UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the NAVYA initiative, consider the following statements: It is a collaborative programme between the Ministry of Women and Child Development and the Ministry of Education. The initiative exclusively targets girls aged 16–18 who have passed at least Class 12. It aims to empower adolescent girls by focusing on skilling them for non-traditional job roles to promote gender parity. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NAVYA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) and the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative targets girls aged 16–18, but the qualification required is “at least Class 10 qualification,” not Class 12. Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core objective of the initiative. The focus is on “non-traditional job roles to promote gender parity in new sectors” and to “Empower adolescent girls with market-relevant vocational skills.” Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The NAVYA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) and the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Education. Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative targets girls aged 16–18, but the qualification required is “at least Class 10 qualification,” not Class 12. Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core objective of the initiative. The focus is on “non-traditional job roles to promote gender parity in new sectors” and to “Empower adolescent girls with market-relevant vocational skills.”

#### 1. Question

With reference to the NAVYA initiative, consider the following statements:

• It is a collaborative programme between the Ministry of Women and Child Development and the Ministry of Education.

• The initiative exclusively targets girls aged 16–18 who have passed at least Class 12.

• It aims to empower adolescent girls by focusing on skilling them for non-traditional job roles to promote gender parity.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The NAVYA is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) and the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Education.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative targets girls aged 16–18, but the qualification required is “at least Class 10 qualification,” not Class 12.

• Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately captures the core objective of the initiative. The focus is on “non-traditional job roles to promote gender parity in new sectors” and to “Empower adolescent girls with market-relevant vocational skills.”

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The initiative targets girls aged 16–18, but the qualification required is “at least Class 10 qualification,” not Class 12.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The Training of Trainers (ToT) programme has been launched to strengthen the financial autonomy of Panchayats. In this context, consider the following statements: The programme is an independent initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with NITI Ayog It functions under the umbrella of the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. A key feature of the programme is the development of a Model Own Source Revenue (OSR) Framework and a Digital Tax Collection Portal. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabadand Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA). Statement 2 is correct. The ToT programme is “Implemented under Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA).” This places the ToT within a larger, established framework for strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions. Statement 3 is correct. The programme “Lays the groundwork for a Model OSR Rules Framework and Digital Tax Collection Portal.” This highlights the programme’s focus on creating systemic and technological solutions for revenue generation. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabadand Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA). Statement 2 is correct. The ToT programme is “Implemented under Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA).” This places the ToT within a larger, established framework for strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions. Statement 3 is correct. The programme “Lays the groundwork for a Model OSR Rules Framework and Digital Tax Collection Portal.” This highlights the programme’s focus on creating systemic and technological solutions for revenue generation.

#### 2. Question

The Training of Trainers (ToT) programme has been launched to strengthen the financial autonomy of Panchayats. In this context, consider the following statements:

• The programme is an independent initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with NITI Ayog

• It functions under the umbrella of the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

• A key feature of the programme is the development of a Model Own Source Revenue (OSR) Framework and a Digital Tax Collection Portal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabadand Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA).

• Statement 2 is correct. The ToT programme is “Implemented under Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA).” This places the ToT within a larger, established framework for strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Statement 3 is correct. The programme “Lays the groundwork for a Model OSR Rules Framework and Digital Tax Collection Portal.” This highlights the programme’s focus on creating systemic and technological solutions for revenue generation.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabadand Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA).

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA): It is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2022 to exclusively fund the creation of digital infrastructure in Panchayats. A primary objective of the scheme is to build the governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to help achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The scheme encourages the devolution of powers in line with the provisions of the PESA Act of 1996. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), not a Central Sector Scheme. Furthermore, its purpose is broad capacity building, not exclusively funding digital infrastructure, although it does integrate technology. It was also originally launched in 2018 and revamped, not launched for the first time in 2022. Statement 2 is correct. The objectives include “Build governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).” This is a central pillar of the scheme. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme “Encourages decentralisation and devolution of powers in line with PESA Act 1996,” linking it to the important legal framework for tribal self-governance. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), not a Central Sector Scheme. Furthermore, its purpose is broad capacity building, not exclusively funding digital infrastructure, although it does integrate technology. It was also originally launched in 2018 and revamped, not launched for the first time in 2022. Statement 2 is correct. The objectives include “Build governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).” This is a central pillar of the scheme. Statement 3 is correct. The scheme “Encourages decentralisation and devolution of powers in line with PESA Act 1996,” linking it to the important legal framework for tribal self-governance.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA):

• It is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2022 to exclusively fund the creation of digital infrastructure in Panchayats.

• A primary objective of the scheme is to build the governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to help achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

• The scheme encourages the devolution of powers in line with the provisions of the PESA Act of 1996.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), not a Central Sector Scheme. Furthermore, its purpose is broad capacity building, not exclusively funding digital infrastructure, although it does integrate technology. It was also originally launched in 2018 and revamped, not launched for the first time in 2022.

• Statement 2 is correct. The objectives include “Build governance capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).” This is a central pillar of the scheme.

Statement 3 is correct. The scheme “Encourages decentralisation and devolution of powers in line with PESA Act 1996,” linking it to the important legal framework for tribal self-governance.

Solution: A

Statement 3 is correct. The scheme “Encourages decentralisation and devolution of powers in line with PESA Act 1996,” linking it to the important legal framework for tribal self-governance.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most critical and direct significance of India’s proposed Household Income Survey to be conducted in 2026? (a) It will replace the need for the existing Household Consumption Expenditure Survey. (b) It is primarily designed to measure the impact of private capital expenditure on household savings. (c) It will be the first-ever attempt by the National Sample Survey (NSS) to collect any form of income-related data. (d) It aims to provide robust data on income distribution, filling a major gap in India’s statistical infrastructure. Correct Solution: D Option (d) is correct. The survey’s purpose is to “generate robust and reliable data on income distribution across India for the first time” and that it “Fills a critical data gap in understanding India’s evolving income patterns.” This is the central motivation for the survey. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is correct. The survey’s purpose is to “generate robust and reliable data on income distribution across India for the first time” and that it “Fills a critical data gap in understanding India’s evolving income patterns.” This is the central motivation for the survey.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is the most critical and direct significance of India’s proposed Household Income Survey to be conducted in 2026?

• (a) It will replace the need for the existing Household Consumption Expenditure Survey.

• (b) It is primarily designed to measure the impact of private capital expenditure on household savings.

• (c) It will be the first-ever attempt by the National Sample Survey (NSS) to collect any form of income-related data.

• (d) It aims to provide robust data on income distribution, filling a major gap in India’s statistical infrastructure.

Solution: D

Option (d) is correct. The survey’s purpose is to “generate robust and reliable data on income distribution across India for the first time” and that it “Fills a critical data gap in understanding India’s evolving income patterns.” This is the central motivation for the survey.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ambubachi Mela and the Kamakhya Temple: The Ambubachi Mela celebrates the symbolic annual menstruation of Goddess Kamakhya, representing the fertility of the earth. The Kamakhya Temple, located on the Nilachal Hills in Assam, was originally constructed by the Ahom kings and is a major site for Tantric worship. The temple’s architecture features an idol of the Goddess in the main sanctum, which is revered by devotees. The festival uniquely involves the distribution of cloth pieces, believed to be stained with the Goddess’s menstrual fluid, as protective amulets. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Mela acts as marking the “menstrual cycle of Goddess Kamakhya, symbolising the fertility of the earth.” Statement 2 is incorrect. The temple was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, king of the Koch dynasty, not the Ahom kings. Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of the temple is that “No idol is worshipped”. Instead, the sanctum houses a “yoni-shaped cleft with a natural spring flowing through.” Statement 4 is correct. The “Cloth pieces stained with symbolic marks are distributed as protective amulets,” which is a distinct and well-known practice associated with the Mela. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Mela acts as marking the “menstrual cycle of Goddess Kamakhya, symbolising the fertility of the earth.” Statement 2 is incorrect. The temple was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, king of the Koch dynasty, not the Ahom kings. Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of the temple is that “No idol is worshipped”. Instead, the sanctum houses a “yoni-shaped cleft with a natural spring flowing through.” Statement 4 is correct. The “Cloth pieces stained with symbolic marks are distributed as protective amulets,” which is a distinct and well-known practice associated with the Mela.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ambubachi Mela and the Kamakhya Temple:

• The Ambubachi Mela celebrates the symbolic annual menstruation of Goddess Kamakhya, representing the fertility of the earth.

• The Kamakhya Temple, located on the Nilachal Hills in Assam, was originally constructed by the Ahom kings and is a major site for Tantric worship.

• The temple’s architecture features an idol of the Goddess in the main sanctum, which is revered by devotees.

• The festival uniquely involves the distribution of cloth pieces, believed to be stained with the Goddess’s menstrual fluid, as protective amulets.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Mela acts as marking the “menstrual cycle of Goddess Kamakhya, symbolising the fertility of the earth.”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The temple was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, king of the Koch dynasty, not the Ahom kings.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of the temple is that “No idol is worshipped”. Instead, the sanctum houses a “yoni-shaped cleft with a natural spring flowing through.”

Statement 4 is correct. The “Cloth pieces stained with symbolic marks are distributed as protective amulets,” which is a distinct and well-known practice associated with the Mela.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Mela acts as marking the “menstrual cycle of Goddess Kamakhya, symbolising the fertility of the earth.”

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The temple was reconstructed in 1565 by Chilarai, king of the Koch dynasty, not the Ahom kings.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. A unique feature of the temple is that “No idol is worshipped”. Instead, the sanctum houses a “yoni-shaped cleft with a natural spring flowing through.”

Statement 4 is correct. The “Cloth pieces stained with symbolic marks are distributed as protective amulets,” which is a distinct and well-known practice associated with the Mela.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC): The OIC was established in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, following the Al-Aqsa incident. India holds a ‘consultative status’ within the OIC, allowing it to participate in key meetings. The organisation’s primary mandate is to promote Islamic solidarity and safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The OIC was established in Rabat, Morocco in 1969. Its headquarters are located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is not a member of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), nor does it hold a formal “consultative status” with the OIC in the way non-governmental organizations might with the UN. Statement 3 is correct. The core objectives include to “Promote Islamic solidarity among member states” and “Safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah.” Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The OIC was established in Rabat, Morocco in 1969. Its headquarters are located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Statement 2 is incorrect. India is not a member of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), nor does it hold a formal “consultative status” with the OIC in the way non-governmental organizations might with the UN. Statement 3 is correct. The core objectives include to “Promote Islamic solidarity among member states” and “Safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah.”

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):

• The OIC was established in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia, following the Al-Aqsa incident.

• India holds a ‘consultative status’ within the OIC, allowing it to participate in key meetings.

• The organisation’s primary mandate is to promote Islamic solidarity and safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The OIC was established in Rabat, Morocco in 1969. Its headquarters are located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. India is not a member of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), nor does it hold a formal “consultative status” with the OIC in the way non-governmental organizations might with the UN.

Statement 3 is correct. The core objectives include to “Promote Islamic solidarity among member states” and “Safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah.”

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The OIC was established in Rabat, Morocco in 1969. Its headquarters are located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.

Statement 3 is correct. The core objectives include to “Promote Islamic solidarity among member states” and “Safeguard the interests of the Muslim Ummah.”

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to Sree Narayana Guru, consider the following statements: He was a key leader of the Vaikom Satyagraha and founded the Sivagiri Mutt. His philosophy is encapsulated in the slogan: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.” He exclusively authored works in Sanskrit to challenge the scholarly dominance of the upper castes. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Sree Narayana Guru has important role in the Vaikom Satyagraha and he established the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904. Statement 2 is correct. This is his most famous teaching: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.” This summarises his message of universal brotherhood. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Sree Narayana Guru was a profound scholar of Sanskrit and utilized it in many of his philosophical and spiritual works, he also authored significant works in Malayalam and Tamil. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Sree Narayana Guru has important role in the Vaikom Satyagraha and he established the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904. Statement 2 is correct. This is his most famous teaching: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.” This summarises his message of universal brotherhood. Statement 3 is incorrect. While Sree Narayana Guru was a profound scholar of Sanskrit and utilized it in many of his philosophical and spiritual works, he also authored significant works in Malayalam and Tamil.

#### 7. Question

With reference to Sree Narayana Guru, consider the following statements:

• He was a key leader of the Vaikom Satyagraha and founded the Sivagiri Mutt.

• His philosophy is encapsulated in the slogan: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.”

• He exclusively authored works in Sanskrit to challenge the scholarly dominance of the upper castes.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Sree Narayana Guru has important role in the Vaikom Satyagraha and he established the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904.

• Statement 2 is correct. This is his most famous teaching: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.” This summarises his message of universal brotherhood.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While Sree Narayana Guru was a profound scholar of Sanskrit and utilized it in many of his philosophical and spiritual works, he also authored significant works in Malayalam and Tamil.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Sree Narayana Guru has important role in the Vaikom Satyagraha and he established the Sivagiri Mutt in 1904.

• Statement 2 is correct. This is his most famous teaching: “One Caste, One Religion, One God for humanity.” This summarises his message of universal brotherhood.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB): It is a scheduled commercial bank wholly owned by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It primarily focuses on providing doorstep banking services through the postal network of Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks. IPPB is authorised to issue credit cards and advance loans on its own. It recently received the Digital Payments Award from the Ministry of Communications for its role in financial inclusion. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. IPPB is a payments bank, not a scheduled commercial bank, and it is 100% owned by the Government of India under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is correct. IPPB’s unique selling proposition is its extensive reach into rural and unbanked areas, leveraging the vast network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks to offer doorstep banking services, bridging the last-mile connectivity gap. Statement 3 is incorrect. As a payments bank, IPPB is subject to regulatory restrictions by the RBI. It can accept deposits (up to a certain limit), offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking and third-party fund transfers. However, it is not permitted to issue credit cards or advance loans. Statement 4 is incorrect. While IPPB did receive the prestigious Digital Payments Award 2024-25, it was conferred by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Communications. This award recognised its efforts in promoting a digital payment ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. IPPB is a payments bank, not a scheduled commercial bank, and it is 100% owned by the Government of India under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Finance. Statement 2 is correct. IPPB’s unique selling proposition is its extensive reach into rural and unbanked areas, leveraging the vast network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks to offer doorstep banking services, bridging the last-mile connectivity gap. Statement 3 is incorrect. As a payments bank, IPPB is subject to regulatory restrictions by the RBI. It can accept deposits (up to a certain limit), offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking and third-party fund transfers. However, it is not permitted to issue credit cards or advance loans. Statement 4 is incorrect. While IPPB did receive the prestigious Digital Payments Award 2024-25, it was conferred by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Communications. This award recognised its efforts in promoting a digital payment ecosystem.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):

• It is a scheduled commercial bank wholly owned by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

• It primarily focuses on providing doorstep banking services through the postal network of Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks.

• IPPB is authorised to issue credit cards and advance loans on its own.

• It recently received the Digital Payments Award from the Ministry of Communications for its role in financial inclusion.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. IPPB is a payments bank, not a scheduled commercial bank, and it is 100% owned by the Government of India under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, not the Ministry of Finance.

• Statement 2 is correct. IPPB’s unique selling proposition is its extensive reach into rural and unbanked areas, leveraging the vast network of over 2 lakh Postmen and Gramin Dak Sevaks to offer doorstep banking services, bridging the last-mile connectivity gap.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. As a payments bank, IPPB is subject to regulatory restrictions by the RBI. It can accept deposits (up to a certain limit), offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking and third-party fund transfers. However, it is not permitted to issue credit cards or advance loans.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While IPPB did receive the prestigious Digital Payments Award 2024-25, it was conferred by the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Communications. This award recognised its efforts in promoting a digital payment ecosystem.

Solution: C

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Samson Option, recently in news. It is a publicly declared nuclear-first-use policy of Iran. The doctrine is primarily designed as a psychological deterrent based on massive retaliation to an existential threat. The name is a symbolic reference to a historical event of mass suicide at Masada. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Samson Option is associated with Israel, not Iran. Furthermore, it is not a publicly declared policy but a doctrine of strategic ambiguity, where Israel neither confirms nor denies its nuclear capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The core of the Samson Option is to deter any aggressor from attempting to annihilate Israel by signaling the certainty of a catastrophic nuclear counter-strike. Its power lies more in its psychological impact and the principle of mutually assured destruction rather than as an operational war plan for routine conflicts. It is considered a “last resort” doctrine. Statement 3 is incorrect. The doctrine is named after the biblical figure Samson, who, after being captured and blinded, brought down the pillars of a Philistine temple, killing himself along with his enemies. This symbolises a self-sacrificial act of ultimate retaliation if the nation’s survival is at stake. The mass suicide at Masada is a different historical event, often contrasted with the Samson Option’s theme of taking the enemy down with you. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Samson Option is associated with Israel, not Iran. Furthermore, it is not a publicly declared policy but a doctrine of strategic ambiguity, where Israel neither confirms nor denies its nuclear capabilities. Statement 2 is correct. The core of the Samson Option is to deter any aggressor from attempting to annihilate Israel by signaling the certainty of a catastrophic nuclear counter-strike. Its power lies more in its psychological impact and the principle of mutually assured destruction rather than as an operational war plan for routine conflicts. It is considered a “last resort” doctrine. Statement 3 is incorrect. The doctrine is named after the biblical figure Samson, who, after being captured and blinded, brought down the pillars of a Philistine temple, killing himself along with his enemies. This symbolises a self-sacrificial act of ultimate retaliation if the nation’s survival is at stake. The mass suicide at Masada is a different historical event, often contrasted with the Samson Option’s theme of taking the enemy down with you.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Samson Option, recently in news.

• It is a publicly declared nuclear-first-use policy of Iran.

• The doctrine is primarily designed as a psychological deterrent based on massive retaliation to an existential threat.

• The name is a symbolic reference to a historical event of mass suicide at Masada.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Samson Option is associated with Israel, not Iran. Furthermore, it is not a publicly declared policy but a doctrine of strategic ambiguity, where Israel neither confirms nor denies its nuclear capabilities.

• Statement 2 is correct. The core of the Samson Option is to deter any aggressor from attempting to annihilate Israel by signaling the certainty of a catastrophic nuclear counter-strike. Its power lies more in its psychological impact and the principle of mutually assured destruction rather than as an operational war plan for routine conflicts. It is considered a “last resort” doctrine.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The doctrine is named after the biblical figure Samson, who, after being captured and blinded, brought down the pillars of a Philistine temple, killing himself along with his enemies. This symbolises a self-sacrificial act of ultimate retaliation if the nation’s survival is at stake. The mass suicide at Masada is a different historical event, often contrasted with the Samson Option’s theme of taking the enemy down with you.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ghumot instrument: It is a percussion instrument exclusively used in the Hindustani classical music tradition. The instrument was declared the State Heritage Instrument of Goa, with the condition that its membrane cannot be made from the skin of the monitor lizard. It plays a significant role in the cultural and religious festivities of both Hindu and Christian communities in Goa. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ghumot is a traditional Goan folk percussion instrument, not a classical one. It is integral to local traditions like Mandos, Shigmo, and Sao Joao festivals, but is not part of the formal structure of Hindustani or Carnatic classical music. Statement 2 is correct. In 2019, the Goa government declared the Ghumot as its heritage instrument. However, this recognition came with a crucial caveat to promote wildlife conservation. The use of the monitor lizard’s skin, which is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, was banned. Artisans now use alternatives like goat skin or synthetic materials. Statement 3 is correct. The Ghumot is a powerful symbol of Goa’s syncretic culture. It is deeply embedded in the rituals and celebrations of both major communities. For Hindus, it is prominent during Ganesh Chaturthi, while for Christians, it is used in pre-wedding ceremonies and festivals like Sao Joao, showcasing its role in bridging communities. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ghumot is a traditional Goan folk percussion instrument, not a classical one. It is integral to local traditions like Mandos, Shigmo, and Sao Joao festivals, but is not part of the formal structure of Hindustani or Carnatic classical music. Statement 2 is correct. In 2019, the Goa government declared the Ghumot as its heritage instrument. However, this recognition came with a crucial caveat to promote wildlife conservation. The use of the monitor lizard’s skin, which is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, was banned. Artisans now use alternatives like goat skin or synthetic materials. Statement 3 is correct. The Ghumot is a powerful symbol of Goa’s syncretic culture. It is deeply embedded in the rituals and celebrations of both major communities. For Hindus, it is prominent during Ganesh Chaturthi, while for Christians, it is used in pre-wedding ceremonies and festivals like Sao Joao, showcasing its role in bridging communities.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ghumot instrument:

• It is a percussion instrument exclusively used in the Hindustani classical music tradition.

• The instrument was declared the State Heritage Instrument of Goa, with the condition that its membrane cannot be made from the skin of the monitor lizard.

• It plays a significant role in the cultural and religious festivities of both Hindu and Christian communities in Goa.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 2 and 3

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ghumot is a traditional Goan folk percussion instrument, not a classical one. It is integral to local traditions like Mandos, Shigmo, and Sao Joao festivals, but is not part of the formal structure of Hindustani or Carnatic classical music.

• Statement 2 is correct. In 2019, the Goa government declared the Ghumot as its heritage instrument. However, this recognition came with a crucial caveat to promote wildlife conservation. The use of the monitor lizard’s skin, which is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, was banned. Artisans now use alternatives like goat skin or synthetic materials.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Ghumot is a powerful symbol of Goa’s syncretic culture. It is deeply embedded in the rituals and celebrations of both major communities. For Hindus, it is prominent during Ganesh Chaturthi, while for Christians, it is used in pre-wedding ceremonies and festivals like Sao Joao, showcasing its role in bridging communities.

Solution: D

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