UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3): The HLVM3 is an entirely new launch vehicle designed from scratch by the Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC) for the Gaganyaan mission. It incorporates a Crew Escape System (CES) that is operational only during the initial liftoff phase to ensure maximum safety. The vehicle is a three-stage configuration utilizing solid, liquid, and cryogenic propellants. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The HLVM3 is not an entirely new design. It is a human-rated version adapted from ISRO’s proven and reliable LVM3 (GSLV Mk III) launch vehicle. The core architecture is retained while systems are upgraded for higher reliability and safety margins required for human spaceflight. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) is designed to be operational throughout the entire ascent phase, from liftoff until orbital injection. This ensures that the crew can be safely ejected from the rocket in case of an anomaly at any point during the atmospheric flight, not just at liftoff. Statement 3 is correct. The HLVM3 retains the three-stage configuration of the LVM3. It consists of two S200 solid rocket boosters (first stage), one L110 liquid core stage (second stage), and a C25 cryogenic upper stage (third stage). This configuration provides the necessary thrust and capability to lift the Gaganyaan module to Low Earth Orbit. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The HLVM3 is not an entirely new design. It is a human-rated version adapted from ISRO’s proven and reliable LVM3 (GSLV Mk III) launch vehicle. The core architecture is retained while systems are upgraded for higher reliability and safety margins required for human spaceflight. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) is designed to be operational throughout the entire ascent phase, from liftoff until orbital injection. This ensures that the crew can be safely ejected from the rocket in case of an anomaly at any point during the atmospheric flight, not just at liftoff. Statement 3 is correct. The HLVM3 retains the three-stage configuration of the LVM3. It consists of two S200 solid rocket boosters (first stage), one L110 liquid core stage (second stage), and a C25 cryogenic upper stage (third stage). This configuration provides the necessary thrust and capability to lift the Gaganyaan module to Low Earth Orbit.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Human Rated Launch Vehicle (HLVM3):

• The HLVM3 is an entirely new launch vehicle designed from scratch by the Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC) for the Gaganyaan mission.

• It incorporates a Crew Escape System (CES) that is operational only during the initial liftoff phase to ensure maximum safety.

• The vehicle is a three-stage configuration utilizing solid, liquid, and cryogenic propellants.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The HLVM3 is not an entirely new design. It is a human-rated version adapted from ISRO’s proven and reliable LVM3 (GSLV Mk III) launch vehicle. The core architecture is retained while systems are upgraded for higher reliability and safety margins required for human spaceflight.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Crew Escape System (CES) is designed to be operational throughout the entire ascent phase, from liftoff until orbital injection. This ensures that the crew can be safely ejected from the rocket in case of an anomaly at any point during the atmospheric flight, not just at liftoff.

• Statement 3 is correct. The HLVM3 retains the three-stage configuration of the LVM3. It consists of two S200 solid rocket boosters (first stage), one L110 liquid core stage (second stage), and a C25 cryogenic upper stage (third stage). This configuration provides the necessary thrust and capability to lift the Gaganyaan module to Low Earth Orbit.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Paika Rebellion of 1817, consider the following statements: It was primarily a peasant-led uprising confined to the Khurda district of Odisha. The introduction of a new currency and exploitative land revenue policies by the British were major triggers for the revolt. The rebellion was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, the former commander of the forces of the Raja of Khurda. The British suppressed the rebellion swiftly within a month of its outbreak. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paikas were a landed militia and a major force, the rebellion was not exclusively a peasant uprising nor was it confined to Khurda. It saw broad participation from various sections of society, including the Kondhs and other tribal groups. The rebellion spread beyond Khurda to areas like Puri and Banpur. Statement 2 is correct. The British East India Company’s economic policies were a central cause. The replacement of the existing land tenure system, dispossession of Paikas from their rent-free service lands, imposition of high taxes, and the introduction of a new currency that devalued the traditional cowrie system caused widespread economic hardship and resentment. Statement 3 is correct. Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara Mohapatra Bhramarabara Raya, the hereditary commander of the army of the King of Khurda, was the principal leader of the rebellion after being dispossessed of his estates. Statement 4 is incorrect. The rebellion was not suppressed swiftly. It was a large-scale armed uprising that began in March 1817 and continued for several months with significant guerrilla activity. Bakshi Jagabandhu himself evaded capture until 1825. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paikas were a landed militia and a major force, the rebellion was not exclusively a peasant uprising nor was it confined to Khurda. It saw broad participation from various sections of society, including the Kondhs and other tribal groups. The rebellion spread beyond Khurda to areas like Puri and Banpur. Statement 2 is correct. The British East India Company’s economic policies were a central cause. The replacement of the existing land tenure system, dispossession of Paikas from their rent-free service lands, imposition of high taxes, and the introduction of a new currency that devalued the traditional cowrie system caused widespread economic hardship and resentment. Statement 3 is correct. Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara Mohapatra Bhramarabara Raya, the hereditary commander of the army of the King of Khurda, was the principal leader of the rebellion after being dispossessed of his estates. Statement 4 is incorrect. The rebellion was not suppressed swiftly. It was a large-scale armed uprising that began in March 1817 and continued for several months with significant guerrilla activity. Bakshi Jagabandhu himself evaded capture until 1825.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Paika Rebellion of 1817, consider the following statements:

• It was primarily a peasant-led uprising confined to the Khurda district of Odisha.

• The introduction of a new currency and exploitative land revenue policies by the British were major triggers for the revolt.

• The rebellion was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, the former commander of the forces of the Raja of Khurda.

• The British suppressed the rebellion swiftly within a month of its outbreak.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 2, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Paikas were a landed militia and a major force, the rebellion was not exclusively a peasant uprising nor was it confined to Khurda. It saw broad participation from various sections of society, including the Kondhs and other tribal groups. The rebellion spread beyond Khurda to areas like Puri and Banpur.

• Statement 2 is correct. The British East India Company’s economic policies were a central cause. The replacement of the existing land tenure system, dispossession of Paikas from their rent-free service lands, imposition of high taxes, and the introduction of a new currency that devalued the traditional cowrie system caused widespread economic hardship and resentment.

• Statement 3 is correct. Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhara Mohapatra Bhramarabara Raya, the hereditary commander of the army of the King of Khurda, was the principal leader of the rebellion after being dispossessed of his estates.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The rebellion was not suppressed swiftly. It was a large-scale armed uprising that began in March 1817 and continued for several months with significant guerrilla activity. Bakshi Jagabandhu himself evaded capture until 1825.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: The Bill seeks to make the 2011 Sports Code legally enforceable, converting its guidelines into binding law. For the first time, it brings the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) under the regulatory framework applicable to National Sports Federations. It mandates that all sports-related disputes must first be adjudicated by the Supreme Court of India, bypassing lower courts. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A major objective of the Bill is to give statutory backing to the existing National Sports Development Code, 2011. This transforms the governance norms from mere executive guidelines into a legally enforceable framework, making compliance by National Sports Federations (NSFs) mandatory. Statement 2 is correct. The Bill explicitly aims to bring the BCCI, which has historically functioned as an autonomous body, under the ambit of a National Sports Federation. This would subject it to the same rules of transparency, accountability, and governance as other NSFs, including the requirement for annual recognition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bill proposes the opposite. It establishes a specialized dispute resolution mechanism, the National Sports Tribunal. It explicitly bans NSFs and the BCCI from directly approaching courts for disputes, which must be routed through this tribunal. This is intended to ensure speedy and expert resolution of sports-related conflicts, not to involve the Supreme Court as the first instance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A major objective of the Bill is to give statutory backing to the existing National Sports Development Code, 2011. This transforms the governance norms from mere executive guidelines into a legally enforceable framework, making compliance by National Sports Federations (NSFs) mandatory. Statement 2 is correct. The Bill explicitly aims to bring the BCCI, which has historically functioned as an autonomous body, under the ambit of a National Sports Federation. This would subject it to the same rules of transparency, accountability, and governance as other NSFs, including the requirement for annual recognition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bill proposes the opposite. It establishes a specialized dispute resolution mechanism, the National Sports Tribunal. It explicitly bans NSFs and the BCCI from directly approaching courts for disputes, which must be routed through this tribunal. This is intended to ensure speedy and expert resolution of sports-related conflicts, not to involve the Supreme Court as the first instance.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025:

• The Bill seeks to make the 2011 Sports Code legally enforceable, converting its guidelines into binding law.

• For the first time, it brings the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) under the regulatory framework applicable to National Sports Federations.

• It mandates that all sports-related disputes must first be adjudicated by the Supreme Court of India, bypassing lower courts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A major objective of the Bill is to give statutory backing to the existing National Sports Development Code, 2011. This transforms the governance norms from mere executive guidelines into a legally enforceable framework, making compliance by National Sports Federations (NSFs) mandatory.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Bill explicitly aims to bring the BCCI, which has historically functioned as an autonomous body, under the ambit of a National Sports Federation. This would subject it to the same rules of transparency, accountability, and governance as other NSFs, including the requirement for annual recognition.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bill proposes the opposite. It establishes a specialized dispute resolution mechanism, the National Sports Tribunal. It explicitly bans NSFs and the BCCI from directly approaching courts for disputes, which must be routed through this tribunal. This is intended to ensure speedy and expert resolution of sports-related conflicts, not to involve the Supreme Court as the first instance.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Astronomers used the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) and Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array (ALMA) to study the protostar HOPS-315. Which of the following was a key finding from this observation? (a) The detection of large, fully formed rocky planets in orbit around the star. (b) The identification of complex organic molecules, suggesting the presence of extraterrestrial life. (c) The discovery of liquid water on the surface of the protoplanetary disc. (d) The first direct observational evidence of rock vapor re-condensing into solid crystalline silicates. Correct Solution: D (d) is correct. This is the central significance of the discovery. The JWST detected hot silicon monoxide (SiO) gas and crystalline silicates like forsterite and enstatite. This provided the first direct proof that dust close to the star vaporizes and then cools to re-condense into solid crystals. This process is a fundamental, long-theorized step in the formation of rocky planets. Incorrect Solution: D (d) is correct. This is the central significance of the discovery. The JWST detected hot silicon monoxide (SiO) gas and crystalline silicates like forsterite and enstatite. This provided the first direct proof that dust close to the star vaporizes and then cools to re-condense into solid crystals. This process is a fundamental, long-theorized step in the formation of rocky planets.

#### 4. Question

Astronomers used the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) and Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array (ALMA) to study the protostar HOPS-315. Which of the following was a key finding from this observation?

• (a) The detection of large, fully formed rocky planets in orbit around the star.

• (b) The identification of complex organic molecules, suggesting the presence of extraterrestrial life.

• (c) The discovery of liquid water on the surface of the protoplanetary disc.

• (d) The first direct observational evidence of rock vapor re-condensing into solid crystalline silicates.

Solution: D

• (d) is correct. This is the central significance of the discovery. The JWST detected hot silicon monoxide (SiO) gas and crystalline silicates like forsterite and enstatite. This provided the first direct proof that dust close to the star vaporizes and then cools to re-condense into solid crystals. This process is a fundamental, long-theorized step in the formation of rocky planets.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Physical Feature | Location/Country Ben Nevis | England Cambrian Mountains | Wales Pennines | Scotland River Severn | United Kingdom How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Ben Nevis is the highest peak in the United Kingdom, but it is located in Scotland, within the Grampian Mountains, not England. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Cambrian Mountains are a major mountain range located in Wales, often referred to as the “backbone of Wales.” Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Pennines, often called the “backbone of England,” are a range of mountains and hills running down the center of Northern England, not Scotland. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The River Severn is the longest river in the United Kingdom. It flows through both Wales and England, but it is correctly identified as being in the UK. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Ben Nevis is the highest peak in the United Kingdom, but it is located in Scotland, within the Grampian Mountains, not England. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Cambrian Mountains are a major mountain range located in Wales, often referred to as the “backbone of Wales.” Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Pennines, often called the “backbone of England,” are a range of mountains and hills running down the center of Northern England, not Scotland. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The River Severn is the longest river in the United Kingdom. It flows through both Wales and England, but it is correctly identified as being in the UK.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following pairs:

Physical Feature | Location/Country

• Ben Nevis | England

• Cambrian Mountains | Wales

• Pennines | Scotland

• River Severn | United Kingdom

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Ben Nevis is the highest peak in the United Kingdom, but it is located in Scotland, within the Grampian Mountains, not England.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Cambrian Mountains are a major mountain range located in Wales, often referred to as the “backbone of Wales.”

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Pennines, often called the “backbone of England,” are a range of mountains and hills running down the center of Northern England, not Scotland.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. The River Severn is the longest river in the United Kingdom. It flows through both Wales and England, but it is correctly identified as being in the UK.

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Ben Nevis is the highest peak in the United Kingdom, but it is located in Scotland, within the Grampian Mountains, not England.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Cambrian Mountains are a major mountain range located in Wales, often referred to as the “backbone of Wales.”

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Pennines, often called the “backbone of England,” are a range of mountains and hills running down the center of Northern England, not Scotland.

Pair 4 is correctly matched. The River Severn is the longest river in the United Kingdom. It flows through both Wales and England, but it is correctly identified as being in the UK.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme: The programme’s primary sources for ethanol production are limited to sugarcane juice and B-molasses. The initial target to achieve 20% ethanol blending was set for 2030, but it was achieved in 2025. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is the sole nodal ministry for the implementation of the EBP Programme. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While sugarcane juice and B-molasses are major sources, the programme also utilizes other feedstocks. The government actively promotes the use of damaged food grains, surplus rice, and maize for ethanol production to ensure food security is not compromised and to provide farmers with alternative income sources. Statement 2 is correct. Under the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, the target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) was initially set for the year 2030. This target was later advanced and successfully achieved in 2025, five years ahead of schedule, marking a significant milestone in India’s energy transition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The implementation of the EBP Programme is a coordinated effort. The nodal ministry is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. However, it works in close coordination with other ministries, including the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (for feedstock allocation) and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (for crop management). It is not the sole responsibility of the Ministry of Agriculture. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While sugarcane juice and B-molasses are major sources, the programme also utilizes other feedstocks. The government actively promotes the use of damaged food grains, surplus rice, and maize for ethanol production to ensure food security is not compromised and to provide farmers with alternative income sources. Statement 2 is correct. Under the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, the target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) was initially set for the year 2030. This target was later advanced and successfully achieved in 2025, five years ahead of schedule, marking a significant milestone in India’s energy transition. Statement 3 is incorrect. The implementation of the EBP Programme is a coordinated effort. The nodal ministry is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. However, it works in close coordination with other ministries, including the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (for feedstock allocation) and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (for crop management). It is not the sole responsibility of the Ministry of Agriculture.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme:

• The programme’s primary sources for ethanol production are limited to sugarcane juice and B-molasses.

• The initial target to achieve 20% ethanol blending was set for 2030, but it was achieved in 2025.

• The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is the sole nodal ministry for the implementation of the EBP Programme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While sugarcane juice and B-molasses are major sources, the programme also utilizes other feedstocks. The government actively promotes the use of damaged food grains, surplus rice, and maize for ethanol production to ensure food security is not compromised and to provide farmers with alternative income sources.

• Statement 2 is correct. Under the National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, the target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) was initially set for the year 2030. This target was later advanced and successfully achieved in 2025, five years ahead of schedule, marking a significant milestone in India’s energy transition.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The implementation of the EBP Programme is a coordinated effort. The nodal ministry is the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. However, it works in close coordination with other ministries, including the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (for feedstock allocation) and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (for crop management). It is not the sole responsibility of the Ministry of Agriculture.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The United Kingdom shares a land border with both the Republic of Ireland and France. England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland are the four constituent countries of the United Kingdom. The United Kingdom exited the European Union through a process known as Brexit. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Kingdom shares its only land border with the Republic of Ireland. The border is between Northern Ireland (part of the UK) and the Republic of Ireland. Its border with France is a maritime border across the English Channel, connected physically by the Channel Tunnel, but it is not a land border. Statement 2 is correct. The United Kingdom is a sovereign state made up of four distinct countries: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. Statement 3 is correct. Brexit (a portmanteau of “British exit”) refers to the withdrawal of the United Kingdom from the European Union. The UK officially left the EU on January 31, 2020, a major event in its recent history. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Kingdom shares its only land border with the Republic of Ireland. The border is between Northern Ireland (part of the UK) and the Republic of Ireland. Its border with France is a maritime border across the English Channel, connected physically by the Channel Tunnel, but it is not a land border. Statement 2 is correct. The United Kingdom is a sovereign state made up of four distinct countries: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. Statement 3 is correct. Brexit (a portmanteau of “British exit”) refers to the withdrawal of the United Kingdom from the European Union. The UK officially left the EU on January 31, 2020, a major event in its recent history.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The United Kingdom shares a land border with both the Republic of Ireland and France.

• England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland are the four constituent countries of the United Kingdom.

• The United Kingdom exited the European Union through a process known as Brexit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The United Kingdom shares its only land border with the Republic of Ireland. The border is between Northern Ireland (part of the UK) and the Republic of Ireland. Its border with France is a maritime border across the English Channel, connected physically by the Channel Tunnel, but it is not a land border.

• Statement 2 is correct. The United Kingdom is a sovereign state made up of four distinct countries: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.

Statement 3 is correct. Brexit (a portmanteau of “British exit”) refers to the withdrawal of the United Kingdom from the European Union. The UK officially left the EU on January 31, 2020, a major event in its recent history.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct. The United Kingdom is a sovereign state made up of four distinct countries: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Paika Rebellion: Statement I: The rebellion had deep economic roots, stemming from British policies that disrupted the traditional socio-economic structure of Odisha. Statement II: The British imposed a salt monopoly, which severely affected the livelihood of communities in the hill regions. Statement III: The dispossession of Paikas from their hereditary rent-free land grants was a key catalyst for the uprising. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement III is not a correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I and Statement III are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. (c) All three statements are correct and both Statement II and Statement III provide explanations for Statement I. (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II and Statement III are not correct. Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. It makes a broad assertion that the rebellion was caused by economic disruptions due to British policies. This is a well-established fact. Statement II is correct. The British imposition of a salt monopoly was a significant economic grievance. It deprived many local communities, particularly those in the hills who traditionally manufactured salt, of a crucial source of income, thus contributing to the economic distress. Statement III is correct. The Paikas were a landed militia who were granted rent-free (jagrir) lands for their military services to the kingdom of Khurda. The British land revenue reforms took away these hereditary lands, which was a direct attack on their economic status and social prestige, acting as a primary trigger for the revolt. Both Statement II and Statement III provide specific examples of the disruptive British economic policies mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, all statements are correct, and both II and III serve as valid explanations for I. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. It makes a broad assertion that the rebellion was caused by economic disruptions due to British policies. This is a well-established fact. Statement II is correct. The British imposition of a salt monopoly was a significant economic grievance. It deprived many local communities, particularly those in the hills who traditionally manufactured salt, of a crucial source of income, thus contributing to the economic distress. Statement III is correct. The Paikas were a landed militia who were granted rent-free (jagrir) lands for their military services to the kingdom of Khurda. The British land revenue reforms took away these hereditary lands, which was a direct attack on their economic status and social prestige, acting as a primary trigger for the revolt. Both Statement II and Statement III provide specific examples of the disruptive British economic policies mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, all statements are correct, and both II and III serve as valid explanations for I.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Paika Rebellion:

Statement I: The rebellion had deep economic roots, stemming from British policies that disrupted the traditional socio-economic structure of Odisha.

Statement II: The British imposed a salt monopoly, which severely affected the livelihood of communities in the hill regions.

Statement III: The dispossession of Paikas from their hereditary rent-free land grants was a key catalyst for the uprising.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement III is not a correct explanation of Statement I.

• (b) Statement I and Statement III are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (c) All three statements are correct and both Statement II and Statement III provide explanations for Statement I.

• (d) Statement I is correct but Statement II and Statement III are not correct.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. It makes a broad assertion that the rebellion was caused by economic disruptions due to British policies. This is a well-established fact.

• Statement II is correct. The British imposition of a salt monopoly was a significant economic grievance. It deprived many local communities, particularly those in the hills who traditionally manufactured salt, of a crucial source of income, thus contributing to the economic distress.

• Statement III is correct. The Paikas were a landed militia who were granted rent-free (jagrir) lands for their military services to the kingdom of Khurda. The British land revenue reforms took away these hereditary lands, which was a direct attack on their economic status and social prestige, acting as a primary trigger for the revolt.

• Both Statement II and Statement III provide specific examples of the disruptive British economic policies mentioned in Statement I. Therefore, all statements are correct, and both II and III serve as valid explanations for I.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. It makes a broad assertion that the rebellion was caused by economic disruptions due to British policies. This is a well-established fact.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme in India. The programme helps in reducing the nation’s crude oil import bill. It provides an alternative and remunerative market for farmers’ surplus agricultural produce. The successful implementation contributes to India’s climate action commitments under the Paris Agreement. The blending of ethanol increases vehicular emissions of carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Ethanol is a domestically produced fuel. By blending it with petrol, India reduces the total volume of petrol required, which in turn lowers the quantity of crude oil that needs to be imported, thus saving valuable foreign exchange. Statement 2 is correct. The programme creates a stable demand for feedstocks like surplus sugarcane, maize, and damaged grains. This provides an additional income stream for farmers, helping to stabilize farm incomes, particularly when there is a surplus production. Statement 3 is correct. Ethanol is a cleaner-burning fuel than petrol. Its combustion produces lower levels of carbon monoxide and other pollutants. By promoting its use, the programme helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector, aligning with India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Climate Agreement. Statement 4 is incorrect. Blending ethanol with petrol leads to more complete combustion. This results in a reduction in emissions of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC). While there can be a slight increase in nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions, the overall impact on key pollutants is positive. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Ethanol is a domestically produced fuel. By blending it with petrol, India reduces the total volume of petrol required, which in turn lowers the quantity of crude oil that needs to be imported, thus saving valuable foreign exchange. Statement 2 is correct. The programme creates a stable demand for feedstocks like surplus sugarcane, maize, and damaged grains. This provides an additional income stream for farmers, helping to stabilize farm incomes, particularly when there is a surplus production. Statement 3 is correct. Ethanol is a cleaner-burning fuel than petrol. Its combustion produces lower levels of carbon monoxide and other pollutants. By promoting its use, the programme helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector, aligning with India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Climate Agreement. Statement 4 is incorrect. Blending ethanol with petrol leads to more complete combustion. This results in a reduction in emissions of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC). While there can be a slight increase in nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions, the overall impact on key pollutants is positive.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme in India.

• The programme helps in reducing the nation’s crude oil import bill.

• It provides an alternative and remunerative market for farmers’ surplus agricultural produce.

• The successful implementation contributes to India’s climate action commitments under the Paris Agreement.

• The blending of ethanol increases vehicular emissions of carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Ethanol is a domestically produced fuel. By blending it with petrol, India reduces the total volume of petrol required, which in turn lowers the quantity of crude oil that needs to be imported, thus saving valuable foreign exchange.

• Statement 2 is correct. The programme creates a stable demand for feedstocks like surplus sugarcane, maize, and damaged grains. This provides an additional income stream for farmers, helping to stabilize farm incomes, particularly when there is a surplus production.

• Statement 3 is correct. Ethanol is a cleaner-burning fuel than petrol. Its combustion produces lower levels of carbon monoxide and other pollutants. By promoting its use, the programme helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector, aligning with India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Climate Agreement.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Blending ethanol with petrol leads to more complete combustion. This results in a reduction in emissions of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC). While there can be a slight increase in nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions, the overall impact on key pollutants is positive.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The proposal by the Odisha government to recognize the Paika Rebellion (1817) as the ‘First War of Independence’ is based on its: (a) successful overthrow of British rule in Odisha for a temporary period. (b) exclusive use of non-violent methods, which later inspired the national movement. (c) large-scale, organised, and armed nature against British colonial rule, predating the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny. (d) direct influence on the subsequent 1857 revolt across Northern India. Correct Solution: C (a) is incorrect. While the rebels achieved initial success, capturing government buildings and treasuries, they did not overthrow British rule in Odisha. The rebellion was ultimately suppressed by superior British military force. (b) is incorrect. The Paika Rebellion was an armed uprising. The Paikas, being a martial class, used weapons and engaged in both open confrontation and guerrilla warfare against the Company’s forces. It was not a non-violent movement. (c) is correct. The claim rests on the argument that the Paika Rebellion was not a localised, minor skirmish but a broad-based, well-organised armed revolt against the British establishment. It involved multiple social groups, including Paikas, zamindars, and tribal communities, and was fought with the clear objective of driving out the British. As it occurred in 1817, it significantly predates the 1857 revolt, which is traditionally considered the ‘First War of Independence’. (d) is incorrect. There is no direct historical evidence to suggest that the Paika Rebellion of 1817 had a direct, causal influence on the events of the 1857 revolt, which had its own distinct set of causes and geographical focus primarily in Northern and Central India. Incorrect Solution: C (a) is incorrect. While the rebels achieved initial success, capturing government buildings and treasuries, they did not overthrow British rule in Odisha. The rebellion was ultimately suppressed by superior British military force. (b) is incorrect. The Paika Rebellion was an armed uprising. The Paikas, being a martial class, used weapons and engaged in both open confrontation and guerrilla warfare against the Company’s forces. It was not a non-violent movement. (c) is correct. The claim rests on the argument that the Paika Rebellion was not a localised, minor skirmish but a broad-based, well-organised armed revolt against the British establishment. It involved multiple social groups, including Paikas, zamindars, and tribal communities, and was fought with the clear objective of driving out the British. As it occurred in 1817, it significantly predates the 1857 revolt, which is traditionally considered the ‘First War of Independence’. (d) is incorrect. There is no direct historical evidence to suggest that the Paika Rebellion of 1817 had a direct, causal influence on the events of the 1857 revolt, which had its own distinct set of causes and geographical focus primarily in Northern and Central India.

#### 10. Question

The proposal by the Odisha government to recognize the Paika Rebellion (1817) as the ‘First War of Independence’ is based on its:

• (a) successful overthrow of British rule in Odisha for a temporary period.

• (b) exclusive use of non-violent methods, which later inspired the national movement.

• (c) large-scale, organised, and armed nature against British colonial rule, predating the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.

• (d) direct influence on the subsequent 1857 revolt across Northern India.

Solution: C

• (a) is incorrect. While the rebels achieved initial success, capturing government buildings and treasuries, they did not overthrow British rule in Odisha. The rebellion was ultimately suppressed by superior British military force.

• (b) is incorrect. The Paika Rebellion was an armed uprising. The Paikas, being a martial class, used weapons and engaged in both open confrontation and guerrilla warfare against the Company’s forces. It was not a non-violent movement.

• (c) is correct. The claim rests on the argument that the Paika Rebellion was not a localised, minor skirmish but a broad-based, well-organised armed revolt against the British establishment. It involved multiple social groups, including Paikas, zamindars, and tribal communities, and was fought with the clear objective of driving out the British. As it occurred in 1817, it significantly predates the 1857 revolt, which is traditionally considered the ‘First War of Independence’.

(d) is incorrect. There is no direct historical evidence to suggest that the Paika Rebellion of 1817 had a direct, causal influence on the events of the 1857 revolt, which had its own distinct set of causes and geographical focus primarily in Northern and Central India.

Solution: C

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