UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 February 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Match the following Panchayati Raj-related Committees with their recommendations: Committee Name Recommendation A) Balwant Rai Mehta 1) Role of Zilla Parishads in rural development B) Ashok Mehta 2) Constitutional status for PRIs C) GVK Rao 3) Three-tier Panchayati Raj system D) LM Singhvi 4) Two-tier Panchayati Raj structure Select the correct option: a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: c) Incorrect Solution: c)

#### 1. Question

Match the following Panchayati Raj-related Committees with their recommendations:

Committee Name | Recommendation

A) Balwant Rai Mehta | 1) Role of Zilla Parishads in rural development

B) Ashok Mehta | 2) Constitutional status for PRIs

C) GVK Rao | 3) Three-tier Panchayati Raj system

D) LM Singhvi | 4) Two-tier Panchayati Raj structure

Select the correct option:

• a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

• c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

• d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Morality. Assertion (A): Constitutional Morality is essential for safeguarding individual rights in a diverse democracy like India. Reason (R): It ensures that governance is based on popular opinion rather than constitutional values. Which one of the following is correct? a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A. c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. d) A is incorrect, but R is correct. Correct Solution: c) Constitutional morality is crucial in a diverse democracy like India as it upholds the rule of law, individual rights, and democratic principles, ensuring that governance aligns with the Constitution rather than popular sentiment. It protects fundamental rights, minority rights, and social justice, preventing the tyranny of the majority and arbitrary state actions. This aligns with the Indian Constitution’s vision of justice, liberty, and equality. However, the reason (R) is incorrect because governance should be based on constitutional values rather than popular opinion. In a democracy, public opinion is important, but it cannot override the fundamental principles of the Constitution. Governance driven purely by majority sentiment may lead to discrimination, exclusion, or the dilution of fundamental rights. Therefore, while constitutional morality safeguards democracy, it is not meant to prioritize popular opinion over constitutional principles. Incorrect Solution: c) Constitutional morality is crucial in a diverse democracy like India as it upholds the rule of law, individual rights, and democratic principles, ensuring that governance aligns with the Constitution rather than popular sentiment. It protects fundamental rights, minority rights, and social justice, preventing the tyranny of the majority and arbitrary state actions. This aligns with the Indian Constitution’s vision of justice, liberty, and equality. However, the reason (R) is incorrect because governance should be based on constitutional values rather than popular opinion. In a democracy, public opinion is important, but it cannot override the fundamental principles of the Constitution. Governance driven purely by majority sentiment may lead to discrimination, exclusion, or the dilution of fundamental rights. Therefore, while constitutional morality safeguards democracy, it is not meant to prioritize popular opinion over constitutional principles.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Morality.

Assertion (A): Constitutional Morality is essential for safeguarding individual rights in a diverse democracy like India.

Reason (R): It ensures that governance is based on popular opinion rather than constitutional values.

Which one of the following is correct?

• a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

• b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

• c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

• d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Solution: c)

• Constitutional morality is crucial in a diverse democracy like India as it upholds the rule of law, individual rights, and democratic principles, ensuring that governance aligns with the Constitution rather than popular sentiment.

• It protects fundamental rights, minority rights, and social justice, preventing the tyranny of the majority and arbitrary state actions. This aligns with the Indian Constitution’s vision of justice, liberty, and equality.

• However, the reason (R) is incorrect because governance should be based on constitutional values rather than popular opinion. In a democracy, public opinion is important, but it cannot override the fundamental principles of the Constitution. Governance driven purely by majority sentiment may lead to discrimination, exclusion, or the dilution of fundamental rights. Therefore, while constitutional morality safeguards democracy, it is not meant to prioritize popular opinion over constitutional principles.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)’s export initiatives: APEDA has the exclusive authority to regulate tea and coffee exports. APEDA has established the ANARNET system for tracking dairy product exports. APEDA supports farmers and exporters by promoting GI-tagged agricultural products in global markets. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) plays a significant role in promoting Indian agricultural exports, but its scope is not exclusive to all agri-exports. Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA does not regulate tea and coffee exports; these are managed by the Tea Board of India and Coffee Board of India, which function under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. APEDA primarily handles processed food, fruits, vegetables, and livestock products. Statement 2 is incorrect: ANARNET is a traceability system for pomegranates, ensuring quality and export compliance, not for dairy products. The dairy sector in India is mainly governed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and FSSAI for food safety regulations. Statement 3 is correct: APEDA promotes GI-tagged agricultural products like Basmati rice, Alphonso mangoes, and Darjeeling tea in global markets, enhancing India’s agricultural brand value. Incorrect Solution: a) The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) plays a significant role in promoting Indian agricultural exports, but its scope is not exclusive to all agri-exports. Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA does not regulate tea and coffee exports; these are managed by the Tea Board of India and Coffee Board of India, which function under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. APEDA primarily handles processed food, fruits, vegetables, and livestock products. Statement 2 is incorrect: ANARNET is a traceability system for pomegranates, ensuring quality and export compliance, not for dairy products. The dairy sector in India is mainly governed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and FSSAI for food safety regulations. Statement 3 is correct: APEDA promotes GI-tagged agricultural products like Basmati rice, Alphonso mangoes, and Darjeeling tea in global markets, enhancing India’s agricultural brand value.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)’s export initiatives:

• APEDA has the exclusive authority to regulate tea and coffee exports.

• APEDA has established the ANARNET system for tracking dairy product exports.

• APEDA supports farmers and exporters by promoting GI-tagged agricultural products in global markets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) plays a significant role in promoting Indian agricultural exports, but its scope is not exclusive to all agri-exports.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: APEDA does not regulate tea and coffee exports; these are managed by the Tea Board of India and Coffee Board of India, which function under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. APEDA primarily handles processed food, fruits, vegetables, and livestock products.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: ANARNET is a traceability system for pomegranates, ensuring quality and export compliance, not for dairy products. The dairy sector in India is mainly governed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and FSSAI for food safety regulations.

• Statement 3 is correct: APEDA promotes GI-tagged agricultural products like Basmati rice, Alphonso mangoes, and Darjeeling tea in global markets, enhancing India’s agricultural brand value.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Election Commission of India (ECI): The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs are charged directly from the Consolidated Fund of India. The government has the power to remove Election Commissioners through an executive order without parliamentary approval. The Election Commission can independently amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951, without Parliament’s approval. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs come from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring financial independence. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the CEC has protection similar to a Supreme Court judge, while Election Commissioners can be removed by the President upon the CEC’s recommendation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951; only Parliament has that power. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs come from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring financial independence. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the CEC has protection similar to a Supreme Court judge, while Election Commissioners can be removed by the President upon the CEC’s recommendation. Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951; only Parliament has that power.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs are charged directly from the Consolidated Fund of India.

• The government has the power to remove Election Commissioners through an executive order without parliamentary approval.

• The Election Commission can independently amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951, without Parliament’s approval.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct: The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs come from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring financial independence.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the CEC has protection similar to a Supreme Court judge, while Election Commissioners can be removed by the President upon the CEC’s recommendation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951; only Parliament has that power.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct: The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs come from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring financial independence.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the CEC has protection similar to a Supreme Court judge, while Election Commissioners can be removed by the President upon the CEC’s recommendation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951; only Parliament has that power.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the DICGC deposit insurance system: The insurance premium charged by DICGC is uniform across all banks, regardless of their financial condition. Depositors can claim compensation from DICGC independently without waiting for bank liquidation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: d) The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides deposit insurance to bank customers in India, ensuring depositors’ money is protected up to a specified limit in case of bank failure. Statement 1 is incorrect: The insurance premium is not uniform across all banks. While DICGC charges banks an insurance premium, higher-risk banks may face different premium assessments based on their financial stability. RBI’s risk assessment policies can influence premium rates. Statement 2 is incorrect: Depositors cannot claim compensation from DICGC independently. They must wait for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to initiate the bank’s liquidation or restructuring process before DICGC steps in to compensate depositors up to the insured limit. Incorrect Solution: d) The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides deposit insurance to bank customers in India, ensuring depositors’ money is protected up to a specified limit in case of bank failure. Statement 1 is incorrect: The insurance premium is not uniform across all banks. While DICGC charges banks an insurance premium, higher-risk banks may face different premium assessments based on their financial stability. RBI’s risk assessment policies can influence premium rates. Statement 2 is incorrect: Depositors cannot claim compensation from DICGC independently. They must wait for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to initiate the bank’s liquidation or restructuring process before DICGC steps in to compensate depositors up to the insured limit.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the DICGC deposit insurance system:

• The insurance premium charged by DICGC is uniform across all banks, regardless of their financial condition.

• Depositors can claim compensation from DICGC independently without waiting for bank liquidation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides deposit insurance to bank customers in India, ensuring depositors’ money is protected up to a specified limit in case of bank failure.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The insurance premium is not uniform across all banks. While DICGC charges banks an insurance premium, higher-risk banks may face different premium assessments based on their financial stability. RBI’s risk assessment policies can influence premium rates.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Depositors cannot claim compensation from DICGC independently. They must wait for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to initiate the bank’s liquidation or restructuring process before DICGC steps in to compensate depositors up to the insured limit.

Solution: d)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following battles fought by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj: Battle of Pratapgad Battle of Palkhed Battle of Purandar Battle of Sinhagad How many of the above battles were personally led or involved by Shivaji Maharaj? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: b) Battle of Pratapgad (1659) – Personally led by Shivaji Maharaj against Afzal Khan and his Bijapuri forces. Battle of Purandar (1665) – Shivaji was involved in the campaign but had to sign the Treaty of Purandar with the Mughals under Mirza Jai Singh. Battle of Sinhagad (1670) – Tanaji Malusare, a Maratha general, led the battle and recaptured Sinhagad, sacrificing his life. Battle of Palkhed (1728) – This was fought by Peshwa Baji Rao I against the Nizam of Hyderabad and had no direct involvement of Shivaji Maharaj. Incorrect Solution: b) Battle of Pratapgad (1659) – Personally led by Shivaji Maharaj against Afzal Khan and his Bijapuri forces. Battle of Purandar (1665) – Shivaji was involved in the campaign but had to sign the Treaty of Purandar with the Mughals under Mirza Jai Singh. Battle of Sinhagad (1670) – Tanaji Malusare, a Maratha general, led the battle and recaptured Sinhagad, sacrificing his life. Battle of Palkhed (1728) – This was fought by Peshwa Baji Rao I against the Nizam of Hyderabad and had no direct involvement of Shivaji Maharaj.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following battles fought by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:

• Battle of Pratapgad

• Battle of Palkhed

• Battle of Purandar

• Battle of Sinhagad

How many of the above battles were personally led or involved by Shivaji Maharaj?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: b)

• Battle of Pratapgad (1659) – Personally led by Shivaji Maharaj against Afzal Khan and his Bijapuri forces.

• Battle of Purandar (1665) – Shivaji was involved in the campaign but had to sign the Treaty of Purandar with the Mughals under Mirza Jai Singh.

• Battle of Sinhagad (1670) – Tanaji Malusare, a Maratha general, led the battle and recaptured Sinhagad, sacrificing his life.

• Battle of Palkhed (1728) – This was fought by Peshwa Baji Rao I against the Nizam of Hyderabad and had no direct involvement of Shivaji Maharaj.

Solution: b)

• Battle of Pratapgad (1659) – Personally led by Shivaji Maharaj against Afzal Khan and his Bijapuri forces.

• Battle of Purandar (1665) – Shivaji was involved in the campaign but had to sign the Treaty of Purandar with the Mughals under Mirza Jai Singh.

• Battle of Sinhagad (1670) – Tanaji Malusare, a Maratha general, led the battle and recaptured Sinhagad, sacrificing his life.

• Battle of Palkhed (1728) – This was fought by Peshwa Baji Rao I against the Nizam of Hyderabad and had no direct involvement of Shivaji Maharaj.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Which of the following measures can prevent an MP from losing their seat under Article 101(4)? a) Applying for leave of absence from the Committee on Members’ Absence b) Requesting an exemption from the Election Commission of India c) Seeking permission from the Prime Minister’s Office d) Challenging the decision in the Supreme Court before the 60-day mark Correct Solution: a) The only way to avoid losing a seat under Article 101(4) is for the MP to apply for leave of absence to the Committee on Members’ Absence. The Election Commission and PMO have no role in granting leave. The Supreme Court cannot intervene before the 60-day period is completed. Incorrect Solution: a) The only way to avoid losing a seat under Article 101(4) is for the MP to apply for leave of absence to the Committee on Members’ Absence. The Election Commission and PMO have no role in granting leave. The Supreme Court cannot intervene before the 60-day period is completed.

#### 7. Question

Which of the following measures can prevent an MP from losing their seat under Article 101(4)?

• a) Applying for leave of absence from the Committee on Members’ Absence

• b) Requesting an exemption from the Election Commission of India

• c) Seeking permission from the Prime Minister’s Office

• d) Challenging the decision in the Supreme Court before the 60-day mark

Solution: a)

The only way to avoid losing a seat under Article 101(4) is for the MP to apply for leave of absence to the Committee on Members’ Absence. The Election Commission and PMO have no role in granting leave. The Supreme Court cannot intervene before the 60-day period is completed.

Solution: a)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following economic activities in the Andaman Sea: Fishing industry, including tuna and deep-sea fisheries Hydrocarbon exploration for oil and natural gas Coral reef mining for construction materials How many of the above activities are legally permitted under India’s environmental laws? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: Fishing, including deep-sea fishing and tuna fisheries, is legally permitted in the Andaman Sea. Statement 2 is correct: Oil and natural gas exploration is permitted, with India and Myanmar collaborating on offshore drilling projects. Statement 3 is incorrect: Coral reef mining is strictly prohibited under Indian environmental laws due to its ecological importance. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: Fishing, including deep-sea fishing and tuna fisheries, is legally permitted in the Andaman Sea. Statement 2 is correct: Oil and natural gas exploration is permitted, with India and Myanmar collaborating on offshore drilling projects. Statement 3 is incorrect: Coral reef mining is strictly prohibited under Indian environmental laws due to its ecological importance.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following economic activities in the Andaman Sea:

• Fishing industry, including tuna and deep-sea fisheries

• Hydrocarbon exploration for oil and natural gas

• Coral reef mining for construction materials

How many of the above activities are legally permitted under India’s environmental laws?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct: Fishing, including deep-sea fishing and tuna fisheries, is legally permitted in the Andaman Sea.

• Statement 2 is correct: Oil and natural gas exploration is permitted, with India and Myanmar collaborating on offshore drilling projects.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Coral reef mining is strictly prohibited under Indian environmental laws due to its ecological importance.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct: Fishing, including deep-sea fishing and tuna fisheries, is legally permitted in the Andaman Sea.

• Statement 2 is correct: Oil and natural gas exploration is permitted, with India and Myanmar collaborating on offshore drilling projects.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Coral reef mining is strictly prohibited under Indian environmental laws due to its ecological importance.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of the National Credit Framework (NCrF): The NCrF is compulsory for all higher education institutions in India. It allows for the flexible transfer of credits across various educational streams. The NCrF promotes experiential learning through activities like on-the-job training and apprenticeships. It emphasizes the integration of performing arts and social work into the credit system. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) The National Credit Framework (NCrF) is designed to create flexibility in the education system, allowing for credit transfer across diverse educational streams like academic, vocational, and experiential learning. However, statement 1 is incorrect because the NCrF is not compulsory for all institutions. Statement 2 is correct because the NCrF enables students to transfer credits between various learning pathways. Statement 3 is also correct as the NCrF promotes experiential learning through methods such as on-the-job training, internships, and apprenticeships. Statement 4 is correct as it integrates performing arts, social work, and other co-curricular activities into the credit system. Explanation: Rupee-Dollar Swap Auctions are conducted by the RBI to manage liquidity and reduce volatility in the currency market. Banks sell USD to RBI in exchange for INR and later repurchase the USD at a pre-agreed rate. While swap auctions can indirectly impact inflation by managing liquidity, their primary purpose is not inflation control but liquidity management. The RBI uses other monetary tools like repo rates and CRR adjustments for inflation control. About Rupee & Dollar Swap Auctions: It is a tool used by RBIto manage liquidity in the economy and stabilize currency volatility. Banks sell US dollarsto RBI in exchange for rupees in the first leg and agree to repurchase dollars at a future date. Who Conducts It? The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as part of its monetary policy interventions, executes the swap auctions. How It Works? First Leg (Buy Phase):Banks sell USD to RBI and receive Indian Rupees (INR). Reverse Leg (Sell Phase):Banks buy back USD from RBI at a pre-determined price at the end of the swap period. Key Features of the Swap: Tenor:Can be short-term (6 months) or long-term (3 years or more). Liquidity Management:Used to infuse or absorb rupee liquidity in the system. Forex Reserve Utilization:RBI uses its forex reserves to regulate currency flows. Impact on Exchange Rate:Helps stabilize rupee fluctuations against the dollar. Impact on the Indian Economy: Improves Banking Liquidity:Injects Rs 86,000 crore into the banking system, addressing the current liquidity shortfall of Rs 1.7 lakh crore. Enhances Monetary Policy Transmission:Ensures that interest rates in money markets align with RBI’s policy stance. Strengthens the Rupee:Reduces depreciation pressure on INR due to forex market fluctuations. Supports Economic Growth:Enables banks to lend more to businesses and industries, promoting investment and consumption. Controls Inflation Risks:Provides liquidity without increasing inflationary pressures, as money is infused against future forex obligations. Incorrect Solution: c) The National Credit Framework (NCrF) is designed to create flexibility in the education system, allowing for credit transfer across diverse educational streams like academic, vocational, and experiential learning. However, statement 1 is incorrect because the NCrF is not compulsory for all institutions. Statement 2 is correct because the NCrF enables students to transfer credits between various learning pathways. Statement 3 is also correct as the NCrF promotes experiential learning through methods such as on-the-job training, internships, and apprenticeships. Statement 4 is correct as it integrates performing arts, social work, and other co-curricular activities into the credit system.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of the National Credit Framework (NCrF):

• The NCrF is compulsory for all higher education institutions in India.

• It allows for the flexible transfer of credits across various educational streams.

• The NCrF promotes experiential learning through activities like on-the-job training and apprenticeships.

• It emphasizes the integration of performing arts and social work into the credit system.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

The National Credit Framework (NCrF) is designed to create flexibility in the education system, allowing for credit transfer across diverse educational streams like academic, vocational, and experiential learning.

However, statement 1 is incorrect because the NCrF is not compulsory for all institutions.

Statement 2 is correct because the NCrF enables students to transfer credits between various learning pathways.

Statement 3 is also correct as the NCrF promotes experiential learning through methods such as on-the-job training, internships, and apprenticeships.

Statement 4 is correct as it integrates performing arts, social work, and other co-curricular activities into the credit system.

Explanation:

• Rupee-Dollar Swap Auctions are conducted by the RBI to manage liquidity and reduce volatility in the currency market. Banks sell USD to RBI in exchange for INR and later repurchase the USD at a pre-agreed rate.

• While swap auctions can indirectly impact inflation by managing liquidity, their primary purpose is not inflation control but liquidity management. The RBI uses other monetary tools like repo rates and CRR adjustments for inflation control.

About Rupee & Dollar Swap Auctions:

• It is a tool used by RBIto manage liquidity in the economy and stabilize currency volatility.

• Banks sell US dollarsto RBI in exchange for rupees in the first leg and agree to repurchase dollars at a future date.

• Who Conducts It? The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as part of its monetary policy interventions, executes the swap auctions.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as part of its monetary policy interventions, executes the swap auctions.

• How It Works? First Leg (Buy Phase):Banks sell USD to RBI and receive Indian Rupees (INR). Reverse Leg (Sell Phase):Banks buy back USD from RBI at a pre-determined price at the end of the swap period.

• First Leg (Buy Phase):Banks sell USD to RBI and receive Indian Rupees (INR).

• Reverse Leg (Sell Phase):Banks buy back USD from RBI at a pre-determined price at the end of the swap period.

• Key Features of the Swap: Tenor:Can be short-term (6 months) or long-term (3 years or more). Liquidity Management:Used to infuse or absorb rupee liquidity in the system. Forex Reserve Utilization:RBI uses its forex reserves to regulate currency flows. Impact on Exchange Rate:Helps stabilize rupee fluctuations against the dollar.

• Tenor:Can be short-term (6 months) or long-term (3 years or more).

• Liquidity Management:Used to infuse or absorb rupee liquidity in the system.

• Forex Reserve Utilization:RBI uses its forex reserves to regulate currency flows.

• Impact on Exchange Rate:Helps stabilize rupee fluctuations against the dollar.

• Impact on the Indian Economy: Improves Banking Liquidity:Injects Rs 86,000 crore into the banking system, addressing the current liquidity shortfall of Rs 1.7 lakh crore. Enhances Monetary Policy Transmission:Ensures that interest rates in money markets align with RBI’s policy stance. Strengthens the Rupee:Reduces depreciation pressure on INR due to forex market fluctuations. Supports Economic Growth:Enables banks to lend more to businesses and industries, promoting investment and consumption. Controls Inflation Risks:Provides liquidity without increasing inflationary pressures, as money is infused against future forex obligations.

• Improves Banking Liquidity:Injects Rs 86,000 crore into the banking system, addressing the current liquidity shortfall of Rs 1.7 lakh crore.

• Enhances Monetary Policy Transmission:Ensures that interest rates in money markets align with RBI’s policy stance.

• Strengthens the Rupee:Reduces depreciation pressure on INR due to forex market fluctuations.

• Supports Economic Growth:Enables banks to lend more to businesses and industries, promoting investment and consumption.

• Controls Inflation Risks:Provides liquidity without increasing inflationary pressures, as money is infused against future forex obligations.

Solution: c)

However, statement 1 is incorrect because the NCrF is not compulsory for all institutions.

Statement 2 is correct because the NCrF enables students to transfer credits between various learning pathways.

Statement 3 is also correct as the NCrF promotes experiential learning through methods such as on-the-job training, internships, and apprenticeships.

Statement 4 is correct as it integrates performing arts, social work, and other co-curricular activities into the credit system.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points What is the main source of power in Wave Energy Conversion systems? a) Gravitational pull from the Moon b) Salt concentration difference between freshwater and seawater c) Temperature difference between surface and deep water d) Kinetic energy from ocean waves Correct Solution: d) Wave Energy Conversion systems capture the kinetic energy generated by the motion of ocean waves and convert it into electricity. Devices like wave energy converters are used to harness this energy, which is driven by wind and the movement of water. Incorrect Solution: d) Wave Energy Conversion systems capture the kinetic energy generated by the motion of ocean waves and convert it into electricity. Devices like wave energy converters are used to harness this energy, which is driven by wind and the movement of water.

#### 10. Question

What is the main source of power in Wave Energy Conversion systems?

• a) Gravitational pull from the Moon

• b) Salt concentration difference between freshwater and seawater

• c) Temperature difference between surface and deep water

• d) Kinetic energy from ocean waves

Solution: d)

Wave Energy Conversion systems capture the kinetic energy generated by the motion of ocean waves and convert it into electricity. Devices like wave energy converters are used to harness this energy, which is driven by wind and the movement of water.

Solution: d)

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