UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Amnesty International: Amnesty International is an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights. The organization is known for publishing reports on human rights abuses worldwide. Amnesty International is a governmental organization operating under the United Nations. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as Amnesty International is indeed an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights. Statement 2 is correct because Amnesty International is well-known for publishing detailed reports on human rights abuses around the world. Statement 3 is incorrect because Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization (NGO) and operates independently, not under the United Nations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as Amnesty International is indeed an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights. Statement 2 is correct because Amnesty International is well-known for publishing detailed reports on human rights abuses around the world. Statement 3 is incorrect because Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization (NGO) and operates independently, not under the United Nations.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Amnesty International:

• Amnesty International is an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights.

• The organization is known for publishing reports on human rights abuses worldwide.

• Amnesty International is a governmental organization operating under the United Nations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct as Amnesty International is indeed an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights.

Statement 2 is correct because Amnesty International is well-known for publishing detailed reports on human rights abuses around the world.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization (NGO) and operates independently, not under the United Nations.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct as Amnesty International is indeed an international organization composed of volunteers who campaign for human rights.

Statement 2 is correct because Amnesty International is well-known for publishing detailed reports on human rights abuses around the world.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization (NGO) and operates independently, not under the United Nations.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991, mandates that: a) Industries handling non-hazardous materials are exempt from having insurance. b) The insurance is optional for small-scale industries. c) Only government-run industries are required to obtain liability insurance. d) All industries must have insurance coverage for financial relief in case of industrial accidents involving hazardous substances. Correct Solution: D The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 came into being in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. This law requires all enterprises that own or have control over handling of any hazardous substance, to subscribe to a “public liability insurance policy cover” whereby they are insured against the claims from third parties for death or injury or property damage caused by hazardous substances handled in their enterprise. Incorrect Solution: D The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 came into being in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. This law requires all enterprises that own or have control over handling of any hazardous substance, to subscribe to a “public liability insurance policy cover” whereby they are insured against the claims from third parties for death or injury or property damage caused by hazardous substances handled in their enterprise.

#### 2. Question

The Public Liability Insurance Act (PLIA), 1991, mandates that:

• a) Industries handling non-hazardous materials are exempt from having insurance.

• b) The insurance is optional for small-scale industries.

• c) Only government-run industries are required to obtain liability insurance.

• d) All industries must have insurance coverage for financial relief in case of industrial accidents involving hazardous substances.

Solution: D

The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 came into being in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

This law requires all enterprises that own or have control over handling of any hazardous substance, to subscribe to a “public liability insurance policy cover” whereby they are insured against the claims from third parties for death or injury or property damage caused by hazardous substances handled in their enterprise.

Solution: D

The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 came into being in the aftermath of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which biotechnology technique is used to increase the shelf life of food products? a) Molecular diagnostics b) Gene therapy c) Edible vaccines d) Tissue culture Correct Solution: D Tissue culture is a technique used in biotechnology to regenerate disease-free plants in laboratories, ensuring the production of high-quality planting materials. It also plays a crucial role in extending the shelf life of food products by producing plants with desirable traits, reducing waste, and ensuring access to fresher produce. This application is critical for improving food security and reducing post-harvest losses. Incorrect Solution: D Tissue culture is a technique used in biotechnology to regenerate disease-free plants in laboratories, ensuring the production of high-quality planting materials. It also plays a crucial role in extending the shelf life of food products by producing plants with desirable traits, reducing waste, and ensuring access to fresher produce. This application is critical for improving food security and reducing post-harvest losses.

#### 3. Question

Which biotechnology technique is used to increase the shelf life of food products?

• a) Molecular diagnostics

• b) Gene therapy

• c) Edible vaccines

• d) Tissue culture

Solution: D

Tissue culture is a technique used in biotechnology to regenerate disease-free plants in laboratories, ensuring the production of high-quality planting materials. It also plays a crucial role in extending the shelf life of food products by producing plants with desirable traits, reducing waste, and ensuring access to fresher produce. This application is critical for improving food security and reducing post-harvest losses.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the Namami Gange Programme? (a) Restoring biodiversity, including the conservation of the Gangetic Dolphin (b) Promoting afforestation to improve river ecosystem health (c) Regulating the use of hydroelectric dams along the Ganga River (d) Establishing sewage treatment infrastructure along the Ganga basin Correct Solution: C The Namami Gange Programme focuses on sewage treatment, afforestation, and biodiversity conservation, including protecting the Gangetic Dolphin. However, it does not regulate hydroelectric projects, as these fall under the jurisdiction of India’s Ministry of Power and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). About Namami Gange Programme: What is Namami Gange? A comprehensive river conservation mission aimed at cleaning and rejuvenating River Ganga. Approved as a Flagship Programme by the Government of India in 2014. Launched In: June 2014, with a budget outlay of ₹20,000 crore, later expanded to ₹42,500 crore. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti, under the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG). Aim of Namami Gange: Pollution abatement and ecological restoration of the Ganga River. Sustainable waste management through modern sewage treatment plants (STPs). Biodiversity conservation and revival of aquatic ecosystems. Public engagement and awareness to promote community participation. Key Features: Sewage Treatment Infrastructure: Over 200 sewage treatment projects have been launched to prevent wastewater from polluting the Ganga. Riverfront Development: Modernization of ghats and crematoriums along the river to enhance sanitation and tourism. Biodiversity Conservation: Efforts to restore aquatic life, leading to a rise in Gangetic Dolphin population and improved fish species diversity. Afforestation & Eco-Restoration: Over 1.34 lakh hectares of trees planted along the Ganga to prevent soil erosion and maintain water flow. Ganga Gram Initiative: Development of 1,674 villages along the river with better sanitation, waste management, and clean drinking water. International Recognition & Collaboration: Recognized as a Top 10 World Restoration Flagship Initiative (UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration, 2022). Incorrect Solution: C The Namami Gange Programme focuses on sewage treatment, afforestation, and biodiversity conservation, including protecting the Gangetic Dolphin. However, it does not regulate hydroelectric projects, as these fall under the jurisdiction of India’s Ministry of Power and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). About Namami Gange Programme: What is Namami Gange? A comprehensive river conservation mission aimed at cleaning and rejuvenating River Ganga. Approved as a Flagship Programme by the Government of India in 2014. Launched In: June 2014, with a budget outlay of ₹20,000 crore, later expanded to ₹42,500 crore. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti, under the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG). Aim of Namami Gange: Pollution abatement and ecological restoration of the Ganga River. Sustainable waste management through modern sewage treatment plants (STPs). Biodiversity conservation and revival of aquatic ecosystems. Public engagement and awareness to promote community participation. Key Features: Sewage Treatment Infrastructure: Over 200 sewage treatment projects have been launched to prevent wastewater from polluting the Ganga. Riverfront Development: Modernization of ghats and crematoriums along the river to enhance sanitation and tourism. Biodiversity Conservation: Efforts to restore aquatic life, leading to a rise in Gangetic Dolphin population and improved fish species diversity. Afforestation & Eco-Restoration: Over 1.34 lakh hectares of trees planted along the Ganga to prevent soil erosion and maintain water flow. Ganga Gram Initiative: Development of 1,674 villages along the river with better sanitation, waste management, and clean drinking water. International Recognition & Collaboration: Recognized as a Top 10 World Restoration Flagship Initiative (UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration, 2022).

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is NOT a key objective of the Namami Gange Programme?

• (a) Restoring biodiversity, including the conservation of the Gangetic Dolphin

• (b) Promoting afforestation to improve river ecosystem health

• (c) Regulating the use of hydroelectric dams along the Ganga River

• (d) Establishing sewage treatment infrastructure along the Ganga basin

Solution: C

The Namami Gange Programme focuses on sewage treatment, afforestation, and biodiversity conservation, including protecting the Gangetic Dolphin. However, it does not regulate hydroelectric projects, as these fall under the jurisdiction of India’s Ministry of Power and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

About Namami Gange Programme:

What is Namami Gange?

• A comprehensive river conservation mission aimed at cleaning and rejuvenating River Ganga.

• Approved as a Flagship Programme by the Government of India in 2014.

Launched In: June 2014, with a budget outlay of ₹20,000 crore, later expanded to ₹42,500 crore.

Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti, under the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).

Aim of Namami Gange:

• Pollution abatement and ecological restoration of the Ganga River.

• Sustainable waste management through modern sewage treatment plants (STPs).

• Biodiversity conservation and revival of aquatic ecosystems.

• Public engagement and awareness to promote community participation.

Key Features:

• Sewage Treatment Infrastructure: Over 200 sewage treatment projects have been launched to prevent wastewater from polluting the Ganga.

• Riverfront Development: Modernization of ghats and crematoriums along the river to enhance sanitation and tourism.

• Biodiversity Conservation: Efforts to restore aquatic life, leading to a rise in Gangetic Dolphin population and improved fish species diversity.

• Afforestation & Eco-Restoration: Over 1.34 lakh hectares of trees planted along the Ganga to prevent soil erosion and maintain water flow.

• Ganga Gram Initiative: Development of 1,674 villages along the river with better sanitation, waste management, and clean drinking water.

International Recognition & Collaboration: Recognized as a Top 10 World Restoration Flagship Initiative (UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration, 2022).

Solution: C

About Namami Gange Programme:

What is Namami Gange?

• A comprehensive river conservation mission aimed at cleaning and rejuvenating River Ganga.

• Approved as a Flagship Programme by the Government of India in 2014.

Launched In: June 2014, with a budget outlay of ₹20,000 crore, later expanded to ₹42,500 crore.

Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti, under the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).

Aim of Namami Gange:

• Pollution abatement and ecological restoration of the Ganga River.

• Sustainable waste management through modern sewage treatment plants (STPs).

• Biodiversity conservation and revival of aquatic ecosystems.

• Public engagement and awareness to promote community participation.

Key Features:

• Sewage Treatment Infrastructure: Over 200 sewage treatment projects have been launched to prevent wastewater from polluting the Ganga.

• Riverfront Development: Modernization of ghats and crematoriums along the river to enhance sanitation and tourism.

• Biodiversity Conservation: Efforts to restore aquatic life, leading to a rise in Gangetic Dolphin population and improved fish species diversity.

• Afforestation & Eco-Restoration: Over 1.34 lakh hectares of trees planted along the Ganga to prevent soil erosion and maintain water flow.

• Ganga Gram Initiative: Development of 1,674 villages along the river with better sanitation, waste management, and clean drinking water.

International Recognition & Collaboration: Recognized as a Top 10 World Restoration Flagship Initiative (UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration, 2022).

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following states does NOT have Autonomous District Councils established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution? (a) Mizoram (b) Meghalaya (c) Assam (d) Nagaland Correct Solution: D The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Nagaland, while having special provisions under Article 371A, does not have ADCs established under the Sixth Schedule. What is an Autonomous District Council (ADC)? ADCs are self-governing tribal administrative bodies established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. They provide autonomy in governance, land management, and cultural preservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Membership of Autonomous Councils Elected Members: The majority of members are democratically elected for a five-year term. Nominated Members: The Governor nominates a limited number of members to ensure representation of marginalized groups. Powers of ADCs Legislative Powers: Can frame laws on land, forests, water resources, agriculture, public health, sanitation, and social customs. Have judicial powers to settle disputes among tribal communities. Executive Powers: Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance. Judicial Powers: Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment. Functions of ADCs Govern tribal areas while preserving traditional customs and practices. Manage resources such as forests, water bodies, and minerals. Develop local infrastructure, including education, healthcare, and rural roads. Promote local governance through the formation of village councils. Revenue Sources of ADCs Power to levy taxes, fees, and tolls on: Land, buildings, vehicles, boats, and animals. Goods entering the district. Ferries, roads, and employment-based income. General taxation for the maintenance of local infrastructure. Incorrect Solution: D The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Nagaland, while having special provisions under Article 371A, does not have ADCs established under the Sixth Schedule. What is an Autonomous District Council (ADC)? ADCs are self-governing tribal administrative bodies established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. They provide autonomy in governance, land management, and cultural preservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Membership of Autonomous Councils Elected Members: The majority of members are democratically elected for a five-year term. Nominated Members: The Governor nominates a limited number of members to ensure representation of marginalized groups. Powers of ADCs Legislative Powers: Can frame laws on land, forests, water resources, agriculture, public health, sanitation, and social customs. Have judicial powers to settle disputes among tribal communities. Executive Powers: Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance. Judicial Powers: Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment. Functions of ADCs Govern tribal areas while preserving traditional customs and practices. Manage resources such as forests, water bodies, and minerals. Develop local infrastructure, including education, healthcare, and rural roads. Promote local governance through the formation of village councils. Revenue Sources of ADCs Power to levy taxes, fees, and tolls on: Land, buildings, vehicles, boats, and animals. Goods entering the district. Ferries, roads, and employment-based income. General taxation for the maintenance of local infrastructure.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following states does NOT have Autonomous District Councils established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

• (a) Mizoram

• (b) Meghalaya

• (d) Nagaland

Solution: D

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. Nagaland, while having special provisions under Article 371A, does not have ADCs established under the Sixth Schedule.

What is an Autonomous District Council (ADC)?

• ADCs are self-governing tribal administrative bodies established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

• They provide autonomy in governance, land management, and cultural preservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura.

Membership of Autonomous Councils

• Elected Members: The majority of members are democratically elected for a five-year term.

• Nominated Members: The Governor nominates a limited number of members to ensure representation of marginalized groups.

Powers of ADCs

• Legislative Powers: Can frame laws on land, forests, water resources, agriculture, public health, sanitation, and social customs. Have judicial powers to settle disputes among tribal communities.

• Can frame laws on land, forests, water resources, agriculture, public health, sanitation, and social customs.

• Have judicial powers to settle disputes among tribal communities.

• Executive Powers: Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance.

• Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance.

• Judicial Powers: Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment.

• Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment.

Functions of ADCs

• Govern tribal areas while preserving traditional customs and practices.

• Manage resources such as forests, water bodies, and minerals.

• Develop local infrastructure, including education, healthcare, and rural roads.

• Promote local governance through the formation of village councils.

Revenue Sources of ADCs

• Power to levy taxes, fees, and tolls on: Land, buildings, vehicles, boats, and animals. Goods entering the district. Ferries, roads, and employment-based income. General taxation for the maintenance of local infrastructure.

• Land, buildings, vehicles, boats, and animals.

• Goods entering the district.

• Ferries, roads, and employment-based income.

• General taxation for the maintenance of local infrastructure.

Solution: D

What is an Autonomous District Council (ADC)?

• ADCs are self-governing tribal administrative bodies established under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

• They provide autonomy in governance, land management, and cultural preservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura.

Membership of Autonomous Councils

• Elected Members: The majority of members are democratically elected for a five-year term.

• Nominated Members: The Governor nominates a limited number of members to ensure representation of marginalized groups.

Powers of ADCs

• Can frame laws on land, forests, water resources, agriculture, public health, sanitation, and social customs.

• Have judicial powers to settle disputes among tribal communities.

• Executive Powers: Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance.

• Administer village councils, traditional chiefs, policing, inheritance laws, and local governance.

• Judicial Powers: Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment.

• Can establish tribal courts to handle disputes where both parties belong to Scheduled Tribes, provided the sentence is under five years of imprisonment.

Functions of ADCs

• Govern tribal areas while preserving traditional customs and practices.

• Manage resources such as forests, water bodies, and minerals.

• Develop local infrastructure, including education, healthcare, and rural roads.

• Promote local governance through the formation of village councils.

Revenue Sources of ADCs

• Land, buildings, vehicles, boats, and animals.

• Goods entering the district.

• Ferries, roads, and employment-based income.

• General taxation for the maintenance of local infrastructure.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)? (a) To allow the use of cluster munitions only in defensive military operations (b) To impose financial penalties on countries that manufacture cluster bombs (c) To prohibit the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their humanitarian impact (d) To regulate the production and distribution of cluster munitions Correct Solution: C The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM), adopted in 2008, completely bans the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks, particularly the danger of unexploded submunitions harming civilians post-conflict. What is the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)? The CCM is an international treaty that prohibits the use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks. Adopted in 2008, the treaty entered into force on 1 August 2010. It aims to eliminate cluster bombs, which pose a grave threat to civilians even after conflicts end. Members & Non-Members: 112 states are parties to the convention, with 12 additional signatories yet to ratify it. India, the U.S., Russia, China, Ukraine, and Israel have not signed the treaty, citing military and strategic concerns. Key Features of the CCM Comprehensive Ban: Prohibits the use, development, stockpiling, transfer, and production of cluster munitions. Assistance to Affected Areas: Requires members to clear contaminated areas and provide aid to victims. Destruction of Stockpiles: Signatories must destroy existing cluster munition stockpiles within eight years of joining. Prevention of Assistance: Member states cannot assist, encourage, or induce any nation to engage in banned activities. International Cooperation: Promotes collaboration in demining, victim support, and destruction of stockpiles. What are Cluster Munitions? Cluster munitions are explosive weapons that release multiple smaller bomblets (submunitions) over a wide area. They are used to target dispersed military assets like tanks, infantry, and artillery formations. Features of Cluster Munitions: High Submunition Count: A single cluster bomb can contain several to 600+ bomblets. Delivery Mechanisms: Launched via aircraft, artillery, or missiles, they scatter bomblets mid-air before impact. Lack of Precision: Most bomblets are free-falling and unguided, leading to widespread unintended destruction. Unexploded Ordnance (UXO) Risk: Many bomblets fail to detonate on impact, remaining dangerous for decades, similar to landmines. Incorrect Solution: C The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM), adopted in 2008, completely bans the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks, particularly the danger of unexploded submunitions harming civilians post-conflict. What is the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)? The CCM is an international treaty that prohibits the use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks. Adopted in 2008, the treaty entered into force on 1 August 2010. It aims to eliminate cluster bombs, which pose a grave threat to civilians even after conflicts end. Members & Non-Members: 112 states are parties to the convention, with 12 additional signatories yet to ratify it. India, the U.S., Russia, China, Ukraine, and Israel have not signed the treaty, citing military and strategic concerns. Key Features of the CCM Comprehensive Ban: Prohibits the use, development, stockpiling, transfer, and production of cluster munitions. Assistance to Affected Areas: Requires members to clear contaminated areas and provide aid to victims. Destruction of Stockpiles: Signatories must destroy existing cluster munition stockpiles within eight years of joining. Prevention of Assistance: Member states cannot assist, encourage, or induce any nation to engage in banned activities. International Cooperation: Promotes collaboration in demining, victim support, and destruction of stockpiles. What are Cluster Munitions? Cluster munitions are explosive weapons that release multiple smaller bomblets (submunitions) over a wide area. They are used to target dispersed military assets like tanks, infantry, and artillery formations. Features of Cluster Munitions: High Submunition Count: A single cluster bomb can contain several to 600+ bomblets. Delivery Mechanisms: Launched via aircraft, artillery, or missiles, they scatter bomblets mid-air before impact. Lack of Precision: Most bomblets are free-falling and unguided, leading to widespread unintended destruction. Unexploded Ordnance (UXO) Risk: Many bomblets fail to detonate on impact, remaining dangerous for decades, similar to landmines.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes the primary objective of the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)?

• (a) To allow the use of cluster munitions only in defensive military operations

• (b) To impose financial penalties on countries that manufacture cluster bombs

• (c) To prohibit the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their humanitarian impact

• (d) To regulate the production and distribution of cluster munitions

Solution: C

The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM), adopted in 2008, completely bans the use, production, transfer, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks, particularly the danger of unexploded submunitions harming civilians post-conflict.

What is the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)?

• The CCM is an international treaty that prohibits the use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks.

• Adopted in 2008, the treaty entered into force on 1 August 2010.

• It aims to eliminate cluster bombs, which pose a grave threat to civilians even after conflicts end.

Members & Non-Members:

• 112 states are parties to the convention, with 12 additional signatories yet to ratify it.

• India, the U.S., Russia, China, Ukraine, and Israel have not signed the treaty, citing military and strategic concerns.

Key Features of the CCM

• Comprehensive Ban: Prohibits the use, development, stockpiling, transfer, and production of cluster munitions.

• Assistance to Affected Areas: Requires members to clear contaminated areas and provide aid to victims.

• Destruction of Stockpiles: Signatories must destroy existing cluster munition stockpiles within eight years of joining.

• Prevention of Assistance: Member states cannot assist, encourage, or induce any nation to engage in banned activities.

• International Cooperation: Promotes collaboration in demining, victim support, and destruction of stockpiles.

What are Cluster Munitions?

• Cluster munitions are explosive weapons that release multiple smaller bomblets (submunitions) over a wide area.

• They are used to target dispersed military assets like tanks, infantry, and artillery formations.

• Features of Cluster Munitions:

• High Submunition Count: A single cluster bomb can contain several to 600+ bomblets.

• Delivery Mechanisms: Launched via aircraft, artillery, or missiles, they scatter bomblets mid-air before impact.

• Lack of Precision: Most bomblets are free-falling and unguided, leading to widespread unintended destruction.

• Unexploded Ordnance (UXO) Risk: Many bomblets fail to detonate on impact, remaining dangerous for decades, similar to landmines.

Solution: C

What is the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM)?

• The CCM is an international treaty that prohibits the use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster munitions due to their long-term humanitarian risks.

• Adopted in 2008, the treaty entered into force on 1 August 2010.

• It aims to eliminate cluster bombs, which pose a grave threat to civilians even after conflicts end.

Members & Non-Members:

• 112 states are parties to the convention, with 12 additional signatories yet to ratify it.

• India, the U.S., Russia, China, Ukraine, and Israel have not signed the treaty, citing military and strategic concerns.

Key Features of the CCM

• Comprehensive Ban: Prohibits the use, development, stockpiling, transfer, and production of cluster munitions.

• Assistance to Affected Areas: Requires members to clear contaminated areas and provide aid to victims.

• Destruction of Stockpiles: Signatories must destroy existing cluster munition stockpiles within eight years of joining.

• Prevention of Assistance: Member states cannot assist, encourage, or induce any nation to engage in banned activities.

• International Cooperation: Promotes collaboration in demining, victim support, and destruction of stockpiles.

What are Cluster Munitions?

• Cluster munitions are explosive weapons that release multiple smaller bomblets (submunitions) over a wide area.

• They are used to target dispersed military assets like tanks, infantry, and artillery formations.

• Features of Cluster Munitions:

• High Submunition Count: A single cluster bomb can contain several to 600+ bomblets.

• Delivery Mechanisms: Launched via aircraft, artillery, or missiles, they scatter bomblets mid-air before impact.

• Lack of Precision: Most bomblets are free-falling and unguided, leading to widespread unintended destruction.

• Unexploded Ordnance (UXO) Risk: Many bomblets fail to detonate on impact, remaining dangerous for decades, similar to landmines.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Authority (CEA): CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations. CEA has the authority to enforce penalties on power distribution companies violating safety norms. CEA advises the government on electricity policy and grid management. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because CEA does not enforce penalties on power distribution companies—such regulatory actions fall under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). Statement 3 is correct as CEA advises the government on electricity policy, grid stability, and transmission management. About Central Electricity Authority (CEA): The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning, development, and regulation in India. It advises the government on electricity policy and technical standards. It was established under the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and was later reconstituted under the Electricity Act, 2003. Nodal Ministry-Operates under the Ministry of Power, Government of India. Headquarters– New Delhi, India. Structure & Composition Chairperson: Heads the authority and oversees policy implementation and technical regulations. Members: Comprises technical and regulatory experts from different domains of the power sector. Divisions: Power Planning & Monitoring Division: Oversees power sector development. Grid Operations & Transmission Division: Manages grid stability and interconnectivity. Distribution & Regulatory Affairs: Ensures efficient electricity distribution and policy compliance. Safety & Training Division: Focuses on workforce training, safety protocols, and best practices. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct as the CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because CEA does not enforce penalties on power distribution companies—such regulatory actions fall under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). Statement 3 is correct as CEA advises the government on electricity policy, grid stability, and transmission management. About Central Electricity Authority (CEA): The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning, development, and regulation in India. It advises the government on electricity policy and technical standards. It was established under the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and was later reconstituted under the Electricity Act, 2003. Nodal Ministry-Operates under the Ministry of Power, Government of India. Headquarters– New Delhi, India. Structure & Composition Chairperson: Heads the authority and oversees policy implementation and technical regulations. Members: Comprises technical and regulatory experts from different domains of the power sector. Divisions: Power Planning & Monitoring Division: Oversees power sector development. Grid Operations & Transmission Division: Manages grid stability and interconnectivity. Distribution & Regulatory Affairs: Ensures efficient electricity distribution and policy compliance. Safety & Training Division: Focuses on workforce training, safety protocols, and best practices.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Authority (CEA):

• CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations.

• CEA has the authority to enforce penalties on power distribution companies violating safety norms.

• CEA advises the government on electricity policy and grid management.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct as the CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect because CEA does not enforce penalties on power distribution companies—such regulatory actions fall under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).

Statement 3 is correct as CEA advises the government on electricity policy, grid stability, and transmission management.

About Central Electricity Authority (CEA):

The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning, development, and regulation in India. It advises the government on electricity policy and technical standards.

• It was established under the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and was later reconstituted under the Electricity Act, 2003.

Nodal Ministry-Operates under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.

Headquarters– New Delhi, India.

Structure & Composition

• Chairperson: Heads the authority and oversees policy implementation and technical regulations.

• Members: Comprises technical and regulatory experts from different domains of the power sector.

• Divisions: Power Planning & Monitoring Division: Oversees power sector development. Grid Operations & Transmission Division: Manages grid stability and interconnectivity. Distribution & Regulatory Affairs: Ensures efficient electricity distribution and policy compliance. Safety & Training Division: Focuses on workforce training, safety protocols, and best practices.

• Power Planning & Monitoring Division: Oversees power sector development.

• Grid Operations & Transmission Division: Manages grid stability and interconnectivity.

• Distribution & Regulatory Affairs: Ensures efficient electricity distribution and policy compliance.

• Safety & Training Division: Focuses on workforce training, safety protocols, and best practices.

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct as the CEA is a statutory body responsible for power sector planning and technical regulations in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect because CEA does not enforce penalties on power distribution companies—such regulatory actions fall under the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC).

Statement 3 is correct as CEA advises the government on electricity policy, grid stability, and transmission management.

About Central Electricity Authority (CEA):

• It was established under the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and was later reconstituted under the Electricity Act, 2003.

Nodal Ministry-Operates under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.

Headquarters– New Delhi, India.

Structure & Composition

• Chairperson: Heads the authority and oversees policy implementation and technical regulations.

• Members: Comprises technical and regulatory experts from different domains of the power sector.

• Power Planning & Monitoring Division: Oversees power sector development.

• Grid Operations & Transmission Division: Manages grid stability and interconnectivity.

• Distribution & Regulatory Affairs: Ensures efficient electricity distribution and policy compliance.

• Safety & Training Division: Focuses on workforce training, safety protocols, and best practices.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following are objectives of the CAMPA funds? Treatment of catchment areas Assisted natural regeneration Urban infrastructure development Managing human-wildlife conflicts Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4 only (c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 only Correct Solution: B Objectives of CAMPA funds include the treatment of catchment areas, assisted natural regeneration, and managing human-wildlife conflicts. Urban infrastructure development is not among the specified objectives of CAMPA funds.  What is CAMPA? Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is a mechanism for afforestation and forest conservation to compensate for the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes. Established by the Supreme Court in 2009, it operates at both national and state levels. Objectives of CAMPA Compensate forest loss by promoting afforestation and natural regeneration. Ensure effective fund utilization for forest and wildlife conservation. Provide financial support for forest protection, research, and training. Strengthen institutions responsible for forest management. Provisions Under CAMPA Funds Collection: Money is collected from project proponents seeking forest clearance under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Utilization of Funds: Used for compensatory afforestation, additional afforestation, penal compensatory afforestation, and wildlife conservation. State CAMPA: Receives funds from the Adhoc CAMPA and administers their utilization for forest development. Monitoring & Accountability: An independent system is set up for concurrent monitoring and evaluation. Incorrect Solution: B Objectives of CAMPA funds include the treatment of catchment areas, assisted natural regeneration, and managing human-wildlife conflicts. Urban infrastructure development is not among the specified objectives of CAMPA funds.  What is CAMPA? Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is a mechanism for afforestation and forest conservation to compensate for the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes. Established by the Supreme Court in 2009, it operates at both national and state levels. Objectives of CAMPA Compensate forest loss by promoting afforestation and natural regeneration. Ensure effective fund utilization for forest and wildlife conservation. Provide financial support for forest protection, research, and training. Strengthen institutions responsible for forest management. Provisions Under CAMPA Funds Collection: Money is collected from project proponents seeking forest clearance under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. Utilization of Funds: Used for compensatory afforestation, additional afforestation, penal compensatory afforestation, and wildlife conservation. State CAMPA: Receives funds from the Adhoc CAMPA and administers their utilization for forest development. Monitoring & Accountability: An independent system is set up for concurrent monitoring and evaluation.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following are objectives of the CAMPA funds?

• Treatment of catchment areas

• Assisted natural regeneration

• Urban infrastructure development

• Managing human-wildlife conflicts

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• (a) 1, 2, 3, and 4

• (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

• (c) 2, 3, and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Solution: B

Objectives of CAMPA funds include the treatment of catchment areas, assisted natural regeneration, and managing human-wildlife conflicts. Urban infrastructure development is not among the specified objectives of CAMPA funds. 

What is CAMPA?

• Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is a mechanism for afforestation and forest conservation to compensate for the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes.

• Established by the Supreme Court in 2009, it operates at both national and state levels.

Objectives of CAMPA

• Compensate forest loss by promoting afforestation and natural regeneration.

• Ensure effective fund utilization for forest and wildlife conservation.

• Provide financial support for forest protection, research, and training.

• Strengthen institutions responsible for forest management.

Provisions Under CAMPA

• Funds Collection: Money is collected from project proponents seeking forest clearance under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

• Utilization of Funds: Used for compensatory afforestation, additional afforestation, penal compensatory afforestation, and wildlife conservation.

• State CAMPA: Receives funds from the Adhoc CAMPA and administers their utilization for forest development.

• Monitoring & Accountability: An independent system is set up for concurrent monitoring and evaluation.

Solution: B

What is CAMPA?

• Established by the Supreme Court in 2009, it operates at both national and state levels.

Objectives of CAMPA

• Compensate forest loss by promoting afforestation and natural regeneration.

• Ensure effective fund utilization for forest and wildlife conservation.

• Provide financial support for forest protection, research, and training.

• Strengthen institutions responsible for forest management.

Provisions Under CAMPA

• Funds Collection: Money is collected from project proponents seeking forest clearance under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

• Utilization of Funds: Used for compensatory afforestation, additional afforestation, penal compensatory afforestation, and wildlife conservation.

• State CAMPA: Receives funds from the Adhoc CAMPA and administers their utilization for forest development.

• Monitoring & Accountability: An independent system is set up for concurrent monitoring and evaluation.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Tiger Reserves in India: Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and free from human habitation. The declaration of a Tiger Reserve makes the area a ‘no-go’ zone, permanently prohibiting any human presence, including indigenous communities. The core and buffer zones of Tiger Reserves are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones. Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves. What is a Tiger Reserve? A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem. It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation. Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones. Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves. What is a Tiger Reserve? A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem. It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Tiger Reserves in India:

• Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and free from human habitation.

• The declaration of a Tiger Reserve makes the area a ‘no-go’ zone, permanently prohibiting any human presence, including indigenous communities.

• The core and buffer zones of Tiger Reserves are defined under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation.

Statement 2 is incorrect – While relocation of human settlements from core zones is encouraged, traditional rights of forest dwellers are recognized under the Forest Rights Act (2006), and they can co-exist in buffer zones.

Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves.

What is a Tiger Reserve?

• A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem.

• It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct – Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) is legally inviolate and set aside for tiger conservation.

Statement 3 is correct – The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 defines core and buffer zones in Tiger Reserves.

What is a Tiger Reserve?

• A Tiger Reserve is a protected area meant for the conservation of Bengal tigers and their ecosystem.

• It falls under Project Tiger (1973), a centrally sponsored scheme by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).

• These reserves ensure tiger population growth, habitat conservation, and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the ecological significance of Satkosia Tiger Reserve? (a) It acts as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, supporting a unique blend of biodiversity. (b) Satkosia Tiger Reserve is a completely uninhabited protected area, ensuring minimal human-wildlife conflict. (c) It was the first Tiger Reserve in India to successfully reintroduce tigers from another state under Project Tiger. (d) It is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi and Godavari rivers, making it one of India's largest riparian tiger reserves. Correct Solution: A Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique. Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts. Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Option d is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve: Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha. Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981). Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km. Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity. Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species. Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants. Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance. Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources. Incorrect Solution: A Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique. Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts. Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Option d is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve: Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha. Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981). Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km. Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity. Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species. Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants. Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance. Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement. Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following best explains the ecological significance of Satkosia Tiger Reserve?

• (a) It acts as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, supporting a unique blend of biodiversity.

• (b) Satkosia Tiger Reserve is a completely uninhabited protected area, ensuring minimal human-wildlife conflict.

• (c) It was the first Tiger Reserve in India to successfully reintroduce tigers from another state under Project Tiger.

• (d) It is located at the confluence of the Mahanadi and Godavari rivers, making it one of India's largest riparian tiger reserves.

Solution: A

Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique.

• Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts.

• Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Option d is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari.

About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha.

• Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981).

• Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km.

• Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity.

• Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species.

• Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants.

• Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance.

• Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

Solution: A

Satkosia Tiger Reserve serves as a transitional zone between the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Plateau, making it ecologically unique.

• Option b is incorrect because there are 234 villages in the impact zone, leading to significant human-wildlife conflicts.

• Option c is incorrect because the tiger reintroduction project at Satkosia failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Option d is incorrect because Satkosia is located along the Mahanadi River, but not at the confluence of Mahanadi and Godavari.

About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:

• Location: Spans Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh districts in Odisha.

• Established: 2007, by merging Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary (1976) and Baisipali Wildlife Sanctuary (1981).

• Total Area: 1,136.70 sq. km.

• Geographical Significance: A transitional zone between Eastern Ghats and Deccan Plateau, promoting rich biodiversity.

• Fauna: Previously home to 12 tigers (2007), but the 2022 census found none; shelters elephants, leopards, mugger crocodiles, wild dogs, and 200+ bird species.

• Flora: Houses 400+ plant species, including Sal, Mahua, Bamboo, and medicinal plants.

• Ramsar Site: Recognized as a wetland of international importance.

• Tiger Reintroduction: Initiated in 2018 with two tigers from Madhya Pradesh; failed due to poaching and mismanagement.

• Human Settlements: 234 villages in the surrounding impact zone, creating conflicts over land and resources.

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