UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 June 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Vadhavan Port: Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Gujarat, India. The port is being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Incorrect – Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Maharashtra, not Gujarat. S2 is Correct – The port is indeed being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project, which aims to modernize India’s ports. About Vadhavan Port: The Vadhavan port will be constructed through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority and the Maharashtra Maritime Board. It will be an all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port in Palghar District, aligned with the PM Gati Shakti program, and built on a landlord-model through PPP. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Incorrect – Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Maharashtra, not Gujarat. S2 is Correct – The port is indeed being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project, which aims to modernize India’s ports. About Vadhavan Port: The Vadhavan port will be constructed through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority and the Maharashtra Maritime Board. It will be an all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port in Palghar District, aligned with the PM Gati Shakti program, and built on a landlord-model through PPP. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Vadhavan Port:

• Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Gujarat, India. The port is being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project.

• Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Gujarat, India.

• The port is being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1 is Incorrect – Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Maharashtra, not Gujarat.

• S2 is Correct – The port is indeed being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project, which aims to modernize India’s ports.

• About Vadhavan Port: The Vadhavan port will be constructed through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority and the Maharashtra Maritime Board. It will be an all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port in Palghar District, aligned with the PM Gati Shakti program, and built on a landlord-model through PPP.

• The Vadhavan port will be constructed through a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority and the Maharashtra Maritime Board. It will be an all-weather Greenfield deep draft major port in Palghar District, aligned with the PM Gati Shakti program, and built on a landlord-model through PPP.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is Incorrect – Vadhavan Port is located in the state of Maharashtra, not Gujarat.

• S2 is Correct – The port is indeed being developed as a major greenfield port under the Sagarmala project, which aims to modernize India’s ports.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the major ports of India: Kandla Port is located on the eastern coast of India. Mumbai Port is the largest natural port in India. Visakhapatnam Port is the deepest port in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans:(b) Explanation: S1 is Incorrect: Kandla Port (now known as Deendayal Port) is located on the western coast of India, in Gujarat. S2 is Correct: Mumbai Port is indeed the largest natural port in India. S3 is Correct: Visakhapatnam Port is known to be the deepest port in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans:(b) Explanation: S1 is Incorrect: Kandla Port (now known as Deendayal Port) is located on the western coast of India, in Gujarat. S2 is Correct: Mumbai Port is indeed the largest natural port in India. S3 is Correct: Visakhapatnam Port is known to be the deepest port in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the major ports of India:

• Kandla Port is located on the eastern coast of India. Mumbai Port is the largest natural port in India. Visakhapatnam Port is the deepest port in India.

• Kandla Port is located on the eastern coast of India.

• Mumbai Port is the largest natural port in India.

• Visakhapatnam Port is the deepest port in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1 is Incorrect: Kandla Port (now known as Deendayal Port) is located on the western coast of India, in Gujarat.

• S2 is Correct: Mumbai Port is indeed the largest natural port in India.

• S3 is Correct: Visakhapatnam Port is known to be the deepest port in India.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S1 is Incorrect: Kandla Port (now known as Deendayal Port) is located on the western coast of India, in Gujarat.

• S2 is Correct: Mumbai Port is indeed the largest natural port in India.

• S3 is Correct: Visakhapatnam Port is known to be the deepest port in India.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Indra Sawhney case: The Supreme Court of India ruled that reservations for the economically weaker sections of society were unconstitutional. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state. The decision allowed for reservations in promotions in government jobs. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans:(a) Explanation: S1 is incorrect. The case did not address reservations for the economically weaker sections of society; rather, it focused on reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes (OBCs). S2 is correct. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state. S3 is incorrect. The judgment specifically stated that reservations in promotions in government jobs were not allowed. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans:(a) Explanation: S1 is incorrect. The case did not address reservations for the economically weaker sections of society; rather, it focused on reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes (OBCs). S2 is correct. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state. S3 is incorrect. The judgment specifically stated that reservations in promotions in government jobs were not allowed. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indra Sawhney case:

• The Supreme Court of India ruled that reservations for the economically weaker sections of society were unconstitutional. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state. The decision allowed for reservations in promotions in government jobs.

• The Supreme Court of India ruled that reservations for the economically weaker sections of society were unconstitutional.

• The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state.

• The decision allowed for reservations in promotions in government jobs.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1 is incorrect. The case did not address reservations for the economically weaker sections of society; rather, it focused on reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes (OBCs).

• S2 is correct. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state.

• S3 is incorrect. The judgment specifically stated that reservations in promotions in government jobs were not allowed.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S2 is correct. The judgment imposed a 50% cap on the total reservations that can be provided by the state.

• S3 is incorrect. The judgment specifically stated that reservations in promotions in government jobs were not allowed.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about genetic editing: Statement 1: CRISPR-Cas9 is a widely used genetic editing tool that allows for precise modifications to DNA sequences. Statement 2: Genetic editing has only been successful in laboratory settings and has no practical applications in agriculture or medicine. Statement 3: Ethical concerns regarding genetic editing primarily focus on the potential for unintended consequences and the possibility of creating “designer babies.” Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only Statement 1 is correct. (b) Only Statement 3 is correct. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct. (d) All Statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Genetically modified (GM) crops are touted as a solution for global food security, especially in the face of climate change. The current “gene revolution” uses genetic editing to improve crop resilience, aiming to support a growing population and combat climate-induced agricultural challenges. S1 is correct: CRISPR-Cas9 is indeed a revolutionary tool in genetic editing, known for its precision in modifying specific DNA sequences. This technology has been extensively researched and utilized in various genetic studies. S2 is incorrect: Genetic editing has already found practical applications beyond laboratory settings. For instance, it has been used in agriculture to create crops with better yields and resistance to diseases. In medicine, genetic editing holds promise for treating genetic disorders and has been used in experimental treatments. S3 is correct: Ethical concerns surrounding genetic editing are significant and include the fear of unintended genetic changes and the ethical implications of modifying human embryos, which could lead to the creation of “designer babies” with chosen traits. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Genetically modified (GM) crops are touted as a solution for global food security, especially in the face of climate change. The current “gene revolution” uses genetic editing to improve crop resilience, aiming to support a growing population and combat climate-induced agricultural challenges. S1 is correct: CRISPR-Cas9 is indeed a revolutionary tool in genetic editing, known for its precision in modifying specific DNA sequences. This technology has been extensively researched and utilized in various genetic studies. S2 is incorrect: Genetic editing has already found practical applications beyond laboratory settings. For instance, it has been used in agriculture to create crops with better yields and resistance to diseases. In medicine, genetic editing holds promise for treating genetic disorders and has been used in experimental treatments. S3 is correct: Ethical concerns surrounding genetic editing are significant and include the fear of unintended genetic changes and the ethical implications of modifying human embryos, which could lead to the creation of “designer babies” with chosen traits. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about genetic editing:

• Statement 1: CRISPR-Cas9 is a widely used genetic editing tool that allows for precise modifications to DNA sequences. Statement 2: Genetic editing has only been successful in laboratory settings and has no practical applications in agriculture or medicine. Statement 3: Ethical concerns regarding genetic editing primarily focus on the potential for unintended consequences and the possibility of creating “designer babies.”

• Statement 1: CRISPR-Cas9 is a widely used genetic editing tool that allows for precise modifications to DNA sequences.

• Statement 2: Genetic editing has only been successful in laboratory settings and has no practical applications in agriculture or medicine.

• Statement 3: Ethical concerns regarding genetic editing primarily focus on the potential for unintended consequences and the possibility of creating “designer babies.”

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only Statement 1 is correct.

• (b) Only Statement 3 is correct.

• (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 3 are correct.

• (d) All Statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

Explanation:

• Context: Genetically modified (GM) crops are touted as a solution for global food security, especially in the face of climate change. The current “gene revolution” uses genetic editing to improve crop resilience, aiming to support a growing population and combat climate-induced agricultural challenges.

• S1 is correct: CRISPR-Cas9 is indeed a revolutionary tool in genetic editing, known for its precision in modifying specific DNA sequences. This technology has been extensively researched and utilized in various genetic studies.

• S2 is incorrect: Genetic editing has already found practical applications beyond laboratory settings. For instance, it has been used in agriculture to create crops with better yields and resistance to diseases. In medicine, genetic editing holds promise for treating genetic disorders and has been used in experimental treatments.

• S3 is correct: Ethical concerns surrounding genetic editing are significant and include the fear of unintended genetic changes and the ethical implications of modifying human embryos, which could lead to the creation of “designer babies” with chosen traits.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Bt cotton: Bt cotton is genetically modified to express the Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin. The Bt toxin in Bt cotton provides resistance against bollworms. Bt cotton completely eliminates the need for pesticide use. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified crop currently approved for cultivation in India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1: Bt cotton has been genetically engineered to produce the Bt toxin, which is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. S2 is correct. The Bt toxin specifically targets certain insect pests like bollworms, which are common pests in cotton farming. S3 is incorrect. While Bt cotton significantly reduces the need for pesticides against bollworms, it does not completely eliminate the need for all pesticides. Other pests that are not affected by the Bt toxin may still require chemical control. S4 is correct: In India, Bt cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1: Bt cotton has been genetically engineered to produce the Bt toxin, which is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. S2 is correct. The Bt toxin specifically targets certain insect pests like bollworms, which are common pests in cotton farming. S3 is incorrect. While Bt cotton significantly reduces the need for pesticides against bollworms, it does not completely eliminate the need for all pesticides. Other pests that are not affected by the Bt toxin may still require chemical control. S4 is correct: In India, Bt cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Bt cotton:

• Bt cotton is genetically modified to express the Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin. The Bt toxin in Bt cotton provides resistance against bollworms. Bt cotton completely eliminates the need for pesticide use. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified crop currently approved for cultivation in India.

• Bt cotton is genetically modified to express the Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin.

• The Bt toxin in Bt cotton provides resistance against bollworms.

• Bt cotton completely eliminates the need for pesticide use.

• Bt cotton is the only genetically modified crop currently approved for cultivation in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Explanation:

• S1: Bt cotton has been genetically engineered to produce the Bt toxin, which is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.

• S2 is correct. The Bt toxin specifically targets certain insect pests like bollworms, which are common pests in cotton farming.

• S3 is incorrect. While Bt cotton significantly reduces the need for pesticides against bollworms, it does not completely eliminate the need for all pesticides. Other pests that are not affected by the Bt toxin may still require chemical control.

• S4 is correct: In India, Bt cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S1: Bt cotton has been genetically engineered to produce the Bt toxin, which is derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.

• S2 is correct. The Bt toxin specifically targets certain insect pests like bollworms, which are common pests in cotton farming.

• S4 is correct: In India, Bt cotton is the only GM crop approved for commercial cultivation.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Under which ministry does the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) operate? (a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (c) Ministry of Science and Technology (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body in India responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. It is also responsible for the approval of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials. The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in accordance with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This ministry oversees the implementation of policies and programs related to environmental protection and conservation, which includes regulating the use and release of genetically modified organisms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body in India responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. It is also responsible for the approval of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials. The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in accordance with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This ministry oversees the implementation of policies and programs related to environmental protection and conservation, which includes regulating the use and release of genetically modified organisms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 6. Question

Under which ministry does the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) operate?

• (a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare

• (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

• (c) Ministry of Science and Technology

• (d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Explanation:

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body in India responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. It is also responsible for the approval of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials.

• The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) in accordance with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. This ministry oversees the implementation of policies and programs related to environmental protection and conservation, which includes regulating the use and release of genetically modified organisms.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme: Under the MPLAD Scheme, each Member of Parliament is allocated Rs. 5 crore per annum. Funds from the MPLAD Scheme can be used for both tangible and intangible assets. The implementation of the MPLAD Scheme is monitored by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) organized a two-day training workshop for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme using the e-SAKSHI Portal. About MPLAD: Type: Central Sector Scheme Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Allocation: 5 crore per MP for developmental works to create durable community assets based on local needs. Funds: Non-lapsable, carried forward to the next year. Allocation Targets: At least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) organized a two-day training workshop for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme using the e-SAKSHI Portal. About MPLAD: Type: Central Sector Scheme Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Allocation: 5 crore per MP for developmental works to create durable community assets based on local needs. Funds: Non-lapsable, carried forward to the next year. Allocation Targets: At least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Members of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme:

• Under the MPLAD Scheme, each Member of Parliament is allocated Rs. 5 crore per annum. Funds from the MPLAD Scheme can be used for both tangible and intangible assets. The implementation of the MPLAD Scheme is monitored by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

• Under the MPLAD Scheme, each Member of Parliament is allocated Rs. 5 crore per annum.

• Funds from the MPLAD Scheme can be used for both tangible and intangible assets.

• The implementation of the MPLAD Scheme is monitored by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Context: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) organized a two-day training workshop for the revised fund flow procedure under the MPLAD Scheme using the e-SAKSHI Portal.

• About MPLAD: Type: Central Sector Scheme Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Allocation: 5 crore per MP for developmental works to create durable community assets based on local needs. Funds: Non-lapsable, carried forward to the next year. Allocation Targets: At least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas.

• Type: Central Sector Scheme

• Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

• Allocation: 5 crore per MP for developmental works to create durable community assets based on local needs.

• Funds: Non-lapsable, carried forward to the next year.

• Allocation Targets: At least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Type: Central Sector Scheme

• Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

• Allocation: 5 crore per MP for developmental works to create durable community assets based on local needs.

• Funds: Non-lapsable, carried forward to the next year.

• Allocation Targets: At least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following sectors: Agriculture Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) Education Real Estate Renewable Energy Entertainment Industry How many of the above sectors are identified as priority sectors by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure the adequate credit is available for their development? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) Only five Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has identified several sectors as priority sectors to ensure that adequate credit is available for their development. These sectors include: Agriculture: This sector covers all activities related to farming and allied activities, including dairy, poultry, and fisheries. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): This includes businesses with small-scale operations that are crucial for employment generation and economic growth. Education: Loans for educational purposes, such as funding for students pursuing higher education, are considered a priority. Renewable Energy: This sector encompasses projects related to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas, promoting sustainable development. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has identified several sectors as priority sectors to ensure that adequate credit is available for their development. These sectors include: Agriculture: This sector covers all activities related to farming and allied activities, including dairy, poultry, and fisheries. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): This includes businesses with small-scale operations that are crucial for employment generation and economic growth. Education: Loans for educational purposes, such as funding for students pursuing higher education, are considered a priority. Renewable Energy: This sector encompasses projects related to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas, promoting sustainable development. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 8. Question

Consider the following sectors:

• Agriculture Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) Education Real Estate Renewable Energy Entertainment Industry

• Agriculture

• Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)

• Real Estate

• Renewable Energy

• Entertainment Industry

How many of the above sectors are identified as priority sectors by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ensure the adequate credit is available for their development?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) Only four

• (d) Only five

Explanation:

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has identified several sectors as priority sectors to ensure that adequate credit is available for their development. These sectors include: Agriculture: This sector covers all activities related to farming and allied activities, including dairy, poultry, and fisheries. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): This includes businesses with small-scale operations that are crucial for employment generation and economic growth. Education: Loans for educational purposes, such as funding for students pursuing higher education, are considered a priority. Renewable Energy: This sector encompasses projects related to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas, promoting sustainable development.

• Agriculture: This sector covers all activities related to farming and allied activities, including dairy, poultry, and fisheries.

• Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): This includes businesses with small-scale operations that are crucial for employment generation and economic growth.

• Education: Loans for educational purposes, such as funding for students pursuing higher education, are considered a priority.

• Renewable Energy: This sector encompasses projects related to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas, promoting sustainable development.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Agriculture: This sector covers all activities related to farming and allied activities, including dairy, poultry, and fisheries.

• Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs): This includes businesses with small-scale operations that are crucial for employment generation and economic growth.

• Education: Loans for educational purposes, such as funding for students pursuing higher education, are considered a priority.

• Renewable Energy: This sector encompasses projects related to renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas, promoting sustainable development.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Global Environment Facility (GEF): The GEF was established in 1991 to address global environmental issues. The GEF is exclusively funded by the World Bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Correct. The GEF was indeed established in 1991 to address global environmental issues and to help fund initiatives aimed at achieving sustainability. S3: Incorrect. While the World Bank is one of the GEF’s implementing agencies, the GEF is funded by multiple donor countries and not exclusively by the World Bank. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1: Correct. The GEF was indeed established in 1991 to address global environmental issues and to help fund initiatives aimed at achieving sustainability. S3: Incorrect. While the World Bank is one of the GEF’s implementing agencies, the GEF is funded by multiple donor countries and not exclusively by the World Bank. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Global Environment Facility (GEF):

• The GEF was established in 1991 to address global environmental issues. The GEF is exclusively funded by the World Bank.

• The GEF was established in 1991 to address global environmental issues.

• The GEF is exclusively funded by the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1: Correct. The GEF was indeed established in 1991 to address global environmental issues and to help fund initiatives aimed at achieving sustainability.

• S3: Incorrect. While the World Bank is one of the GEF’s implementing agencies, the GEF is funded by multiple donor countries and not exclusively by the World Bank.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• S1: Correct. The GEF was indeed established in 1991 to address global environmental issues and to help fund initiatives aimed at achieving sustainability.

• S3: Incorrect. While the World Bank is one of the GEF’s implementing agencies, the GEF is funded by multiple donor countries and not exclusively by the World Bank.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which countries share a border with the Baltic Sea? (a) Estonia, Finland, and Poland (b) Denmark, Germany, and Latvia (c) Lithuania, Sweden, and Russia (d) Norway, Belarus, and Ukraine Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Thousands of tonnes of methane from the September 2022 Nord Stream pipeline explosions dissolved in the Baltic Sea, raising concerns about marine life and carbon cycles. Nine countries surround the Baltic Sea – Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia and Sweden. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Thousands of tonnes of methane from the September 2022 Nord Stream pipeline explosions dissolved in the Baltic Sea, raising concerns about marine life and carbon cycles. Nine countries surround the Baltic Sea – Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia and Sweden. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

#### 10. Question

Which countries share a border with the Baltic Sea?

• (a) Estonia, Finland, and Poland

• (b) Denmark, Germany, and Latvia

• (c) Lithuania, Sweden, and Russia

• (d) Norway, Belarus, and Ukraine

Explanation:

• Context: Thousands of tonnes of methane from the September 2022 Nord Stream pipeline explosions dissolved in the Baltic Sea, raising concerns about marine life and carbon cycles.

• Nine countries surround the Baltic Sea – Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia and Sweden.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

Explanation:

• Context: Thousands of tonnes of methane from the September 2022 Nord Stream pipeline explosions dissolved in the Baltic Sea, raising concerns about marine life and carbon cycles.

• Nine countries surround the Baltic Sea – Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia and Sweden.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/24/upsc-current-affairs-24-june-2024/

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