ASF): ASF is caused by a large, double-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Asfarviridae family, leading to high mortality rates in pigs but posing no risk to human health. Soft ticks act as biological vectors, enabling the virus to be sustained in the wild cycle involving warthogs and bushpigs. The highly stable nature of the ASF virus allows it to survive for extended periods on contaminated clothing, feed waste, and even in processed pork products. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV) is a large double-stranded DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, not an RNA virus. Statement 2 is correct: Soft ticks (*Ornithodoros spp.*) are biological vectors that sustain the virus in nature, particularly in the endemic cycle involving wild pigs, warthogs, and bushpigs. This is a crucial aspect of ASF ecology and transmission dynamics. Statement 3 is correct: The virus is highly stable and survives long in the environment and in pork products (ham, sausages, bacon), making contaminated items like clothes, feed, and slaughter waste major transmission vectors. This high stability is why human movement and trade are major spreaders. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV) is a large double-stranded DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, not an RNA virus. Statement 2 is correct: Soft ticks (*Ornithodoros spp.*) are biological vectors that sustain the virus in nature, particularly in the endemic cycle involving wild pigs, warthogs, and bushpigs. This is a crucial aspect of ASF ecology and transmission dynamics. Statement 3 is correct: The virus is highly stable and survives long in the environment and in pork products (ham, sausages, bacon), making contaminated items like clothes, feed, and slaughter waste major transmission vectors. This high stability is why human movement and trade are major spreaders.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding African Swine Fever (ASF):

• ASF is caused by a large, double-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Asfarviridae family, leading to high mortality rates in pigs but posing no risk to human health.

• Soft ticks act as biological vectors, enabling the virus to be sustained in the wild cycle involving warthogs and bushpigs.

• The highly stable nature of the ASF virus allows it to survive for extended periods on contaminated clothing, feed waste, and even in processed pork products.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV) is a large double-stranded DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, not an RNA virus.

• Statement 2 is correct: Soft ticks (*Ornithodoros spp.*) are biological vectors that sustain the virus in nature, particularly in the endemic cycle involving wild pigs, warthogs, and bushpigs. This is a crucial aspect of ASF ecology and transmission dynamics.

• Statement 3 is correct: The virus is highly stable and survives long in the environment and in pork products (ham, sausages, bacon), making contaminated items like clothes, feed, and slaughter waste major transmission vectors. This high stability is why human movement and trade are major spreaders.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV) is a large double-stranded DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, not an RNA virus.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which one of the following is the most significant operational concept enabled by the successful validation and deployment of the Rudra Brigade? a) Enhancing India's capability for deep sea-based deterrence operations. b) Transitioning from the 'Cold Start' doctrine to a 'Cold Strike' doctrine. c) Establishing permanent, self-contained theatre commands for joint air-naval integration. d) Specializing the Army's forces for counter-insurgency and prolonged internal security roles. Correct Solution: B The Rudra Brigade is a newly conceptualised all-arms, permanently integrated combat formation of the Indian Army. Its primary aim and significance is to operationalise India’s move from Cold Start to Cold Strike. This Cold Strike doctrine combines speed, technology, and integrated logistics to enable faster mobilisation and decisive limited-war operations under a nuclear overhang. This represents a significant shift in India’s strategic-operational posture, enhancing the ability to execute swift, multi-axis offensive strikes, particularly on the Western and Northern Borders. Incorrect Solution: B The Rudra Brigade is a newly conceptualised all-arms, permanently integrated combat formation of the Indian Army. Its primary aim and significance is to operationalise India’s move from Cold Start to Cold Strike. This Cold Strike doctrine combines speed, technology, and integrated logistics to enable faster mobilisation and decisive limited-war operations under a nuclear overhang. This represents a significant shift in India’s strategic-operational posture, enhancing the ability to execute swift, multi-axis offensive strikes, particularly on the Western and Northern Borders.

#### 9. Question

Which one of the following is the most significant operational concept enabled by the successful validation and deployment of the Rudra Brigade?

• a) Enhancing India's capability for deep sea-based deterrence operations.

• b) Transitioning from the 'Cold Start' doctrine to a 'Cold Strike' doctrine.

• c) Establishing permanent, self-contained theatre commands for joint air-naval integration.

• d) Specializing the Army's forces for counter-insurgency and prolonged internal security roles.

Solution: B

• The Rudra Brigade is a newly conceptualised all-arms, permanently integrated combat formation of the Indian Army. Its primary aim and significance is to operationalise India’s move from Cold Start to Cold Strike. This Cold Strike doctrine combines speed, technology, and integrated logistics to enable faster mobilisation and decisive limited-war operations under a nuclear overhang. This represents a significant shift in India’s strategic-operational posture, enhancing the ability to execute swift, multi-axis offensive strikes, particularly on the Western and Northern Borders.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: India’s decision to host the Global Big Cats Summit in 2026 signifies its sustained global leadership in wildlife conservation, particularly following the successful launch of a major international alliance. Statement II: The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was launched during the celebration of 50 years of Project Tiger, and its headquarters have been officially approved by the Union Cabinet to be located in India. Statement III: The IBCA is mandated to focus exclusively on conservation efforts for the world’s most endangered big cats, namely the Tiger, Snow Leopard, and Cheetah, as they are the only seven species recognized under its framework. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct: India hosting the Global Big Cats Summit in 2026 is cited as reaffirming global leadership in wildlife conservation, which logically follows India’s history in conservation, including the launch of the IBCA. Statement II is correct: The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was Launched in 2023 during the 50th year of Project Tiger Furthermore, its Headquarters in India was officially approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2024. This statement is factually accurate and supports the idea of India’s leadership mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect: The IBCA is dedicated to the conservation of the world’s seven major big cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct: India hosting the Global Big Cats Summit in 2026 is cited as reaffirming global leadership in wildlife conservation, which logically follows India’s history in conservation, including the launch of the IBCA. Statement II is correct: The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was Launched in 2023 during the 50th year of Project Tiger Furthermore, its Headquarters in India was officially approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2024. This statement is factually accurate and supports the idea of India’s leadership mentioned in Statement I. Statement III is incorrect: The IBCA is dedicated to the conservation of the world’s seven major big cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India’s decision to host the Global Big Cats Summit in 2026 signifies its sustained global leadership in wildlife conservation, particularly following the successful launch of a major international alliance.

Statement II: The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was launched during the celebration of 50 years of Project Tiger, and its headquarters have been officially approved by the Union Cabinet to be located in India.

Statement III: The IBCA is mandated to focus exclusively on conservation efforts for the world’s most endangered big cats, namely the Tiger, Snow Leopard, and Cheetah, as they are the only seven species recognized under its framework.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct: India hosting the Global Big Cats Summit in 2026 is cited as reaffirming global leadership in wildlife conservation, which logically follows India’s history in conservation, including the launch of the IBCA.

• Statement II is correct: The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) was Launched in 2023 during the 50th year of Project Tiger Furthermore, its Headquarters in India was officially approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2024. This statement is factually accurate and supports the idea of India’s leadership mentioned in Statement I.

• Statement III is incorrect: The IBCA is dedicated to the conservation of the world’s seven major big cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.

Solution: C

• Statement III is incorrect: The IBCA is dedicated to the conservation of the world’s seven major big cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and Puma.

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