UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 25 August 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament to promote cooperative federalism. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister of India, Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with Legislatures, and Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories. Its policy frameworks are binding on both the Central and State governments to ensure rapid economic transformation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015, not through an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it is a non-statutory or an executive body, which serves as a policy think-tank for the government. Its predecessor, the Planning Commission, was also formed by an executive resolution. Statement 2 is correct. The Governing Council is the primary body for developing a shared national agenda and is composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, all Chief Ministers of states, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with legislatures, and Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories. Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of NITI Aayog is primarily advisory. It acts as a think-tank and provides strategic policy inputs. Its recommendations and policy frameworks are not binding on the governments. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015, not through an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it is a non-statutory or an executive body, which serves as a policy think-tank for the government. Its predecessor, the Planning Commission, was also formed by an executive resolution. Statement 2 is correct. The Governing Council is the primary body for developing a shared national agenda and is composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, all Chief Ministers of states, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with legislatures, and Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories. Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of NITI Aayog is primarily advisory. It acts as a think-tank and provides strategic policy inputs. Its recommendations and policy frameworks are not binding on the governments.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the NITI Aayog, consider the following statements:

• It is a statutory body established through an Act of Parliament to promote cooperative federalism.

• The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister of India, Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with Legislatures, and Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories.

• Its policy frameworks are binding on both the Central and State governments to ensure rapid economic transformation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. NITI Aayog was established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015, not through an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it is a non-statutory or an executive body, which serves as a policy think-tank for the government. Its predecessor, the Planning Commission, was also formed by an executive resolution.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Governing Council is the primary body for developing a shared national agenda and is composed of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, all Chief Ministers of states, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with legislatures, and Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of NITI Aayog is primarily advisory. It acts as a think-tank and provides strategic policy inputs. Its recommendations and policy frameworks are not binding on the governments.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the declaration of a famine: A famine is declared by the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) when the mortality rate exceeds 2 deaths per 1,000 people per day. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is an independent body managed exclusively by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). A famine declaration legally obligates member states of the United Nations to provide humanitarian aid. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The threshold for mortality rate for a famine declaration is over 2 deaths per 10,000 people per day. The other two criteria are: at least 20% of households facing extreme food shortages and acute malnutrition in children exceeding 30%. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is a multi-partner initiative, not exclusively managed by the FAO. It is a collaborative effort jointly managed by several UN agencies (like FAO, WFP, UNICEF), international bodies, and non-governmental organizations. This partnership ensures a consensus-based and analytically rigorous classification of food security situations. Statement 3 is incorrect. While a famine declaration carries immense moral and political weight and is a powerful tool for mobilizing international attention and aid, it does not create a direct, automatic legal obligation on UN member states to provide aid under international law. It significantly strengthens the political and ethical pressure on nations and warring parties to allow humanitarian access and provide assistance, often citing principles of International Humanitarian Law, but it is not a direct legal trigger for compulsory aid. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The threshold for mortality rate for a famine declaration is over 2 deaths per 10,000 people per day. The other two criteria are: at least 20% of households facing extreme food shortages and acute malnutrition in children exceeding 30%. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is a multi-partner initiative, not exclusively managed by the FAO. It is a collaborative effort jointly managed by several UN agencies (like FAO, WFP, UNICEF), international bodies, and non-governmental organizations. This partnership ensures a consensus-based and analytically rigorous classification of food security situations. Statement 3 is incorrect. While a famine declaration carries immense moral and political weight and is a powerful tool for mobilizing international attention and aid, it does not create a direct, automatic legal obligation on UN member states to provide aid under international law. It significantly strengthens the political and ethical pressure on nations and warring parties to allow humanitarian access and provide assistance, often citing principles of International Humanitarian Law, but it is not a direct legal trigger for compulsory aid.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the declaration of a famine:

• A famine is declared by the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) when the mortality rate exceeds 2 deaths per 1,000 people per day.

• The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is an independent body managed exclusively by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).

• A famine declaration legally obligates member states of the United Nations to provide humanitarian aid.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The threshold for mortality rate for a famine declaration is over 2 deaths per 10,000 people per day. The other two criteria are: at least 20% of households facing extreme food shortages and acute malnutrition in children exceeding 30%.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) is a multi-partner initiative, not exclusively managed by the FAO. It is a collaborative effort jointly managed by several UN agencies (like FAO, WFP, UNICEF), international bodies, and non-governmental organizations. This partnership ensures a consensus-based and analytically rigorous classification of food security situations.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While a famine declaration carries immense moral and political weight and is a powerful tool for mobilizing international attention and aid, it does not create a direct, automatic legal obligation on UN member states to provide aid under international law. It significantly strengthens the political and ethical pressure on nations and warring parties to allow humanitarian access and provide assistance, often citing principles of International Humanitarian Law, but it is not a direct legal trigger for compulsory aid.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India: Statement I: The Monetary Policy Committee is statutorily empowered to determine the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target. Statement II: The decisions of the MPC are binding on the Reserve Bank of India, ensuring institutional accountability in monetary policy formulation. Statement III: All members of the MPC, including the three external members, hold office for a term of four years and are eligible for re-appointment. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I (d) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I and Statement III is incorrect Correct Solution: D Statement I is correct. The MPC was established through the amendment of the RBI Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. It is legally empowered to fix the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target, which is currently set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%. Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The statutory framework makes the MPC’s decisions on the policy rate binding on the RBI. This is a crucial feature that gives the committee its power and ensures that its mandate (Statement I) is effectively executed. This binding nature enforces accountability, as the RBI cannot unilaterally override the committee’s decision, thus strengthening the inflation-targeting framework. Statement III is incorrect. While the three external members nominated by the Central Government do have a term of four years, the RBI Act explicitly states that they are not eligible for re-appointment. This provision is designed to ensure their independence and prevent the establishment of vested interests, allowing for fresh perspectives to be brought into the committee periodically. The internal RBI members’ tenure is linked to their position within the RBI. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is correct. The MPC was established through the amendment of the RBI Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. It is legally empowered to fix the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target, which is currently set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%. Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The statutory framework makes the MPC’s decisions on the policy rate binding on the RBI. This is a crucial feature that gives the committee its power and ensures that its mandate (Statement I) is effectively executed. This binding nature enforces accountability, as the RBI cannot unilaterally override the committee’s decision, thus strengthening the inflation-targeting framework. Statement III is incorrect. While the three external members nominated by the Central Government do have a term of four years, the RBI Act explicitly states that they are not eligible for re-appointment. This provision is designed to ensure their independence and prevent the establishment of vested interests, allowing for fresh perspectives to be brought into the committee periodically. The internal RBI members’ tenure is linked to their position within the RBI.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India:

Statement I: The Monetary Policy Committee is statutorily empowered to determine the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.

Statement II: The decisions of the MPC are binding on the Reserve Bank of India, ensuring institutional accountability in monetary policy formulation.

Statement III: All members of the MPC, including the three external members, hold office for a term of four years and are eligible for re-appointment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I

• (d) Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I and Statement III is incorrect

Solution: D

• Statement I is correct. The MPC was established through the amendment of the RBI Act, 1934. Its primary mandate is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. It is legally empowered to fix the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) to achieve the inflation target, which is currently set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%.

• Statement II is correct and explains Statement I. The statutory framework makes the MPC’s decisions on the policy rate binding on the RBI. This is a crucial feature that gives the committee its power and ensures that its mandate (Statement I) is effectively executed. This binding nature enforces accountability, as the RBI cannot unilaterally override the committee’s decision, thus strengthening the inflation-targeting framework.

• Statement III is incorrect. While the three external members nominated by the Central Government do have a term of four years, the RBI Act explicitly states that they are not eligible for re-appointment. This provision is designed to ensure their independence and prevent the establishment of vested interests, allowing for fresh perspectives to be brought into the committee periodically. The internal RBI members’ tenure is linked to their position within the RBI.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: Geographical Feature Location in Algeria 1. Tell Atlas : Southern desert region 2. Mount Tahat : Ahaggar Mountains 3. M’zab Valley : Along the Mediterranean Coast Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Tell Atlas is a mountain range located in the northern part of Algeria, running parallel to the Mediterranean coast. This region experiences a Mediterranean climate and is one of the country’s most fertile areas. The southern desert region is dominated by the Sahara Desert and the Saharan Atlas range, which lies south of the Tell Atlas. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Ahaggar (or Hoggar) Mountains are a highland region located in the central Sahara, in southern Algeria. Mount Tahat, with an elevation of 3,003 meters, is the highest peak in Algeria and is situated within this mountain range. This area is known for its dramatic, rocky landscape. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The M’zab Valley is a limestone plateau located in the northern Sahara Desert, not along the Mediterranean coast. It is a UNESCO World Heritage site renowned for its traditional and well-preserved fortified settlements (ksour) built by the Mozabite Berbers in the 10th century. Incorrect Solution: B Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Tell Atlas is a mountain range located in the northern part of Algeria, running parallel to the Mediterranean coast. This region experiences a Mediterranean climate and is one of the country’s most fertile areas. The southern desert region is dominated by the Sahara Desert and the Saharan Atlas range, which lies south of the Tell Atlas. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Ahaggar (or Hoggar) Mountains are a highland region located in the central Sahara, in southern Algeria. Mount Tahat, with an elevation of 3,003 meters, is the highest peak in Algeria and is situated within this mountain range. This area is known for its dramatic, rocky landscape. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The M’zab Valley is a limestone plateau located in the northern Sahara Desert, not along the Mediterranean coast. It is a UNESCO World Heritage site renowned for its traditional and well-preserved fortified settlements (ksour) built by the Mozabite Berbers in the 10th century.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs:

| Geographical Feature | | Location in Algeria

1.| Tell Atlas | : | Southern desert region
2.| Mount Tahat | : | Ahaggar Mountains
3.| M’zab Valley | : | Along the Mediterranean Coast

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. The Tell Atlas is a mountain range located in the northern part of Algeria, running parallel to the Mediterranean coast. This region experiences a Mediterranean climate and is one of the country’s most fertile areas. The southern desert region is dominated by the Sahara Desert and the Saharan Atlas range, which lies south of the Tell Atlas.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Ahaggar (or Hoggar) Mountains are a highland region located in the central Sahara, in southern Algeria. Mount Tahat, with an elevation of 3,003 meters, is the highest peak in Algeria and is situated within this mountain range. This area is known for its dramatic, rocky landscape.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The M’zab Valley is a limestone plateau located in the northern Sahara Desert, not along the Mediterranean coast. It is a UNESCO World Heritage site renowned for its traditional and well-preserved fortified settlements (ksour) built by the Mozabite Berbers in the 10th century.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework governing tribal rights in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, mandates the settlement of individual and community forest rights before any forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956, prohibits the acquisition of land in tribal areas by outsiders. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, is the empowerment of the Gram Sabha (village assembly). Section 4(5) of the Act requires that no member of a forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribe or traditional forest dweller shall be evicted or removed from forest land under their occupation till the recognition and verification procedure is complete. Furthermore, consent from the Gram Sabha is required for any diversion of forest land. Statement 2 is correct. The PAT Regulation of 1956 is a specific piece of legislation for the Andaman & Nicobar Islands designed to protect its indigenous tribes. It creates tribal reserves and explicitly prohibits outsiders from settling, acquiring land, or carrying on business in these areas without permission, thereby safeguarding their land and resources. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, is the empowerment of the Gram Sabha (village assembly). Section 4(5) of the Act requires that no member of a forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribe or traditional forest dweller shall be evicted or removed from forest land under their occupation till the recognition and verification procedure is complete. Furthermore, consent from the Gram Sabha is required for any diversion of forest land. Statement 2 is correct. The PAT Regulation of 1956 is a specific piece of legislation for the Andaman & Nicobar Islands designed to protect its indigenous tribes. It creates tribal reserves and explicitly prohibits outsiders from settling, acquiring land, or carrying on business in these areas without permission, thereby safeguarding their land and resources.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework governing tribal rights in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

• The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, mandates the settlement of individual and community forest rights before any forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes.

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Protection of Aboriginal Tribes) Regulation, 1956, prohibits the acquisition of land in tribal areas by outsiders.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, is the empowerment of the Gram Sabha (village assembly). Section 4(5) of the Act requires that no member of a forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribe or traditional forest dweller shall be evicted or removed from forest land under their occupation till the recognition and verification procedure is complete. Furthermore, consent from the Gram Sabha is required for any diversion of forest land.

• Statement 2 is correct. The PAT Regulation of 1956 is a specific piece of legislation for the Andaman & Nicobar Islands designed to protect its indigenous tribes. It creates tribal reserves and explicitly prohibits outsiders from settling, acquiring land, or carrying on business in these areas without permission, thereby safeguarding their land and resources.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the expansion of Sundarbans Tiger Reserve. Statement-I: The recent expansion has made the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve the second-largest tiger reserve in India. Statement-II: The expansion was approved by the National Board for Wildlife to increase the core habitat available for the unique mangrove-adapted tiger population. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement- (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The National Board for Wildlife approved West Bengal’s proposal to add 1,044.68 sq km to the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve (STR). This expansion increased the total area to 3,629.57 sq km, elevating its rank to become India’s second-largest tiger reserve. Statement-II is correct. The primary conservation rationale for expanding any tiger reserve is to provide more protected area for the tiger population. In the case of the Sundarbans, the expansion aims to increase the core and buffer areas, which is crucial for a viable population of its unique mangrove-dwelling tigers. This provides them with more space for movement, reduces human-animal conflict at the fringes, and protects the fragile mangrove ecosystem upon which they depend. Statement-II provides the direct and logical reason for the action mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The National Board for Wildlife approved West Bengal’s proposal to add 1,044.68 sq km to the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve (STR). This expansion increased the total area to 3,629.57 sq km, elevating its rank to become India’s second-largest tiger reserve. Statement-II is correct. The primary conservation rationale for expanding any tiger reserve is to provide more protected area for the tiger population. In the case of the Sundarbans, the expansion aims to increase the core and buffer areas, which is crucial for a viable population of its unique mangrove-dwelling tigers. This provides them with more space for movement, reduces human-animal conflict at the fringes, and protects the fragile mangrove ecosystem upon which they depend. Statement-II provides the direct and logical reason for the action mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the expansion of Sundarbans Tiger Reserve.

Statement-I: The recent expansion has made the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve the second-largest tiger reserve in India.

Statement-II: The expansion was approved by the National Board for Wildlife to increase the core habitat available for the unique mangrove-adapted tiger population.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The National Board for Wildlife approved West Bengal’s proposal to add 1,044.68 sq km to the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve (STR). This expansion increased the total area to 3,629.57 sq km, elevating its rank to become India’s second-largest tiger reserve.

• Statement-II is correct. The primary conservation rationale for expanding any tiger reserve is to provide more protected area for the tiger population. In the case of the Sundarbans, the expansion aims to increase the core and buffer areas, which is crucial for a viable population of its unique mangrove-dwelling tigers. This provides them with more space for movement, reduces human-animal conflict at the fringes, and protects the fragile mangrove ecosystem upon which they depend.

Statement-II provides the direct and logical reason for the action mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II provides the direct and logical reason for the action mentioned in Statement-I.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Great Nicobar Project: The project is being implemented by NITI Aayog and primarily aims to enhance India’s maritime trade and security in the Indian Ocean Region. It involves the diversion of forest land that is part of a UNESCO designated Biosphere Reserve. The Galathea Bay, the site for the proposed transshipment port, is also a significant nesting ground for the Leatherback sea turtle. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Great Nicobar Project is a strategic initiative driven by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the A&N Administration. Its stated objectives are multi-pronged, focusing on economic development through a transshipment hub to tap into global shipping routes, and enhancing India’s geostrategic presence and maritime security in the crucial Indo-Pacific region. Statement 2 is correct. The Great Nicobar Island, where the project is located, was designated as the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2013. The project involves the diversion of a significant area of forest land within this ecologically sensitive and protected area, which has been a major point of concern for environmentalists. Statement 3 is correct. Galathea Bay, on the southeastern coast of Great Nicobar, is the proposed site for the international transshipment port. This bay is also globally recognized as an iconic and one of the most important nesting sites for the Giant Leatherback turtle, the world’s largest sea turtle. The potential impact of port construction and dredging on this nesting habitat is a critical environmental concern raised against the project. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The Great Nicobar Project is a strategic initiative driven by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the A&N Administration. Its stated objectives are multi-pronged, focusing on economic development through a transshipment hub to tap into global shipping routes, and enhancing India’s geostrategic presence and maritime security in the crucial Indo-Pacific region. Statement 2 is correct. The Great Nicobar Island, where the project is located, was designated as the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2013. The project involves the diversion of a significant area of forest land within this ecologically sensitive and protected area, which has been a major point of concern for environmentalists. Statement 3 is correct. Galathea Bay, on the southeastern coast of Great Nicobar, is the proposed site for the international transshipment port. This bay is also globally recognized as an iconic and one of the most important nesting sites for the Giant Leatherback turtle, the world’s largest sea turtle. The potential impact of port construction and dredging on this nesting habitat is a critical environmental concern raised against the project.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the Great Nicobar Project:

• The project is being implemented by NITI Aayog and primarily aims to enhance India’s maritime trade and security in the Indian Ocean Region.

• It involves the diversion of forest land that is part of a UNESCO designated Biosphere Reserve.

• The Galathea Bay, the site for the proposed transshipment port, is also a significant nesting ground for the Leatherback sea turtle.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The Great Nicobar Project is a strategic initiative driven by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the A&N Administration. Its stated objectives are multi-pronged, focusing on economic development through a transshipment hub to tap into global shipping routes, and enhancing India’s geostrategic presence and maritime security in the crucial Indo-Pacific region.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Great Nicobar Island, where the project is located, was designated as the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO in 2013. The project involves the diversion of a significant area of forest land within this ecologically sensitive and protected area, which has been a major point of concern for environmentalists.

• Statement 3 is correct. Galathea Bay, on the southeastern coast of Great Nicobar, is the proposed site for the international transshipment port. This bay is also globally recognized as an iconic and one of the most important nesting sites for the Giant Leatherback turtle, the world’s largest sea turtle. The potential impact of port construction and dredging on this nesting habitat is a critical environmental concern raised against the project.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the geography of Algeria, consider the following statements: It is a landlocked country located in the Maghreb region of North Africa. The country’s climate is uniformly arid desert type due to the dominance of the Sahara. It shares land borders with Morocco, Mauritania, and Niger. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Algeria has a long coastline along the Mediterranean Sea to its north. Therefore, it is not a landlocked country. Its capital, Algiers, is a major port on this coast. The Maghreb region itself is defined by its proximity to the Mediterranean. Statement 2 is incorrect. Algeria’s climate is not uniform. The northern coastal region has a Mediterranean climate characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. Further south, a semi-arid or steppe climate prevails in the high plateaus. The vast southern part, which is the Sahara Desert, experiences an arid desert climate. Statement 3 is correct. Algeria shares extensive land borders with several countries. In the west and southwest, its neighbours include Morocco, Western Sahara, and Mauritania. To the south and southeast, it borders Mali and Niger. To the east, it borders Libya and Tunisia. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Algeria has a long coastline along the Mediterranean Sea to its north. Therefore, it is not a landlocked country. Its capital, Algiers, is a major port on this coast. The Maghreb region itself is defined by its proximity to the Mediterranean. Statement 2 is incorrect. Algeria’s climate is not uniform. The northern coastal region has a Mediterranean climate characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. Further south, a semi-arid or steppe climate prevails in the high plateaus. The vast southern part, which is the Sahara Desert, experiences an arid desert climate. Statement 3 is correct. Algeria shares extensive land borders with several countries. In the west and southwest, its neighbours include Morocco, Western Sahara, and Mauritania. To the south and southeast, it borders Mali and Niger. To the east, it borders Libya and Tunisia.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the geography of Algeria, consider the following statements:

• It is a landlocked country located in the Maghreb region of North Africa.

• The country’s climate is uniformly arid desert type due to the dominance of the Sahara.

• It shares land borders with Morocco, Mauritania, and Niger.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Algeria has a long coastline along the Mediterranean Sea to its north. Therefore, it is not a landlocked country. Its capital, Algiers, is a major port on this coast. The Maghreb region itself is defined by its proximity to the Mediterranean.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Algeria’s climate is not uniform. The northern coastal region has a Mediterranean climate characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. Further south, a semi-arid or steppe climate prevails in the high plateaus. The vast southern part, which is the Sahara Desert, experiences an arid desert climate.

• Statement 3 is correct. Algeria shares extensive land borders with several countries. In the west and southwest, its neighbours include Morocco, Western Sahara, and Mauritania. To the south and southeast, it borders Mali and Niger. To the east, it borders Libya and Tunisia.

Solution: A

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Sakura Science Programme: The primary objective of the programme is to provide long-term scholarships for higher education in Japan. The programme is exclusively for students from Asian countries. The programme aims to promote scientific curiosity and cultural understanding among young learners. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sakura Science Programme focuses on short-term educational visits, not long-term scholarships. The goal is to provide a brief but intensive exposure to Japan’s scientific and technological advancements. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the programme initially focused on Asian countries, it has expanded to include nations from other continents. Participating countries now include those from Africa, such as Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Nigeria, South Africa, and Zambia. Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the Sakura Science Programme is to promote scientific curiosity and a global outlook among young learners. It also aims to encourage cultural understanding and strengthen bilateral ties with Japan by providing participants with exposure to both Japan’s scientific achievements and its cultural traditions. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sakura Science Programme focuses on short-term educational visits, not long-term scholarships. The goal is to provide a brief but intensive exposure to Japan’s scientific and technological advancements. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the programme initially focused on Asian countries, it has expanded to include nations from other continents. Participating countries now include those from Africa, such as Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Nigeria, South Africa, and Zambia. Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the Sakura Science Programme is to promote scientific curiosity and a global outlook among young learners. It also aims to encourage cultural understanding and strengthen bilateral ties with Japan by providing participants with exposure to both Japan’s scientific achievements and its cultural traditions.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements about the Sakura Science Programme:

• The primary objective of the programme is to provide long-term scholarships for higher education in Japan.

• The programme is exclusively for students from Asian countries.

• The programme aims to promote scientific curiosity and cultural understanding among young learners.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sakura Science Programme focuses on short-term educational visits, not long-term scholarships. The goal is to provide a brief but intensive exposure to Japan’s scientific and technological advancements.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the programme initially focused on Asian countries, it has expanded to include nations from other continents. Participating countries now include those from Africa, such as Egypt, Ghana, Kenya, Nigeria, South Africa, and Zambia.

• Statement 3 is correct. The core objective of the Sakura Science Programme is to promote scientific curiosity and a global outlook among young learners. It also aims to encourage cultural understanding and strengthen bilateral ties with Japan by providing participants with exposure to both Japan’s scientific achievements and its cultural traditions.

Solution: A

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the applications of the genetically engineered E. coli mercury sensor: It can be used for real-time detection of heavy metals in drinking water. It can monitor pollution in rivers, lakes, and industrial effluents. It serves as an early warning system for communities exposed to contaminated water. It can be integrated with portable electronic devices for on-site analysis. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D The E. coli mercury sensor has a wide range of applications. Water Safety: Its primary application is to detect toxic heavy metals like mercury in drinking water, ensuring its safety for consumption. Environmental Monitoring: It can be used to track pollution levels in various water bodies, including rivers, lakes, and industrial discharge, providing valuable data for environmental management. Public Health: By providing real-time data on water contamination, it can act as an early warning system for communities, helping to prevent public health crises. Low-cost Electronics: The sensor is designed to be compatible with portable devices, enabling its use for on-site analysis in the field, which is crucial for rapid response and decision-making. This technology is a significant step forward in the field of programmable bioelectronics and smart diagnostics. Incorrect Solution: D The E. coli mercury sensor has a wide range of applications. Water Safety: Its primary application is to detect toxic heavy metals like mercury in drinking water, ensuring its safety for consumption. Environmental Monitoring: It can be used to track pollution levels in various water bodies, including rivers, lakes, and industrial discharge, providing valuable data for environmental management. Public Health: By providing real-time data on water contamination, it can act as an early warning system for communities, helping to prevent public health crises. Low-cost Electronics: The sensor is designed to be compatible with portable devices, enabling its use for on-site analysis in the field, which is crucial for rapid response and decision-making. This technology is a significant step forward in the field of programmable bioelectronics and smart diagnostics.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the applications of the genetically engineered E. coli mercury sensor:

• It can be used for real-time detection of heavy metals in drinking water.

• It can monitor pollution in rivers, lakes, and industrial effluents.

• It serves as an early warning system for communities exposed to contaminated water.

• It can be integrated with portable electronic devices for on-site analysis.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

The E. coli mercury sensor has a wide range of applications.

• Water Safety: Its primary application is to detect toxic heavy metals like mercury in drinking water, ensuring its safety for consumption.

• Environmental Monitoring: It can be used to track pollution levels in various water bodies, including rivers, lakes, and industrial discharge, providing valuable data for environmental management.

• Public Health: By providing real-time data on water contamination, it can act as an early warning system for communities, helping to prevent public health crises.

• Low-cost Electronics: The sensor is designed to be compatible with portable devices, enabling its use for on-site analysis in the field, which is crucial for rapid response and decision-making. This technology is a significant step forward in the field of programmable bioelectronics and smart diagnostics.

Solution: D

The E. coli mercury sensor has a wide range of applications.

• Water Safety: Its primary application is to detect toxic heavy metals like mercury in drinking water, ensuring its safety for consumption.

• Public Health: By providing real-time data on water contamination, it can act as an early warning system for communities, helping to prevent public health crises.

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