UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 March 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Wular Lake: Wular Lake was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is one of the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia. The lake is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and also receives glacial meltwater from the Pir Panjal range. The Wular Lake basin is designated as a Ramsar site due to its ecological importance and biodiversity. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct. It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct. Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology. Incorrect Solution: C Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct. It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct. Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Wular Lake:

• Wular Lake was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is one of the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia.

• The lake is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and also receives glacial meltwater from the Pir Panjal range.

• The Wular Lake basin is designated as a Ramsar site due to its ecological importance and biodiversity.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct.

• It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct.

• Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology.

Solution: C

• Wular Lake was formed due to tectonic activity and is among the largest freshwater lakes in South Asia, making statement 1 correct.

• It is primarily fed by the Jhelum River and additional water from mountain streams, including glacial melt from nearby ranges such as Pir Panjal, making statement 2 also correct.

• Statement 3 is correct as Wular Lake is a Ramsar site recognized for its significant biodiversity and wetland ecology.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the strategic significance of the Tavasya stealth frigate? (a) It is India's first indigenous aircraft carrier designed for blue-water operations. (b) It enhances India’s coastal surveillance network through radar integration with satellites. (c) It forms part of India’s ballistic missile submarine fleet to deter nuclear threats. (d) It strengthens India’s surface and sub-surface maritime combat capability. Correct Solution: D Tavasya, as a stealth frigate under Project 1135.6, is equipped for surface, sub-surface, and aerial combat operations, playing a vital role in multi-dimensional naval warfare. It includes BrahMos missiles, advanced sonar, and torpedo systems, enhancing India’s strike and surveillance capacities in the Indo-Pacific. It is not an aircraft carrier (like INS Vikrant), nor is it part of the nuclear submarine fleet. It also does not serve primarily as a satellite-linked coastal surveillance vessel. About Tavasya: What it is: A Krivak-class stealth frigate designed for multi-dimensional naval combat. Project under: Built under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships. Built by: Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), with technology transfer from Russia. Aim: To strengthen India’s maritime security and promote self-reliance in shipbuilding. Key Features: Length:8 meters; Width: 15.2 meters; Displacement: 3600 tons. Speed: Up to 28 knots. Advanced sensors, sonar, and BrahMos missile system. Indigenous torpedo launchers and auxiliary control systems. Capable of surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations. Named after Bhima’s mace, symbolizing strength and resilience. Incorrect Solution: D Tavasya, as a stealth frigate under Project 1135.6, is equipped for surface, sub-surface, and aerial combat operations, playing a vital role in multi-dimensional naval warfare. It includes BrahMos missiles, advanced sonar, and torpedo systems, enhancing India’s strike and surveillance capacities in the Indo-Pacific. It is not an aircraft carrier (like INS Vikrant), nor is it part of the nuclear submarine fleet. It also does not serve primarily as a satellite-linked coastal surveillance vessel. About Tavasya: What it is: A Krivak-class stealth frigate designed for multi-dimensional naval combat. Project under: Built under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships. Built by: Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), with technology transfer from Russia. Aim: To strengthen India’s maritime security and promote self-reliance in shipbuilding. Key Features: Length:8 meters; Width: 15.2 meters; Displacement: 3600 tons. Speed: Up to 28 knots. Advanced sensors, sonar, and BrahMos missile system. Indigenous torpedo launchers and auxiliary control systems. Capable of surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations. Named after Bhima’s mace, symbolizing strength and resilience.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best describes the strategic significance of the Tavasya stealth frigate?

• (a) It is India's first indigenous aircraft carrier designed for blue-water operations.

• (b) It enhances India’s coastal surveillance network through radar integration with satellites.

• (c) It forms part of India’s ballistic missile submarine fleet to deter nuclear threats.

• (d) It strengthens India’s surface and sub-surface maritime combat capability.

Solution: D

• Tavasya, as a stealth frigate under Project 1135.6, is equipped for surface, sub-surface, and aerial combat operations, playing a vital role in multi-dimensional naval warfare.

• It includes BrahMos missiles, advanced sonar, and torpedo systems, enhancing India’s strike and surveillance capacities in the Indo-Pacific.

• It is not an aircraft carrier (like INS Vikrant), nor is it part of the nuclear submarine fleet. It also does not serve primarily as a satellite-linked coastal surveillance vessel.

About Tavasya:

• What it is: A Krivak-class stealth frigate designed for multi-dimensional naval combat.

• Project under: Built under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships.

• Built by: Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), with technology transfer from Russia.

• Aim: To strengthen India’s maritime security and promote self-reliance in shipbuilding.

Key Features:

• Length:8 meters; Width: 15.2 meters; Displacement: 3600 tons.

• Speed: Up to 28 knots.

• Advanced sensors, sonar, and BrahMos missile system.

• Indigenous torpedo launchers and auxiliary control systems.

• Capable of surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations.

• Named after Bhima’s mace, symbolizing strength and resilience.

Solution: D

• Tavasya, as a stealth frigate under Project 1135.6, is equipped for surface, sub-surface, and aerial combat operations, playing a vital role in multi-dimensional naval warfare.

• It includes BrahMos missiles, advanced sonar, and torpedo systems, enhancing India’s strike and surveillance capacities in the Indo-Pacific.

• It is not an aircraft carrier (like INS Vikrant), nor is it part of the nuclear submarine fleet. It also does not serve primarily as a satellite-linked coastal surveillance vessel.

About Tavasya:

• What it is: A Krivak-class stealth frigate designed for multi-dimensional naval combat.

• Project under: Built under Project 1135.6 Additional Follow-on Ships.

• Built by: Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), with technology transfer from Russia.

• Aim: To strengthen India’s maritime security and promote self-reliance in shipbuilding.

Key Features:

• Length:8 meters; Width: 15.2 meters; Displacement: 3600 tons.

• Speed: Up to 28 knots.

• Advanced sensors, sonar, and BrahMos missile system.

• Indigenous torpedo launchers and auxiliary control systems.

• Capable of surface, sub-surface, and air combat operations.

• Named after Bhima’s mace, symbolizing strength and resilience.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with respect to the revised MSME classification: The classification considers both manufacturing and service sectors equally without sectoral distinction. Enterprises must exceed both investment and turnover thresholds to move to a higher category. The classification facilitates ease of doing business and improved credit access for growing enterprises. MSME registration is now linked to PAN and Aadhaar-based digital verification. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct — the post-2020 MSME classification removed the distinction between manufacturing and service enterprises, bringing them under the same threshold criteria. Statement 2 is incorrect — an enterprise is classified under a higher category if it crosses either the investment or the turnover threshold, not both. This is done to avoid bottlenecks in scaling. Statements 3 and 4 are correct — the revision is intended to ease formalization, improve access to credit and markets, and the Udyam portal uses PAN and Aadhaar for digital registration and authentication. The Government of India has notified revised criteria for MSME classification, increasing investment and turnover limits. Finance Minister had announced new classification criteria for MSMEs, with investment and turnover limits for the classifications proposed to be increased to 5 times and 2 times, respectively. About Revision of MSME Definition: What it is: A policy update amending the thresholds for classifying Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises based on investment and turnover. Announced In: Announced during the Union Budget speech by Finance Minister. Amended By: The Ministry of MSME under Section 7 of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006. New Revision Effective From: Effective from April 1, 2025. Purpose of Revision: To align MSME classification with current business realities and growth trends. To facilitate scaling-up, better credit access, and market expansion. To promote resilience, employment, and self-reliance in the MSME sector. Features of New MSME Definition: Micro Enterprises: Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore. Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore. Small Enterprises: Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore. Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore. Medium Enterprises: Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore. Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct — the post-2020 MSME classification removed the distinction between manufacturing and service enterprises, bringing them under the same threshold criteria. Statement 2 is incorrect — an enterprise is classified under a higher category if it crosses either the investment or the turnover threshold, not both. This is done to avoid bottlenecks in scaling. Statements 3 and 4 are correct — the revision is intended to ease formalization, improve access to credit and markets, and the Udyam portal uses PAN and Aadhaar for digital registration and authentication. The Government of India has notified revised criteria for MSME classification, increasing investment and turnover limits. Finance Minister had announced new classification criteria for MSMEs, with investment and turnover limits for the classifications proposed to be increased to 5 times and 2 times, respectively. About Revision of MSME Definition: What it is: A policy update amending the thresholds for classifying Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises based on investment and turnover. Announced In: Announced during the Union Budget speech by Finance Minister. Amended By: The Ministry of MSME under Section 7 of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006. New Revision Effective From: Effective from April 1, 2025. Purpose of Revision: To align MSME classification with current business realities and growth trends. To facilitate scaling-up, better credit access, and market expansion. To promote resilience, employment, and self-reliance in the MSME sector. Features of New MSME Definition: Micro Enterprises: Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore. Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore. Small Enterprises: Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore. Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore. Medium Enterprises: Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore. Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements with respect to the revised MSME classification:

• The classification considers both manufacturing and service sectors equally without sectoral distinction.

• Enterprises must exceed both investment and turnover thresholds to move to a higher category.

• The classification facilitates ease of doing business and improved credit access for growing enterprises.

• MSME registration is now linked to PAN and Aadhaar-based digital verification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct — the post-2020 MSME classification removed the distinction between manufacturing and service enterprises, bringing them under the same threshold criteria.

• Statement 2 is incorrect — an enterprise is classified under a higher category if it crosses either the investment or the turnover threshold, not both. This is done to avoid bottlenecks** in scaling.

• Statements 3 and 4 are correct — the revision is intended to ease formalization, improve access to credit and markets, and the Udyam portal uses PAN and Aadhaar for digital registration and authentication.

The Government of India has notified revised criteria for MSME classification, increasing investment and turnover limits.

• Finance Minister had announced new classification criteria for MSMEs, with investment and turnover limits for the classifications proposed to be increased to 5 times and 2 times, respectively.

About Revision of MSME Definition:

• What it is:

• A policy update amending the thresholds for classifying Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises based on investment and turnover.

• Announced In: Announced during the Union Budget speech by Finance Minister.

• Amended By: The Ministry of MSME under Section 7 of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006.

• New Revision Effective From: Effective from April 1, 2025.

• Purpose of Revision:

• To align MSME classification with current business realities and growth trends. To facilitate scaling-up, better credit access, and market expansion. To promote resilience, employment, and self-reliance in the MSME sector.

• To align MSME classification with current business realities and growth trends.

• To facilitate scaling-up, better credit access, and market expansion.

• To promote resilience, employment, and self-reliance in the MSME sector.

• Features of New MSME Definition: Micro Enterprises: Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore. Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore. Small Enterprises: Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore. Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore. Medium Enterprises: Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore. Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

• Micro Enterprises: Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore. Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.

• Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore.

• Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.

• Small Enterprises: Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore. Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore.

• Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore.

• Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore.

• Medium Enterprises: Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore. Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

• Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore.

• Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct — the post-2020 MSME classification removed the distinction between manufacturing and service enterprises, bringing them under the same threshold criteria.

The Government of India has notified revised criteria for MSME classification, increasing investment and turnover limits.

About Revision of MSME Definition:

• What it is:

• A policy update amending the thresholds for classifying Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises based on investment and turnover.

• Announced In: Announced during the Union Budget speech by Finance Minister.

• Amended By: The Ministry of MSME under Section 7 of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006.

• New Revision Effective From: Effective from April 1, 2025.

• Purpose of Revision:

• To align MSME classification with current business realities and growth trends.

• To facilitate scaling-up, better credit access, and market expansion.

• To promote resilience, employment, and self-reliance in the MSME sector.

• Micro Enterprises: Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore. Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.

• Investment limit raised from ₹1 crore to ₹2.5 crore.

• Turnover limit increased from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.

• Small Enterprises: Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore. Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore.

• Investment threshold increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore.

• Turnover ceiling raised from ₹50 crore to ₹100 crore.

• Medium Enterprises: Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore. Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

• Investment limit revised from ₹50 crore to ₹125 crore.

• Turnover limit doubled from ₹250 crore to ₹500 crore.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Form 17C used in the Indian electoral process: Form 17C is legally required to be signed by both polling agents and the presiding officer at the close of polling. It contains information about tendered votes and discrepancies in voter turnout. Form 17C is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Form 17C Part I records key polling day data such as votes cast, EVM serial numbers, tendered votes, and any discrepancies It must be signed by the Presiding Officer and polling agents for validity, ensuring transparency and consensus on the recorded numbers. Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950. About Form 17C: What it is: Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results. Its parts: Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies. Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM. Law governed under: Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Procedures laid down: Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’ Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared. Functions and powers of Form 17C: Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted. Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts. Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process. Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Form 17C Part I records key polling day data such as votes cast, EVM serial numbers, tendered votes, and any discrepancies It must be signed by the Presiding Officer and polling agents for validity, ensuring transparency and consensus on the recorded numbers. Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950. About Form 17C: What it is: Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results. Its parts: Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies. Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM. Law governed under: Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Procedures laid down: Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’ Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared. Functions and powers of Form 17C: Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted. Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts. Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process. Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Form 17C used in the Indian electoral process:

• Form 17C is legally required to be signed by both polling agents and the presiding officer at the close of polling.

• It contains information about tendered votes and discrepancies in voter turnout.

• Form 17C is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Form 17C Part I records key polling day data such as votes cast, EVM serial numbers, tendered votes, and any discrepancies It must be signed by the Presiding Officer and polling agents for validity, ensuring transparency and consensus on the recorded numbers.

• Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950.

About Form 17C:

• What it is:

• Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results.

• Its parts:

• Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies. Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM.

• Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies.

• Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM.

• Law governed under:

• Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

• Procedures laid down:

• Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’ Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared.

• Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’

• Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared.

• Functions and powers of Form 17C:

• Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted. Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts. Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process. Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.

• Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted.

• Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts.

• Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process.

• Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.

Solution: B

• Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 17C is governed under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not 1950.

About Form 17C:

• What it is:

• Form 17C is a mandatory election document that records booth-wise voter turnout and election results.

• Its parts:

• Part 1: Account of Votes Recorded — includes booth-wise data on the number of electors, votes cast, Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) identification, tendered ballots, and discrepancies.

• Part 2: Result of Counting — provides candidate-wise vote counts obtained by pressing the result button on the EVM.

• Law governed under:

• Governed by the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, framed under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

• Procedures laid down:

• Part 1 is filled by the Presiding Officer after polling, signed by polling agents, and sealed in a ‘Strong Room.’

• Part 2 is filled by the Returning Officer on counting day, verified, signed by counting agents, and officially declared.

• Functions and powers of Form 17C:

• Ensures transparency and accountability of votes recorded and counted.

• Enables cross-verification of voter turnout and vote counts.

• Helps address discrepancies and strengthens trust in the electoral process.

• Legally binding for polling and counting officials, with signatures mandatory for validation.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duties (ADD) in India: The authority to recommend anti-dumping duties lies with the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR). These duties are imposed when imports are priced below the normal value and cause material injury to domestic industry. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is correct — ADD is imposed when an imported product is sold at a price lower than its normal value (typically the domestic market price of the exporting country) and such imports cause injury to domestic producers. About Anti-Dumping Duties: What it is Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country. It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports. Authority to impose in India The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties. The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation. When it is imposed: Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price. Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed. Does it violate WTO rules? No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994. The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is correct — ADD is imposed when an imported product is sold at a price lower than its normal value (typically the domestic market price of the exporting country) and such imports cause injury to domestic producers. About Anti-Dumping Duties: What it is Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country. It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports. Authority to impose in India The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties. The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation. When it is imposed: Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price. Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed. Does it violate WTO rules? No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994. The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duties (ADD) in India:

• The authority to recommend anti-dumping duties lies with the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR).

• These duties are imposed when imports are priced below the normal value and cause material injury to domestic industry.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance.

Statement 2 is correct — ADD is imposed when an imported product is sold at a price lower than its normal value (typically the domestic market price of the exporting country) and such imports cause injury to domestic producers.

About Anti-Dumping Duties:

• What it is

• Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country. It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports.

• Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country.

• It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports.

• Authority to impose in India

• The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties. The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation.

• The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties.

• The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation.

• When it is imposed:

• Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price. Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed.

• Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price.

• Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed.

• Does it violate WTO rules?

• No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994. The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.

• No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994.

• The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct — the DGTR, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency that conducts investigations and recommends ADD to the Ministry of Finance.

About Anti-Dumping Duties:

• What it is

• Anti-dumping duty is a protectionist tariff imposed on imports priced below their normal value in the exporting country.

• It aims to protect domestic industries from injury caused by unfairly priced imports.

• Authority to impose in India

• The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry recommends anti-dumping duties.

• The Ministry of Finance notifies and levies these duties based on DGTR’s investigation and recommendation.

• When it is imposed:

• Imposed after evidence of material injury to domestic industry from cheap imports sold at below market price.

• Duties are typically levied for a period of up to five years and periodically reviewed.

• Does it violate WTO rules?

• No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994. The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.

• No, it is permitted under Article 6 of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), 1994.

• The WTO Anti-Dumping Agreement allows members to impose duties to ensure fair trade practices.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding revised MSME classification. Statement-I: The revised MSME classification allows units with higher turnover and investment to continue availing MSME benefits. Statement-II: This move aims to ensure MSMEs are not prematurely excluded from policy incentives as they scale up. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct. The revised MSME classification is intended to support growing enterprises so they can stay within the MSME bracket longer, thereby accessing benefits like priority sector lending, interest subvention, and market linkage schemes. Statement II correctly explains the policy intent — the earlier definitions often pushed fast-growing units out of the MSME umbrella, depriving them of support during their critical growth phase. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct. The revised MSME classification is intended to support growing enterprises so they can stay within the MSME bracket longer, thereby accessing benefits like priority sector lending, interest subvention, and market linkage schemes. Statement II correctly explains the policy intent — the earlier definitions often pushed fast-growing units out of the MSME umbrella, depriving them of support during their critical growth phase.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding revised MSME classification.

Statement-I: The revised MSME classification allows units with higher turnover and investment to continue availing MSME benefits. Statement-II: This move aims to ensure MSMEs are not prematurely excluded from policy incentives as they scale up.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct. The revised MSME classification is intended to support growing enterprises so they can stay within the MSME bracket longer, thereby accessing benefits like priority sector lending, interest subvention, and market linkage schemes.

• Statement II correctly explains the policy intent — the earlier definitions often pushed fast-growing units out of the MSME umbrella, depriving them of support during their critical growth phase.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent actions on Anti-Dumping Duties: Anti-dumping duties are levied by the Ministry of Commerce and enforced by the Ministry of External Affairs. The duty can be levied for a maximum of 5 years but is subject to a sunset review. These duties aim to ensure fair trade rather than protectionism in violation of WTO norms. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect — while the DGTR (Ministry of Commerce) recommends the duties, they are imposed by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of External Affairs. Anti-dumping duties are typically valid for up to 5 years, after which a sunset review may continue or terminate the duty. ADD is not a violation of WTO norms when used appropriately; it is a WTO-sanctioned trade remedy to ensure fair pricing and prevent market distortion. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect — while the DGTR (Ministry of Commerce) recommends the duties, they are imposed by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of External Affairs. Anti-dumping duties are typically valid for up to 5 years, after which a sunset review may continue or terminate the duty. ADD is not a violation of WTO norms when used appropriately; it is a WTO-sanctioned trade remedy to ensure fair pricing and prevent market distortion.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent actions on Anti-Dumping Duties:

• Anti-dumping duties are levied by the Ministry of Commerce and enforced by the Ministry of External Affairs.

• The duty can be levied for a maximum of 5 years but is subject to a sunset review.

• These duties aim to ensure fair trade rather than protectionism in violation of WTO norms.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect — while the DGTR (Ministry of Commerce) recommends the duties, they are imposed by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of External Affairs.

• Anti-dumping duties are typically valid for up to 5 years, after which a sunset review may continue or terminate the duty.

• ADD is not a violation of WTO norms when used appropriately; it is a WTO-sanctioned trade remedy to ensure fair pricing and prevent market distortion.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect — while the DGTR (Ministry of Commerce) recommends the duties, they are imposed by the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of External Affairs.

• Anti-dumping duties are typically valid for up to 5 years, after which a sunset review may continue or terminate the duty.

• ADD is not a violation of WTO norms when used appropriately; it is a WTO-sanctioned trade remedy to ensure fair pricing and prevent market distortion.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Secret Sitting in Parliament: The Constitution of India explicitly provides for secret sittings of both Houses of Parliament. Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure permits secret sittings when recommended by the Leader of the House and approved by the Speaker. The proceedings of secret sittings are published in the official records only if the House resolves to do so. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect — The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for secret sittings. Instead, it allows Parliament to make its own rules of procedure under Article 118, under which the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for both Houses have been framed. Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it. Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public. About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha: What it is A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access. Constitutional Provision: The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118. Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting. History: Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting. In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru. Who can declare a secret sitting: The Leader of the House can request it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting. Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well. It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House. Features of Secret Sitting: No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries. Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval. Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege. Limits: Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion. Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action. Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect — The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for secret sittings. Instead, it allows Parliament to make its own rules of procedure under Article 118, under which the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for both Houses have been framed. Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it. Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public. About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha: What it is A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access. Constitutional Provision: The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118. Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting. History: Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting. In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru. Who can declare a secret sitting: The Leader of the House can request it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting. Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well. It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House. Features of Secret Sitting: No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries. Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval. Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege. Limits: Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion. Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action. Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Secret Sitting in Parliament:

• The Constitution of India explicitly provides for secret sittings of both Houses of Parliament.

• Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure permits secret sittings when recommended by the Leader of the House and approved by the Speaker.

• The proceedings of secret sittings are published in the official records only if the House resolves to do so.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect — The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide for secret sittings. Instead, it allows Parliament to make its own rules of procedure under Article 118, under which the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for both Houses have been framed.

• Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it.

• Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public.

About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha:

• What it is

• A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access.

• Constitutional Provision:

• The Constitution of India does not directly mention secret sittings, but it empowers Parliament to frame its own rules under Article 118. Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting.

• Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting.

• History:

• Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting. In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting.

• In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Who can declare a secret sitting:

• The Leader of the House can request it. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting. Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well. It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House.

• The Leader of the House can request it.

• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting.

• Secret sitting is allowed in Rajya Sabha as well. It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House.

• It is provided under Rule 266 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), where the Chairman can permit a secret sitting on a request made by the Leader of the House.

• Features of Secret Sitting:

• No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries. Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval. Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege.

• No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries.

• Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval.

• Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege.

• Limits:

• Participants cannot keep notes or publish any part of the discussion. Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action. Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.

• Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action.

• Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct — Under Rule 248 of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Leader of the House may request a secret sitting, and the Speaker may approve it.

• Statement 3 is also correct — the proceedings of a secret sitting are not automatically published; they are only published if the House later resolves to make them public.

About Secret Sitting of Lok Sabha:

• What it is

• A secret sitting is a closed-door parliamentary session where discussions are held confidentially, without public or media access.

• Constitutional Provision:

• Chapter 25 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, specifically Rule 248 mention about Secret Sitting.

• History:

• Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting. In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Though permitted by law, India has never conducted a secret sitting.

• In 1962, during the Chinese aggression, the proposal for secret sitting was suggested but declined by PM Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Who can declare a secret sitting:

• The Leader of the House can request it.

• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to approve and schedule the secret sitting.

• Features of Secret Sitting:

• No visitors or outsiders are allowed in the chamber, lobby, or galleries.

• Proceedings are recorded and published only with the Speaker’s approval.

• Any unauthorized disclosure is considered a gross breach of privilege.

• Limits:

• Revealing secret sitting proceedings is considered a gross breach of privilege of the House, leading to disciplinary action.

• Only with the Speaker’s consent and a passed motion can such information be officially disclosed.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding George VI Ice Shelf region, recently seen in news. The George VI Ice Shelf region is governed under the Antarctic Treaty System. The Antarctic Treaty permits sovereign control and exclusive research zones by signatory countries. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct — the George VI Ice Shelf lies within the area governed by the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS), which covers all land and ice shelves south of 60°S latitude. Statement II is incorrect — under ATS, no new territorial claims are recognized, and existing claims are held in abeyance. The continent is demilitarized and dedicated to peaceful scientific exploration, not exclusive control. Scientists discovered thriving ecosystems with potential new species beneath the Antarctic ice shelf after the A-84 iceberg broke away from the George VI Ice Shelf. About George VI Ice Shelf: Located in: Situated in Antarctica, occupying George VI Sound, which separates Alexander Island from Palmer Land. Nation controlling it: Governed under the Antarctic Treaty System, with research presence and exploration led by United Kingdom and United States. Neighbouring Sea: Lies adjacent to the Bellingshausen Sea in the Southern Ocean. Geographical Features: Stretches from Ronne Entrance in the southwest to Niznik Island in the north, covering around 30 nautical miles. Ice thickness exceeds 150 metres, with underlying waters reaching depths of 1,300 metres. Characterized by extensive floating ice shelves, subglacial ecosystems, and complex underwater geography. Recent Discoveries Beneath George VI Ice Shelf: New Species Found: Discovery of giant sea spiders, octopi, corals, and a giant phantom jellyfish at depths of up to 1,300 meters. Unexplored Ecosystems: Accessed after the break-away of the A-84 iceberg, revealing life in previously inaccessible regions. Nutrient Transport Mystery: Possible unknown nutrient transport mechanisms sustaining life under 150-meter-thick ice. Significance of Discoveries: Scientific Breakthrough: Challenges existing assumptions about life in extreme, nutrient-deprived environments. Climate Insights: Offers clues on how ecosystems may respond to melting ice shelves and climate change. Marine Conservation: Underlines the need to protect fragile Antarctic marine ecosystems. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct — the George VI Ice Shelf lies within the area governed by the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS), which covers all land and ice shelves south of 60°S latitude. Statement II is incorrect — under ATS, no new territorial claims are recognized, and existing claims are held in abeyance. The continent is demilitarized and dedicated to peaceful scientific exploration, not exclusive control. Scientists discovered thriving ecosystems with potential new species beneath the Antarctic ice shelf after the A-84 iceberg broke away from the George VI Ice Shelf. About George VI Ice Shelf: Located in: Situated in Antarctica, occupying George VI Sound, which separates Alexander Island from Palmer Land. Nation controlling it: Governed under the Antarctic Treaty System, with research presence and exploration led by United Kingdom and United States. Neighbouring Sea: Lies adjacent to the Bellingshausen Sea in the Southern Ocean. Geographical Features: Stretches from Ronne Entrance in the southwest to Niznik Island in the north, covering around 30 nautical miles. Ice thickness exceeds 150 metres, with underlying waters reaching depths of 1,300 metres. Characterized by extensive floating ice shelves, subglacial ecosystems, and complex underwater geography. Recent Discoveries Beneath George VI Ice Shelf: New Species Found: Discovery of giant sea spiders, octopi, corals, and a giant phantom jellyfish at depths of up to 1,300 meters. Unexplored Ecosystems: Accessed after the break-away of the A-84 iceberg, revealing life in previously inaccessible regions. Nutrient Transport Mystery: Possible unknown nutrient transport mechanisms sustaining life under 150-meter-thick ice. Significance of Discoveries: Scientific Breakthrough: Challenges existing assumptions about life in extreme, nutrient-deprived environments. Climate Insights: Offers clues on how ecosystems may respond to melting ice shelves and climate change. Marine Conservation: Underlines the need to protect fragile Antarctic marine ecosystems.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding George VI Ice Shelf region, recently seen in news.

• The George VI Ice Shelf region is governed under the Antarctic Treaty System.

• The Antarctic Treaty permits sovereign control and exclusive research zones by signatory countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct — the George VI Ice Shelf lies within the area governed by the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS), which covers all land and ice shelves south of 60°S latitude.

• Statement II is incorrect — under ATS, no new territorial claims are recognized, and existing claims are held in abeyance. The continent is demilitarized and dedicated to peaceful scientific exploration, not exclusive control.

Scientists discovered thriving ecosystems with potential new species beneath the Antarctic ice shelf after the A-84 iceberg broke away from the George VI Ice Shelf.

About George VI Ice Shelf:

• Located in:

• Situated in Antarctica, occupying George VI Sound, which separates Alexander Island from Palmer Land.

• Nation controlling it:

• Governed under the Antarctic Treaty System, with research presence and exploration led by United Kingdom and United States.

• Neighbouring Sea: Lies adjacent to the Bellingshausen Sea in the Southern Ocean.

• Geographical Features:

• Stretches from Ronne Entrance in the southwest to Niznik Island in the north, covering around 30 nautical miles. Ice thickness exceeds 150 metres, with underlying waters reaching depths of 1,300 metres. Characterized by extensive floating ice shelves, subglacial ecosystems, and complex underwater geography.

• Stretches from Ronne Entrance in the southwest to Niznik Island in the north, covering around 30 nautical miles.

• Ice thickness exceeds 150 metres, with underlying waters reaching depths of 1,300 metres.

• Characterized by extensive floating ice shelves, subglacial ecosystems, and complex underwater geography.

• Recent Discoveries Beneath George VI Ice Shelf:

• New Species Found: Discovery of giant sea spiders, octopi, corals, and a giant phantom jellyfish at depths of up to 1,300 meters. Unexplored Ecosystems: Accessed after the break-away of the A-84 iceberg, revealing life in previously inaccessible regions. Nutrient Transport Mystery: Possible unknown nutrient transport mechanisms sustaining life under 150-meter-thick ice.

• New Species Found: Discovery of giant sea spiders, octopi, corals, and a giant phantom jellyfish at depths of up to 1,300 meters.

• Unexplored Ecosystems: Accessed after the break-away of the A-84 iceberg, revealing life in previously inaccessible regions.

• Nutrient Transport Mystery: Possible unknown nutrient transport mechanisms sustaining life under 150-meter-thick ice.

• Significance of Discoveries:

• Scientific Breakthrough: Challenges existing assumptions about life in extreme, nutrient-deprived environments. Climate Insights: Offers clues on how ecosystems may respond to melting ice shelves and climate change. Marine Conservation: Underlines the need to protect fragile Antarctic marine ecosystems.

• Scientific Breakthrough: Challenges existing assumptions about life in extreme, nutrient-deprived environments.

• Climate Insights: Offers clues on how ecosystems may respond to melting ice shelves and climate change.

• Marine Conservation: Underlines the need to protect fragile Antarctic marine ecosystems.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct — the George VI Ice Shelf lies within the area governed by the Antarctic Treaty System (ATS), which covers all land and ice shelves south of 60°S latitude.

Scientists discovered thriving ecosystems with potential new species beneath the Antarctic ice shelf after the A-84 iceberg broke away from the George VI Ice Shelf.

About George VI Ice Shelf:

• Located in:

• Situated in Antarctica, occupying George VI Sound, which separates Alexander Island from Palmer Land.

• Nation controlling it:

• Governed under the Antarctic Treaty System, with research presence and exploration led by United Kingdom and United States.

• Neighbouring Sea: Lies adjacent to the Bellingshausen Sea in the Southern Ocean.

• Geographical Features:

• Stretches from Ronne Entrance in the southwest to Niznik Island in the north, covering around 30 nautical miles.

• Ice thickness exceeds 150 metres, with underlying waters reaching depths of 1,300 metres.

• Characterized by extensive floating ice shelves, subglacial ecosystems, and complex underwater geography.

• Recent Discoveries Beneath George VI Ice Shelf:

• New Species Found: Discovery of giant sea spiders, octopi, corals, and a giant phantom jellyfish at depths of up to 1,300 meters.

• Unexplored Ecosystems: Accessed after the break-away of the A-84 iceberg, revealing life in previously inaccessible regions.

• Nutrient Transport Mystery: Possible unknown nutrient transport mechanisms sustaining life under 150-meter-thick ice.

• Significance of Discoveries:

• Scientific Breakthrough: Challenges existing assumptions about life in extreme, nutrient-deprived environments.

• Climate Insights: Offers clues on how ecosystems may respond to melting ice shelves and climate change.

• Marine Conservation: Underlines the need to protect fragile Antarctic marine ecosystems.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the TB Champion model: TB Champions are typically healthcare professionals deployed to deliver door-to-door medication in urban slums. The model focuses on peer-led advocacy by TB survivors to enhance treatment adherence. It has been adopted effectively in Meghalaya, especially in hard-to-reach tribal belts. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect — TB Champions are not health professionals but trained TB survivors who engage in peer-led community awareness, breaking stigma and encouraging early detection. Statement 2 is correct — these survivors serve as relatable advocates, motivating patients through shared experiences, a critical approach in behavior change communication. Statement 3 is also correct — Meghalaya’s implementation of this model in remote and tribal areas underscores its utility in last-mile healthcare outreach. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect — TB Champions are not health professionals but trained TB survivors who engage in peer-led community awareness, breaking stigma and encouraging early detection. Statement 2 is correct — these survivors serve as relatable advocates, motivating patients through shared experiences, a critical approach in behavior change communication. Statement 3 is also correct — Meghalaya’s implementation of this model in remote and tribal areas underscores its utility in last-mile healthcare outreach.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the TB Champion model:

• TB Champions are typically healthcare professionals deployed to deliver door-to-door medication in urban slums. The model focuses on peer-led advocacy by TB survivors to enhance treatment adherence. It has been adopted effectively in Meghalaya, especially in hard-to-reach tribal belts.

• TB Champions are typically healthcare professionals deployed to deliver door-to-door medication in urban slums.

• The model focuses on peer-led advocacy by TB survivors to enhance treatment adherence.

• It has been adopted effectively in Meghalaya, especially in hard-to-reach tribal belts.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect — TB Champions are not health professionals but trained TB survivors who engage in peer-led community awareness, breaking stigma and encouraging early detection.

• Statement 2 is correct — these survivors serve as relatable advocates, motivating patients through shared experiences, a critical approach in behavior change communication.

Statement 3 is also correct — Meghalaya’s implementation of this model in remote and tribal areas underscores its utility in last-mile healthcare outreach.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct — these survivors serve as relatable advocates, motivating patients through shared experiences, a critical approach in behavior change communication.

Statement 3 is also correct — Meghalaya’s implementation of this model in remote and tribal areas underscores its utility in last-mile healthcare outreach.

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