UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks: They are jointly owned by the Centre, the respective State Government, and a Sponsor Bank. They are regulated solely by NABARD under the Banking Regulation Act. They primarily cater to credit needs of rural populations involved in agriculture, trade, and micro-enterprises. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 1: Correct. RRBs follow a tripartite ownership model—GOI (50%), State Government (15%), and Sponsor Bank (35%). Statement 3: Correct. Their focus is to provide low-cost institutional credit to rural customers, particularly in agriculture, small businesses, and trade. Statement 2: Incorrect. RRBs are regulated by the RBI, while NABARD provides supervisory oversight and refinancing support. Regulatory functions like licensing, capital norms, and statutory requirements fall under RBI’s purview. Incorrect Solution: a) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 1: Correct. RRBs follow a tripartite ownership model—GOI (50%), State Government (15%), and Sponsor Bank (35%). Statement 3: Correct. Their focus is to provide low-cost institutional credit to rural customers, particularly in agriculture, small businesses, and trade. Statement 2: Incorrect. RRBs are regulated by the RBI, while NABARD provides supervisory oversight and refinancing support. Regulatory functions like licensing, capital norms, and statutory requirements fall under RBI’s purview.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks:

• They are jointly owned by the Centre, the respective State Government, and a Sponsor Bank.

• They are regulated solely by NABARD under the Banking Regulation Act.

• They primarily cater to credit needs of rural populations involved in agriculture, trade, and micro-enterprises.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Statement 1: Correct. RRBs follow a tripartite ownership model—GOI (50%), State Government (15%), and Sponsor Bank (35%).

• Statement 3: Correct. Their focus is to provide low-cost institutional credit to rural customers, particularly in agriculture, small businesses, and trade.

• Statement 2: Incorrect. RRBs are regulated by the RBI, while NABARD provides supervisory oversight and refinancing support. Regulatory functions like licensing, capital norms, and statutory requirements fall under RBI’s purview.

Solution: a)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Statement 1: Correct. RRBs follow a tripartite ownership model—GOI (50%), State Government (15%), and Sponsor Bank (35%).

• Statement 3: Correct. Their focus is to provide low-cost institutional credit to rural customers, particularly in agriculture, small businesses, and trade.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mandates the State to ensure that children are not abused and are provided opportunities for healthy development? a) Article 15(3) b) Article 21 c) Article 39(e) and (f) d) Article 47 Correct Solution: c) Article 39(e) and (f) direct the State to protect children from abuse and provide them with opportunities for healthy development. Article 39(e) mandates that children should not be exploited in harmful employment, while Article 39(f) ensures that children grow up with dignity, freedom, and a healthy environment. These provisions are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, guiding the State to create policies for the welfare and protection of children, although not enforceable in a court of law. Incorrect Solution: c) Article 39(e) and (f) direct the State to protect children from abuse and provide them with opportunities for healthy development. Article 39(e) mandates that children should not be exploited in harmful employment, while Article 39(f) ensures that children grow up with dignity, freedom, and a healthy environment. These provisions are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, guiding the State to create policies for the welfare and protection of children, although not enforceable in a court of law.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mandates the State to ensure that children are not abused and are provided opportunities for healthy development?

• a) Article 15(3)

• b) Article 21

• c) Article 39(e) and (f)

• d) Article 47

Solution: c)

• Article 39(e) and (f) direct the State to protect children from abuse and provide them with opportunities for healthy development.

• Article 39(e) mandates that children should not be exploited in harmful employment, while Article 39(f) ensures that children grow up with dignity, freedom, and a healthy environment.

• These provisions are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, guiding the State to create policies for the welfare and protection of children, although not enforceable in a court of law.

Solution: c)

• Article 39(e) and (f) direct the State to protect children from abuse and provide them with opportunities for healthy development.

• Article 39(e) mandates that children should not be exploited in harmful employment, while Article 39(f) ensures that children grow up with dignity, freedom, and a healthy environment.

• These provisions are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, guiding the State to create policies for the welfare and protection of children, although not enforceable in a court of law.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Match the following monuments in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park with their features: Monument Feature A. Tomb of Balban 1. Reflects the transition from Lodi to Mughal architectural elements B. Jamali Kamali Mosque 2. India’s first true arch and dome C. Rajon Ki Baoli 3. A Mughal-era structure showcasing advanced design D. Gandhak ki Baoli 4. A stepwell reflecting the importance of water management Select the correct option: a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: d) The Tomb of Balban (A-2) is a significant architectural landmark as it contains India’s first true arch and dome, marking the early use of such features during the Delhi Sultanate period. The Jamali Kamali Mosque (B-1) reflects a stylistic transition between Lodi and Mughal architecture, blending ornate elements like calligraphy, arches, and symmetry—indicative of early Mughal aesthetic influence. Rajon Ki Baoli (C-4) is a well-preserved stepwell, showcasing the traditional importance of water conservation through layered steps, columns, and chambers, serving both utility and social purposes. Gandhak ki Baoli (D-3), attributed to the Mughal period, demonstrates advanced engineering and design for water harvesting, including the use of sulphur-rich water (gandhak) and an effective spatial layout. Incorrect Solution: d) The Tomb of Balban (A-2) is a significant architectural landmark as it contains India’s first true arch and dome, marking the early use of such features during the Delhi Sultanate period. The Jamali Kamali Mosque (B-1) reflects a stylistic transition between Lodi and Mughal architecture, blending ornate elements like calligraphy, arches, and symmetry—indicative of early Mughal aesthetic influence. Rajon Ki Baoli (C-4) is a well-preserved stepwell, showcasing the traditional importance of water conservation through layered steps, columns, and chambers, serving both utility and social purposes. Gandhak ki Baoli (D-3), attributed to the Mughal period, demonstrates advanced engineering and design for water harvesting, including the use of sulphur-rich water (gandhak) and an effective spatial layout.

#### 3. Question

Match the following monuments in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park with their features:

Monument | Feature

A. Tomb of Balban | 1. Reflects the transition from Lodi to Mughal architectural elements

B. Jamali Kamali Mosque | 2. India’s first true arch and dome

C. Rajon Ki Baoli | 3. A Mughal-era structure showcasing advanced design

D. Gandhak ki Baoli | 4. A stepwell reflecting the importance of water management

Select the correct option:

• a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

• b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

• c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

• d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Solution: d)

• The Tomb of Balban (A-2) is a significant architectural landmark as it contains India’s first true arch and dome, marking the early use of such features during the Delhi Sultanate period.

• The Jamali Kamali Mosque (B-1) reflects a stylistic transition between Lodi and Mughal architecture, blending ornate elements like calligraphy, arches, and symmetry—indicative of early Mughal aesthetic influence.

• Rajon Ki Baoli (C-4) is a well-preserved stepwell, showcasing the traditional importance of water conservation through layered steps, columns, and chambers, serving both utility and social purposes.

• Gandhak ki Baoli (D-3), attributed to the Mughal period, demonstrates advanced engineering and design for water harvesting, including the use of sulphur-rich water (gandhak) and an effective spatial layout.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points What was the primary issue with the Pusa-44 rice variety that contributed to environmental concerns in Northern India? a) High water requirement b) Pest susceptibility c) Low yield d) Long maturation time Correct Solution: d) The Pusa-44 rice variety, though initially introduced for its high yield, has been widely criticized for its long maturation period of over 160 days. This characteristic delays the harvesting of rice, which in turn postpones the sowing of wheat—a crucial winter crop in Northern India. Farmers, constrained by a short sowing window between the two crop cycles, often resort to burning the rice stubble as a quick and cheap way to clear fields for the next crop. This widespread stubble burning, particularly in Punjab and Haryana, has become a major contributor to seasonal air pollution, including the infamous smog episodes in Delhi NCR. While the variety has high yield potential, its environmental cost has led policymakers and agricultural scientists to recommend alternative shorter-duration rice varieties and sustainable practices like Happy Seeder technology and bio-decomposers to mitigate its negative impacts. Incorrect Solution: d) The Pusa-44 rice variety, though initially introduced for its high yield, has been widely criticized for its long maturation period of over 160 days. This characteristic delays the harvesting of rice, which in turn postpones the sowing of wheat—a crucial winter crop in Northern India. Farmers, constrained by a short sowing window between the two crop cycles, often resort to burning the rice stubble as a quick and cheap way to clear fields for the next crop. This widespread stubble burning, particularly in Punjab and Haryana, has become a major contributor to seasonal air pollution, including the infamous smog episodes in Delhi NCR. While the variety has high yield potential, its environmental cost has led policymakers and agricultural scientists to recommend alternative shorter-duration rice varieties and sustainable practices like Happy Seeder technology and bio-decomposers to mitigate its negative impacts.

#### 4. Question

What was the primary issue with the Pusa-44 rice variety that contributed to environmental concerns in Northern India?

• a) High water requirement

• b) Pest susceptibility

• c) Low yield

• d) Long maturation time

Solution: d)

• The Pusa-44 rice variety, though initially introduced for its high yield, has been widely criticized for its long maturation period of over 160 days.

• This characteristic delays the harvesting of rice, which in turn postpones the sowing of wheat—a crucial winter crop in Northern India.

• Farmers, constrained by a short sowing window between the two crop cycles, often resort to burning the rice stubble as a quick and cheap way to clear fields for the next crop.

• This widespread stubble burning, particularly in Punjab and Haryana, has become a major contributor to seasonal air pollution, including the infamous smog episodes in Delhi NCR.

• While the variety has high yield potential, its environmental cost has led policymakers and agricultural scientists to recommend alternative shorter-duration rice varieties and sustainable practices like Happy Seeder technology and bio-decomposers to mitigate its negative impacts.

Solution: d)

• The Pusa-44 rice variety, though initially introduced for its high yield, has been widely criticized for its long maturation period of over 160 days.

• This characteristic delays the harvesting of rice, which in turn postpones the sowing of wheat—a crucial winter crop in Northern India.

• Farmers, constrained by a short sowing window between the two crop cycles, often resort to burning the rice stubble as a quick and cheap way to clear fields for the next crop.

• This widespread stubble burning, particularly in Punjab and Haryana, has become a major contributor to seasonal air pollution, including the infamous smog episodes in Delhi NCR.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Regarding thermobaric weapons, consider the following statements: They use the atmosphere’s oxygen to fuel the explosion, creating a powerful blast. These weapons are specifically banned under the Hague Conventions. They are most effective in open fields with large target areas. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Thermobaric weapons, also known as fuel-air explosives or vacuum bombs, disperse a cloud of fuel that mixes with atmospheric oxygen and then detonates, resulting in an intense, high-temperature explosion with a long-duration blast wave. This mechanism increases the lethality compared to conventional explosives, especially by causing secondary effects such as vacuum-induced lung trauma. Statement 2 is incorrect. These weapons are not explicitly banned under international treaties like the Hague Conventions. However, their use against civilian populations or non-combatants could be deemed illegal under broader frameworks like the Geneva Conventions and customary international humanitarian law, particularly regarding the principles of distinction and proportionality in warfare. Statement 3 is also incorrect. Thermobaric weapons are more effective in confined spaces, such as caves, tunnels, bunkers, or buildings, where the blast wave and heat are amplified by the enclosure, causing devastating effects. In open fields, the dispersal of fuel and reduced confinement diminish their effectiveness. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Thermobaric weapons, also known as fuel-air explosives or vacuum bombs, disperse a cloud of fuel that mixes with atmospheric oxygen and then detonates, resulting in an intense, high-temperature explosion with a long-duration blast wave. This mechanism increases the lethality compared to conventional explosives, especially by causing secondary effects such as vacuum-induced lung trauma. Statement 2 is incorrect. These weapons are not explicitly banned under international treaties like the Hague Conventions. However, their use against civilian populations or non-combatants could be deemed illegal under broader frameworks like the Geneva Conventions and customary international humanitarian law, particularly regarding the principles of distinction and proportionality in warfare. Statement 3 is also incorrect. Thermobaric weapons are more effective in confined spaces, such as caves, tunnels, bunkers, or buildings, where the blast wave and heat are amplified by the enclosure, causing devastating effects. In open fields, the dispersal of fuel and reduced confinement diminish their effectiveness.

#### 5. Question

Regarding thermobaric weapons, consider the following statements:

• They use the atmosphere’s oxygen to fuel the explosion, creating a powerful blast.

• These weapons are specifically banned under the Hague Conventions.

• They are most effective in open fields with large target areas.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. Thermobaric weapons, also known as fuel-air explosives or vacuum bombs, disperse a cloud of fuel that mixes with atmospheric oxygen and then detonates, resulting in an intense, high-temperature explosion with a long-duration blast wave. This mechanism increases the lethality compared to conventional explosives, especially by causing secondary effects such as vacuum-induced lung trauma.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. These weapons are not explicitly banned under international treaties like the Hague Conventions. However, their use against civilian populations or non-combatants could be deemed illegal under broader frameworks like the Geneva Conventions and customary international humanitarian law, particularly regarding the principles of distinction and proportionality in warfare.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect. Thermobaric weapons are more effective in confined spaces, such as caves, tunnels, bunkers, or buildings, where the blast wave and heat are amplified by the enclosure, causing devastating effects. In open fields, the dispersal of fuel and reduced confinement diminish their effectiveness.

Solution: b)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes “ghost gear” in the context of marine pollution? a) Sunken vessels releasing oil into the marine ecosystem b) Biodegradable fishing tools lost in deep-sea trawling c) Underwater sonar equipment disrupting marine mammals’ communication d) Discarded or lost fishing nets that continue to entangle marine life Correct Solution: d) “Ghost gear” refers to abandoned, lost, or otherwise discarded fishing gear (ALDFG) such as nets, lines, and traps. Even after being lost, these continue to trap and kill marine species—a process known as ghost fishing. According to UNEP, ghost gear contributes to the death of over 650,000 marine mammals annually, posing grave ecological and economic risks. It entangles not only commercial species like tuna but also endangered species like sea turtles, sharks, and dolphins. It also clogs coral reefs and leads to microplastic fragmentation over time. Ghost gear is a key target under the Global Ghost Gear Initiative (GGGI), and addressing it is critical for achieving SDG 14 – Life Below Water. Incorrect Solution: d) “Ghost gear” refers to abandoned, lost, or otherwise discarded fishing gear (ALDFG) such as nets, lines, and traps. Even after being lost, these continue to trap and kill marine species—a process known as ghost fishing. According to UNEP, ghost gear contributes to the death of over 650,000 marine mammals annually, posing grave ecological and economic risks. It entangles not only commercial species like tuna but also endangered species like sea turtles, sharks, and dolphins. It also clogs coral reefs and leads to microplastic fragmentation over time. Ghost gear is a key target under the Global Ghost Gear Initiative (GGGI), and addressing it is critical for achieving SDG 14 – Life Below Water.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best describes “ghost gear” in the context of marine pollution?

• a) Sunken vessels releasing oil into the marine ecosystem

• b) Biodegradable fishing tools lost in deep-sea trawling

• c) Underwater sonar equipment disrupting marine mammals’ communication

• d) Discarded or lost fishing nets that continue to entangle marine life

Solution: d)

• “Ghost gear” refers to abandoned, lost, or otherwise discarded fishing gear (ALDFG) such as nets, lines, and traps. Even after being lost, these continue to trap and kill marine species—a process known as ghost fishing.

• According to UNEP, ghost gear contributes to the death of over 650,000 marine mammals annually, posing grave ecological and economic risks.

• It entangles not only commercial species like tuna but also endangered species like sea turtles, sharks, and dolphins.

• It also clogs coral reefs and leads to microplastic fragmentation over time. Ghost gear is a key target under the Global Ghost Gear Initiative (GGGI), and addressing it is critical for achieving SDG 14 – Life Below Water.

Solution: d)

• According to UNEP, ghost gear contributes to the death of over 650,000 marine mammals annually, posing grave ecological and economic risks.

• It entangles not only commercial species like tuna but also endangered species like sea turtles, sharks, and dolphins.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about microplastic pollution: Microplastics are only generated through the breakdown of larger plastic objects. Primary microplastics include cosmetic microbeads and synthetic fibres. Microplastics are visible to the naked eye and easily filtered out of water. How many of the above statements are correct? a) only one b) only two c) all three d) none Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because microplastics are classified into two types: primary microplastics, which are intentionally manufactured at a microscopic size (like microbeads in cosmetics and fibres shed from synthetic textiles); and *secondary* microplastics, which result from the degradation of larger plastic items due to environmental exposure like sunlight or mechanical abrasion. Statement 2 is correct—primary microplastics include synthetic fibres and cosmetic microbeads, both of which are significant sources of environmental contamination. Statement 3 is incorrect as most microplastics are less than 5 mm in size, many are microscopic, and therefore invisible to the naked eye. Their small size and diverse composition make them extremely difficult to filter out of aquatic systems using conventional filtration technologies. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect because microplastics are classified into two types: primary microplastics, which are intentionally manufactured at a microscopic size (like microbeads in cosmetics and fibres shed from synthetic textiles); and *secondary* microplastics, which result from the degradation of larger plastic items due to environmental exposure like sunlight or mechanical abrasion. Statement 2 is correct—primary microplastics include synthetic fibres and cosmetic microbeads, both of which are significant sources of environmental contamination. Statement 3 is incorrect as most microplastics are less than 5 mm in size, many are microscopic, and therefore invisible to the naked eye. Their small size and diverse composition make them extremely difficult to filter out of aquatic systems using conventional filtration technologies.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about microplastic pollution:

• Microplastics are only generated through the breakdown of larger plastic objects.

• Primary microplastics include cosmetic microbeads and synthetic fibres.

• Microplastics are visible to the naked eye and easily filtered out of water.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) only one

• b) only two

• c) all three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect because microplastics are classified into two types: primary microplastics, which are intentionally manufactured at a microscopic size (like microbeads in cosmetics and fibres shed from synthetic textiles); and *secondary* microplastics, which result from the degradation of larger plastic items due to environmental exposure like sunlight or mechanical abrasion.

• Statement 2 is correct—primary microplastics include synthetic fibres and cosmetic microbeads, both of which are significant sources of environmental contamination.

• Statement 3 is incorrect as most microplastics are less than 5 mm in size, many are microscopic, and therefore invisible to the naked eye. Their small size and diverse composition make them extremely difficult to filter out of aquatic systems using conventional filtration technologies.

Solution: a)

• Statement 2 is correct—primary microplastics include synthetic fibres and cosmetic microbeads, both of which are significant sources of environmental contamination.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Bustard Recovery Program: 1. It includes both ex-situ conservation breeding and in-situ habitat management components. 2. It is implemented solely by state governments of Rajasthan and Gujarat under MoEFCC supervision. 3. The project receives financial support through CAMPA funds. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Bustard Recovery Program is one of India’s flagship grassland conservation efforts and includes ex-situ conservation breeding (e.g., Jaisalmer breeding centre for GIB) and in-situ strategies like habitat restoration and minimizing disturbance during breeding season. It is also funded by CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund), making it an example of ecological restitution using diverted forest funds. Statement 2 is incorrect—the program is centrally implemented by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) with support from MoEFCC and state forest departments of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, among others. Incorrect Solution: b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Bustard Recovery Program is one of India’s flagship grassland conservation efforts and includes ex-situ conservation breeding (e.g., Jaisalmer breeding centre for GIB) and in-situ strategies like habitat restoration and minimizing disturbance during breeding season. It is also funded by CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund), making it an example of ecological restitution using diverted forest funds. Statement 2 is incorrect—the program is centrally implemented by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) with support from MoEFCC and state forest departments of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, among others.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Bustard Recovery Program:

1.It includes both ex-situ conservation breeding and in-situ habitat management components. 2. It is implemented solely by state governments of Rajasthan and Gujarat under MoEFCC supervision. 3. The project receives financial support through CAMPA funds.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• The Bustard Recovery Program is one of India’s flagship grassland conservation efforts and includes ex-situ conservation breeding (e.g., Jaisalmer breeding centre for GIB) and in-situ strategies like habitat restoration and minimizing disturbance during breeding season.

• It is also funded by CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund), making it an example of ecological restitution using diverted forest funds.

• Statement 2 is incorrect—the program is centrally implemented by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) with support from MoEFCC and state forest departments of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Maharashtra, among others.

Solution: b)

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• It is also funded by CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund), making it an example of ecological restitution using diverted forest funds.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following are recognized impacts of marine litter? Disruption of marine food chains through ingestion and bioaccumulation Interference with shipping lanes and navigation Increased greenhouse gas emissions from ocean surface plastics Strengthening coral reef resilience through surface shading Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health. Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines. Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions. Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.” Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health. Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines. Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions. Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.”

#### 9. Question

Which of the following are recognized impacts of marine litter?

• Disruption of marine food chains through ingestion and bioaccumulation

• Interference with shipping lanes and navigation

• Increased greenhouse gas emissions from ocean surface plastics

• Strengthening coral reef resilience through surface shading

Select the correct answer using the code below:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a)

• Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health.

• Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines.

• Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Marine litter like plastic actually harms coral reefs, causing physical damage, toxic leaching, and increased disease risk, not “shading benefits.”

Solution: a)

• Statement 1: Microplastics are consumed by marine life, disrupting food chains and health.

• Statement 2: Floating debris interferes with ship navigation, increasing accident risks and damage to engines.

• Statement 3: Plastic in oceans emits methane and ethylene as it degrades under sunlight, contributing to GHG emissions.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: 1. Simlipal and Sundarbans biosphere reserves are both part of the Ramsar Convention network. 2. The Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve is part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) and is majorly marine in its landscape. 3. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans across three Indian states and was India’s first to be included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network. Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine. Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network. Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine. Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

1.Simlipal and Sundarbans biosphere reserves are both part of the Ramsar Convention network. 2. The Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve is part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) and is majorly marine in its landscape. 3. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans across three Indian states and was India’s first to be included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Sundarbans is both a Biosphere Reserve and a Ramsar site, Simlipal, though a designated Biosphere Reserve in Odisha, is not part of the Ramsar Convention, which focuses on wetlands of international importance. Therefore, both are not part of the Ramsar network.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR). It was India’s first marine biosphere reserve, featuring rich coastal and marine biodiversity such as coral reefs, seagrass meadows, and mangroves. While it includes coastal zones and islands, its dominant character is marine.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, was the first Indian site included in UNESCO’s WNBR under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2000. It is globally renowned for its montane forests and endemic species.

Solution: b)

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