UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 November 2024

.The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the STARS Program (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States): It is funded by the World Bank and managed by the Ministry of Education. The Program is a part of the Samagra Shiksha scheme. The program emphasizes skill-based education in schools. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: d) About STARS Program: (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States) Launch and Duration: Approved in October 2020, effective from 2021 for five years, till FY 2024-25. Supported by the World Bank, this scheme strengthens teaching, learning, and results for skill-based education in schools. Implementation: Managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education, with financial assistance from the World Bank. Target States: Covers six states—Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Kerala—to enhance the quality of school education. Alignment with NEP 2020: Focuses on improving quality-based learning outcomes in line with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020. Scope: Carved out from Samagra Shiksha, emphasizing components directly linked to educational quality enhancement. Incorrect Solution: d) About STARS Program: (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States) Launch and Duration: Approved in October 2020, effective from 2021 for five years, till FY 2024-25. Supported by the World Bank, this scheme strengthens teaching, learning, and results for skill-based education in schools. Implementation: Managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education, with financial assistance from the World Bank. Target States: Covers six states—Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Kerala—to enhance the quality of school education. Alignment with NEP 2020: Focuses on improving quality-based learning outcomes in line with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020. Scope: Carved out from Samagra Shiksha, emphasizing components directly linked to educational quality enhancement.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the STARS Program (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States):

• It is funded by the World Bank and managed by the Ministry of Education.

• The Program is a part of the Samagra Shiksha scheme.

• The program emphasizes skill-based education in schools.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

About STARS Program: (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States)

• Launch and Duration: Approved in October 2020, effective from 2021 for five years, till FY 2024-25.

• Supported by the World Bank, this scheme strengthens teaching, learning, and results for skill-based education in schools.

• Implementation: Managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education, with financial assistance from the World Bank.

• Target States: Covers six states—Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Kerala—to enhance the quality of school education.

• Alignment with NEP 2020: Focuses on improving quality-based learning outcomes in line with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020.

• Scope: Carved out from Samagra Shiksha, emphasizing components directly linked to educational quality enhancement.

Solution: d)

About STARS Program: (Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States)

• Launch and Duration: Approved in October 2020, effective from 2021 for five years, till FY 2024-25.

• Supported by the World Bank, this scheme strengthens teaching, learning, and results for skill-based education in schools.

• Implementation: Managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education, with financial assistance from the World Bank.

• Target States: Covers six states—Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Kerala—to enhance the quality of school education.

• Alignment with NEP 2020: Focuses on improving quality-based learning outcomes in line with the objectives of the National Education Policy 2020.

• Scope: Carved out from Samagra Shiksha, emphasizing components directly linked to educational quality enhancement.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Ashtamudi Lake: It is the largest lake in Kerala. It connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary. It is designated a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: b) About Ashtamudi Lake: Location: Situated in Kollam district, Kerala; named for its eight interconnected arms (“Ashtamudi”). Significance: Second-largest Lake in Kerala. Designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2002 Major source of livelihood for local fishers. Hydrology: Fed by the Kallada River, connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary. Historical Importance: A key port city during the 14th century; noted in the travel records of Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta. Biodiversity: Rich in mangrove species, including endangered ones like Syzygium travancoricum and Calamus rotang. Incorrect Solution: b) About Ashtamudi Lake: Location: Situated in Kollam district, Kerala; named for its eight interconnected arms (“Ashtamudi”). Significance: Second-largest Lake in Kerala. Designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2002 Major source of livelihood for local fishers. Hydrology: Fed by the Kallada River, connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary. Historical Importance: A key port city during the 14th century; noted in the travel records of Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta. Biodiversity: Rich in mangrove species, including endangered ones like Syzygium travancoricum and Calamus rotang.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Ashtamudi Lake:

• It is the largest lake in Kerala.

• It connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.

• It is designated a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

About Ashtamudi Lake:

• Location: Situated in Kollam district, Kerala; named for its eight interconnected arms (“Ashtamudi”).

Significance:

• Second-largest Lake in Kerala.

• Designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2002

• Major source of livelihood for local fishers.

• Hydrology: Fed by the Kallada River, connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.

• Historical Importance: A key port city during the 14th century; noted in the travel records of Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta.

• Biodiversity: Rich in mangrove species, including endangered ones like Syzygium travancoricum and Calamus rotang.

Solution: b)

About Ashtamudi Lake:

• Location: Situated in Kollam district, Kerala; named for its eight interconnected arms (“Ashtamudi”).

Significance:

• Second-largest Lake in Kerala.

• Designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in 2002

• Major source of livelihood for local fishers.

• Hydrology: Fed by the Kallada River, connects to the Arabian Sea through the Neendakara estuary.

• Historical Importance: A key port city during the 14th century; noted in the travel records of Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta.

• Biodiversity: Rich in mangrove species, including endangered ones like Syzygium travancoricum and Calamus rotang.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve: It is located at the confluence of the Satpura and Vindhya ranges. Bengal tigers are the only large carnivores found in the reserve. Marsh crocodiles are among the aquatic species inhabiting the water bodies of the reserve. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR): Location: Situated at the confluence of the Aravallis and Vindhyas, near Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan. Area: Covers 1,411 sq. km, making it one of northern India’s largest tiger reserves. History: Former royal hunting grounds of Jaipur’s Maharajas; designated a Project Tiger Reserve in 1973. Geography: Includes steep rocky hills, Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, rivers Chambal and Banas, and the Great Boundary Fault. Flora: Tropical dry deciduous forests and thorny landscapes dominated by Dhok trees and grasslands. Fauna: Home to Bengal tigers, leopards, sloth bears, striped hyenas, marsh crocodiles, and over 250 bird species. Tourism Significance: A popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts, contributing significantly to local livelihoods. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR): Location: Situated at the confluence of the Aravallis and Vindhyas, near Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan. Area: Covers 1,411 sq. km, making it one of northern India’s largest tiger reserves. History: Former royal hunting grounds of Jaipur’s Maharajas; designated a Project Tiger Reserve in 1973. Geography: Includes steep rocky hills, Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, rivers Chambal and Banas, and the Great Boundary Fault. Flora: Tropical dry deciduous forests and thorny landscapes dominated by Dhok trees and grasslands. Fauna: Home to Bengal tigers, leopards, sloth bears, striped hyenas, marsh crocodiles, and over 250 bird species. Tourism Significance: A popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts, contributing significantly to local livelihoods.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve:

• It is located at the confluence of the Satpura and Vindhya ranges.

• Bengal tigers are the only large carnivores found in the reserve.

• Marsh crocodiles are among the aquatic species inhabiting the water bodies of the reserve.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):

• Location: Situated at the confluence of the Aravallis and Vindhyas, near Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan.

• Area: Covers 1,411 sq. km, making it one of northern India’s largest tiger reserves.

• History: Former royal hunting grounds of Jaipur’s Maharajas; designated a Project Tiger Reserve in 1973.

• Geography: Includes steep rocky hills, Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, rivers Chambal and Banas, and the Great Boundary Fault.

• Flora: Tropical dry deciduous forests and thorny landscapes dominated by Dhok trees and grasslands.

• Fauna: Home to Bengal tigers, leopards, sloth bears, striped hyenas, marsh crocodiles, and over 250 bird species.

• Tourism Significance: A popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts, contributing significantly to local livelihoods.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):

• Location: Situated at the confluence of the Aravallis and Vindhyas, near Sawai Madhopur, Rajasthan.

• Area: Covers 1,411 sq. km, making it one of northern India’s largest tiger reserves.

• History: Former royal hunting grounds of Jaipur’s Maharajas; designated a Project Tiger Reserve in 1973.

• Geography: Includes steep rocky hills, Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, rivers Chambal and Banas, and the Great Boundary Fault.

• Flora: Tropical dry deciduous forests and thorny landscapes dominated by Dhok trees and grasslands.

• Fauna: Home to Bengal tigers, leopards, sloth bears, striped hyenas, marsh crocodiles, and over 250 bird species.

• Tourism Significance: A popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts, contributing significantly to local livelihoods.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the centrifugal process for uranium enrichment is correct? a) It enriches uranium by using high temperatures to separate isotopes. b) The process increases the concentration of the isotope U-238. c) Highly enriched uranium (HEU) produced through this process is exclusively used for nuclear reactors. d) The process involves spinning uranium gas at high speeds to increase U-235 concentration. Correct Solution: d) About Centrifugal Process: Definition: Centrifuges spin uranium gas at high speeds to enrich uranium by increasing the concentration of the fissile isotope U-235. Uses: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is used for nuclear reactors, while highly enriched uranium (HEU) can be used for nuclear weapons. Efficiency: Advanced centrifuges enrich uranium faster and require fewer machines compared to older designs. Origins: Iran’s centrifuge program began in the 1980s using designs and components acquired from A.Q. Khan’s proliferation network. International Concerns: The process raises fears of nuclear weapons development due to its dual-use nature. Incorrect Solution: d) About Centrifugal Process: Definition: Centrifuges spin uranium gas at high speeds to enrich uranium by increasing the concentration of the fissile isotope U-235. Uses: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is used for nuclear reactors, while highly enriched uranium (HEU) can be used for nuclear weapons. Efficiency: Advanced centrifuges enrich uranium faster and require fewer machines compared to older designs. Origins: Iran’s centrifuge program began in the 1980s using designs and components acquired from A.Q. Khan’s proliferation network. International Concerns: The process raises fears of nuclear weapons development due to its dual-use nature.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following statements about the centrifugal process for uranium enrichment is correct?

• a) It enriches uranium by using high temperatures to separate isotopes.

• b) The process increases the concentration of the isotope U-238.

• c) Highly enriched uranium (HEU) produced through this process is exclusively used for nuclear reactors.

• d) The process involves spinning uranium gas at high speeds to increase U-235 concentration.

Solution: d)

About Centrifugal Process:

• Definition: Centrifuges spin uranium gas at high speeds to enrich uranium by increasing the concentration of the fissile isotope U-235.

• Uses: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is used for nuclear reactors, while highly enriched uranium (HEU) can be used for nuclear weapons.

• Efficiency: Advanced centrifuges enrich uranium faster and require fewer machines compared to older designs.

• Origins: Iran’s centrifuge program began in the 1980s using designs and components acquired from A.Q. Khan’s proliferation network.

• International Concerns: The process raises fears of nuclear weapons development due to its dual-use nature.

Solution: d)

About Centrifugal Process:

• Definition: Centrifuges spin uranium gas at high speeds to enrich uranium by increasing the concentration of the fissile isotope U-235.

• Uses: Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is used for nuclear reactors, while highly enriched uranium (HEU) can be used for nuclear weapons.

• Efficiency: Advanced centrifuges enrich uranium faster and require fewer machines compared to older designs.

• Origins: Iran’s centrifuge program began in the 1980s using designs and components acquired from A.Q. Khan’s proliferation network.

• International Concerns: The process raises fears of nuclear weapons development due to its dual-use nature.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement: The agreement mandates legally binding carbon emission targets for all signatories. Countries must submit updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) every five years. The agreement’s primary goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) The Paris Agreement does not mandate legally binding emission targets, making statement 1 incorrect. It requires countries to submit updated and ambitious NDCs every five years and aims to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C, making statements 2 and 3 correct. Incorrect Solution: b) The Paris Agreement does not mandate legally binding emission targets, making statement 1 incorrect. It requires countries to submit updated and ambitious NDCs every five years and aims to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement:

• The agreement mandates legally binding carbon emission targets for all signatories.

• Countries must submit updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) every five years.

• The agreement’s primary goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

The Paris Agreement does not mandate legally binding emission targets, making statement 1 incorrect. It requires countries to submit updated and ambitious NDCs every five years and aims to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Solution: b)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following organizations is not involved in publishing the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)? a) Germanwatch b) NewClimate Institute c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) d) Climate Action Network Correct Solution: c) The CCPI is published by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. UNEP is not directly involved in publishing this index, although it works on climate-related issues globally. Incorrect Solution: c) The CCPI is published by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. UNEP is not directly involved in publishing this index, although it works on climate-related issues globally.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following organizations is not involved in publishing the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)?

• a) Germanwatch

• b) NewClimate Institute

• c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

• d) Climate Action Network

Solution: c)

The CCPI is published by Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network. UNEP is not directly involved in publishing this index, although it works on climate-related issues globally.

Solution: c)

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the framework of the Paris Agreement: It operates under the principle of legally binding enforcement for non-compliance. It adopts the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities.” Developed countries are required to provide financial and technological support to developing nations. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: b) The Paris Agreement operates on a cooperative and non-binding framework, making statement 1 incorrect. It is based on the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities,” recognizing varying capacities of nations. Developed countries are encouraged to support developing nations through financial and technological aid, making statements 2 and 3 correct. Incorrect Solution: b) The Paris Agreement operates on a cooperative and non-binding framework, making statement 1 incorrect. It is based on the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities,” recognizing varying capacities of nations. Developed countries are encouraged to support developing nations through financial and technological aid, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the framework of the Paris Agreement:

• It operates under the principle of legally binding enforcement for non-compliance.

• It adopts the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities.”

• Developed countries are required to provide financial and technological support to developing nations.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

The Paris Agreement operates on a cooperative and non-binding framework, making statement 1 incorrect. It is based on the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities,” recognizing varying capacities of nations. Developed countries are encouraged to support developing nations through financial and technological aid, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Solution: b)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding uranium enrichment: Natural uranium contains a higher percentage of U-235 than U-238. Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 concentration, suitable for nuclear reactors. The process of uranium enrichment produces plutonium-239 as a byproduct. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Natural uranium contains 0.7% U-235 and 99.3% U-238, making statement 1 incorrect. Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 for use in nuclear reactors, making statement 2 correct. Uranium enrichment does not produce plutonium-239; plutonium is produced in reactors through neutron absorption in U-238, making statement 3 incorrect. Incorrect Solution: a) Natural uranium contains 0.7% U-235 and 99.3% U-238, making statement 1 incorrect. Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 for use in nuclear reactors, making statement 2 correct. Uranium enrichment does not produce plutonium-239; plutonium is produced in reactors through neutron absorption in U-238, making statement 3 incorrect.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding uranium enrichment:

• Natural uranium contains a higher percentage of U-235 than U-238.

• Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 concentration, suitable for nuclear reactors.

• The process of uranium enrichment produces plutonium-239 as a byproduct.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Natural uranium contains 0.7% U-235 and 99.3% U-238, making statement 1 incorrect.

Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 for use in nuclear reactors, making statement 2 correct.

Uranium enrichment does not produce plutonium-239; plutonium is produced in reactors through neutron absorption in U-238, making statement 3 incorrect.

Solution: a)

Natural uranium contains 0.7% U-235 and 99.3% U-238, making statement 1 incorrect.

Low-enriched uranium (LEU) is enriched to 3-5% U-235 for use in nuclear reactors, making statement 2 correct.

Uranium enrichment does not produce plutonium-239; plutonium is produced in reactors through neutron absorption in U-238, making statement 3 incorrect.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points What is the primary cause of High-Altitude Sickness? a) Increased atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes b) Excessive hydration at high altitudes c) Reduced oxygen levels in the air at high elevations d) Rapid cooling of body temperature due to high winds Correct Solution: c) High-Altitude Sickness occurs due to reduced oxygen availability at elevations above 8,000 feet, leading to hypoxia in body tissues. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, but excessive hydration or cooling is not the primary cause of the condition. What is High-Altitude Sickness? Definition: High-Altitude Sickness, also known as Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body struggles to acclimatize to low oxygen levels at elevations above 8,000 feet (2,400 meters). Types: HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs). HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain). Symptoms: Headache, nausea, fatigue, shortness of breath, confusion, and, in severe cases, coma. Why Does It Happen? Low Oxygen Levels: Reduced oxygen in the air leads to hypoxia in body tissues. Physiological Strain: Hyperventilation increases breathing rate. Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart. Rapid Ascent: Climbing too quickly without acclimatizing exacerbates risks. Incorrect Solution: c) High-Altitude Sickness occurs due to reduced oxygen availability at elevations above 8,000 feet, leading to hypoxia in body tissues. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, but excessive hydration or cooling is not the primary cause of the condition. What is High-Altitude Sickness? Definition: High-Altitude Sickness, also known as Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body struggles to acclimatize to low oxygen levels at elevations above 8,000 feet (2,400 meters). Types: HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs). HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain). Symptoms: Headache, nausea, fatigue, shortness of breath, confusion, and, in severe cases, coma. Why Does It Happen? Low Oxygen Levels: Reduced oxygen in the air leads to hypoxia in body tissues. Physiological Strain: Hyperventilation increases breathing rate. Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart. Rapid Ascent: Climbing too quickly without acclimatizing exacerbates risks.

#### 9. Question

What is the primary cause of High-Altitude Sickness?

• a) Increased atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes

• b) Excessive hydration at high altitudes

• c) Reduced oxygen levels in the air at high elevations

• d) Rapid cooling of body temperature due to high winds

Solution: c)

High-Altitude Sickness occurs due to reduced oxygen availability at elevations above 8,000 feet, leading to hypoxia in body tissues. Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude, but excessive hydration or cooling is not the primary cause of the condition.

What is High-Altitude Sickness?

• Definition: High-Altitude Sickness, also known as Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS), occurs when the body struggles to acclimatize to low oxygen levels at elevations above 8,000 feet (2,400 meters).

• Types: HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs). HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain).

• HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs).

• HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain).

• Symptoms: Headache, nausea, fatigue, shortness of breath, confusion, and, in severe cases, coma.

Why Does It Happen?

• Low Oxygen Levels: Reduced oxygen in the air leads to hypoxia in body tissues.

• Physiological Strain: Hyperventilation increases breathing rate. Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart.

• Hyperventilation increases breathing rate.

• Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart.

• Rapid Ascent: Climbing too quickly without acclimatizing exacerbates risks.

Solution: c)

What is High-Altitude Sickness?

• Types: HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs). HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain).

• HAPE: High-Altitude Pulmonary Edema (fluid in lungs).

• HACE: High-Altitude Cerebral Edema (fluid in brain).

• Symptoms: Headache, nausea, fatigue, shortness of breath, confusion, and, in severe cases, coma.

Why Does It Happen?

• Low Oxygen Levels: Reduced oxygen in the air leads to hypoxia in body tissues.

• Physiological Strain: Hyperventilation increases breathing rate. Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart.

• Hyperventilation increases breathing rate.

• Thicker blood due to increased red blood cell production strains the heart.

• Rapid Ascent: Climbing too quickly without acclimatizing exacerbates risks.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s climate policies as highlighted in Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025: Statement-I: India received a “medium” rating for its climate policies due to delays in implementing renewable energy targets. Statement-II: Rapid expansion in solar power projects and energy efficiency standards contributed to India’s overall high performance. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) India received a “medium” rating for climate policy due to some challenges in policy implementation but not due to delays in renewable energy targets. Its progress in large-scale solar projects and efficiency measures significantly contributed to its high overall performance. India’s Performance in CCPI 2025: Overall Rank: 10th, among the highest performers. Overall, only 22 of the 64 surveyed CCPI countries (including the EU) are on track, while 42 are lagging. India and the United Kingdom are two that are on track. Category Ratings: GHG Emissions: High Energy Use: High Climate Policy: Medium Renewable Energy: Low Strengths: Rapid renewable energy expansion, particularly in large-scale solar power projects. Introduction of energy efficiency standards and electric vehicle deployment. Low per capita emissions and energy use despite being the most populous country. Incorrect Solution: d) India received a “medium” rating for climate policy due to some challenges in policy implementation but not due to delays in renewable energy targets. Its progress in large-scale solar projects and efficiency measures significantly contributed to its high overall performance. India’s Performance in CCPI 2025: Overall Rank: 10th, among the highest performers. Overall, only 22 of the 64 surveyed CCPI countries (including the EU) are on track, while 42 are lagging. India and the United Kingdom are two that are on track. Category Ratings: GHG Emissions: High Energy Use: High Climate Policy: Medium Renewable Energy: Low Strengths: Rapid renewable energy expansion, particularly in large-scale solar power projects. Introduction of energy efficiency standards and electric vehicle deployment. Low per capita emissions and energy use despite being the most populous country.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s climate policies as highlighted in Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI), 2025: Statement-I: India received a “medium” rating for its climate policies due to delays in implementing renewable energy targets. Statement-II: Rapid expansion in solar power projects and energy efficiency standards contributed to India’s overall high performance.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

India received a “medium” rating for climate policy due to some challenges in policy implementation but not due to delays in renewable energy targets. Its progress in large-scale solar projects and efficiency measures significantly contributed to its high overall performance.

India’s Performance in CCPI 2025:

• Overall Rank: 10th, among the highest performers.

• Overall, only 22 of the 64 surveyed CCPI countries (including the EU) are on track, while 42 are lagging. India and the United Kingdom are two that are on track.

Category Ratings:

• GHG Emissions: High

• Energy Use: High

• Climate Policy: Medium

• Renewable Energy: Low

Strengths:

• Rapid renewable energy expansion, particularly in large-scale solar power projects.

• Introduction of energy efficiency standards and electric vehicle deployment.

• Low per capita emissions and energy use despite being the most populous country.

Solution: d)

India’s Performance in CCPI 2025:

• Overall Rank: 10th, among the highest performers.

• Overall, only 22 of the 64 surveyed CCPI countries (including the EU) are on track, while 42 are lagging. India and the United Kingdom are two that are on track.

Category Ratings:

• GHG Emissions: High

• Energy Use: High

• Climate Policy: Medium

• Renewable Energy: Low

Strengths:

• Rapid renewable energy expansion, particularly in large-scale solar power projects.

• Introduction of energy efficiency standards and electric vehicle deployment.

• Low per capita emissions and energy use despite being the most populous country.

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