UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in India: It is a statutory body established under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020. It is responsible for granting Air Operator’s Certificates but does not certify airports, as that function is managed by the Airports Authority of India (AAI). The DGCA plays a key role in representing India in the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) conducted by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The DGCA was initially an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its status was elevated to that of a statutory body through the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020. This grant of statutory power strengthens its authority to enforce safety regulations and standards in the aviation sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The DGCA’s mandate is comprehensive. Besides granting Air Operator’s Certificates to airlines, it is also responsible for the certification of airports to ensure they meet the required operational safety and efficiency standards. While the AAI manages and develops airports, the safety certification is a key regulatory function of the DGCA. Statement 3 is correct. The DGCA is the nodal agency that coordinates with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). It represents India in global aviation forums and is responsible for ensuring compliance with international standards, including undergoing the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) to benchmark its safety oversight capabilities against global best practices. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The DGCA was initially an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its status was elevated to that of a statutory body through the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020. This grant of statutory power strengthens its authority to enforce safety regulations and standards in the aviation sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The DGCA’s mandate is comprehensive. Besides granting Air Operator’s Certificates to airlines, it is also responsible for the certification of airports to ensure they meet the required operational safety and efficiency standards. While the AAI manages and develops airports, the safety certification is a key regulatory function of the DGCA. Statement 3 is correct. The DGCA is the nodal agency that coordinates with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). It represents India in global aviation forums and is responsible for ensuring compliance with international standards, including undergoing the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) to benchmark its safety oversight capabilities against global best practices.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in India:

• It is a statutory body established under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.

• It is responsible for granting Air Operator’s Certificates but does not certify airports, as that function is managed by the Airports Authority of India (AAI).

• The DGCA plays a key role in representing India in the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) conducted by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The DGCA was initially an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its status was elevated to that of a statutory body through the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020. This grant of statutory power strengthens its authority to enforce safety regulations and standards in the aviation sector.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The DGCA’s mandate is comprehensive. Besides granting Air Operator’s Certificates to airlines, it is also responsible for the certification of airports to ensure they meet the required operational safety and efficiency standards. While the AAI manages and develops airports, the safety certification is a key regulatory function of the DGCA.

Statement 3 is correct. The DGCA is the nodal agency that coordinates with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). It represents India in global aviation forums and is responsible for ensuring compliance with international standards, including undergoing the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) to benchmark its safety oversight capabilities against global best practices.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The adoption of insect-based livestock feed is considered a significant strategy to combat antimicrobial resistance (AMR) in the animal farming sector. Statement-II: Insect-derived proteins can enhance the gut microbiota of livestock, reducing the dependency on antibiotic growth promoters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. One of the most significant advantages of using insect-based livestock feed is its potential to tackle Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The overuse of antibiotics in conventional animal farming as growth promoters is a major driver of AMR. By providing a sustainable and effective alternative, insect feed helps reduce the selective pressure that leads to the development of drug-resistant microbes. Statement-II is also correct. The mechanism through which insect-based feed helps combat AMR is by improving animal health naturally. These feeds are rich in proteins and other compounds that modulate the gut microbiota in a beneficial way. A healthier gut microbiome improves nutrient absorption and strengthens the animal’s immune system, thereby reducing the need for antibiotic growth promoters to prevent diseases and enhance growth. Since Statement-II provides the scientific reason why Statement-I is true, it is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. One of the most significant advantages of using insect-based livestock feed is its potential to tackle Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The overuse of antibiotics in conventional animal farming as growth promoters is a major driver of AMR. By providing a sustainable and effective alternative, insect feed helps reduce the selective pressure that leads to the development of drug-resistant microbes. Statement-II is also correct. The mechanism through which insect-based feed helps combat AMR is by improving animal health naturally. These feeds are rich in proteins and other compounds that modulate the gut microbiota in a beneficial way. A healthier gut microbiome improves nutrient absorption and strengthens the animal’s immune system, thereby reducing the need for antibiotic growth promoters to prevent diseases and enhance growth. Since Statement-II provides the scientific reason why Statement-I is true, it is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The adoption of insect-based livestock feed is considered a significant strategy to combat antimicrobial resistance (AMR) in the animal farming sector.

Statement-II: Insect-derived proteins can enhance the gut microbiota of livestock, reducing the dependency on antibiotic growth promoters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. One of the most significant advantages of using insect-based livestock feed is its potential to tackle Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR). The overuse of antibiotics in conventional animal farming as growth promoters is a major driver of AMR. By providing a sustainable and effective alternative, insect feed helps reduce the selective pressure that leads to the development of drug-resistant microbes.

• Statement-II is also correct. The mechanism through which insect-based feed helps combat AMR is by improving animal health naturally. These feeds are rich in proteins and other compounds that modulate the gut microbiota in a beneficial way. A healthier gut microbiome improves nutrient absorption and strengthens the animal’s immune system, thereby reducing the need for antibiotic growth promoters to prevent diseases and enhance growth.

Since Statement-II provides the scientific reason why Statement-I is true, it is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Since Statement-II provides the scientific reason why Statement-I is true, it is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Match the following US military bases with the host country in West Asia: List I (Base) List II (Country) A. Al Udeid Air Base 1. Bahrain B. Camp Arifjan 2. Qatar C. Al Dhafra Air Base 3. Kuwait D. Fifth Fleet HQ 4. UAE Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 Correct Solution: C Al Udeid Air Base is located in Qatar (2). It is one of the most important US bases in the region, serving as the forward headquarters of the US Central Command (CENTCOM). Camp Arifjan is in Kuwait (3). It functions as a major logistics and administrative hub for the US Army Central (ARCENT) and supports operations in Iraq and the surrounding areas. Al Dhafra Air Base is situated in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (4). It is a critical base for US air operations, including reconnaissance and strike missions, and is shared with the UAE Air Force. D. Fifth Fleet HQ is headquartered in Bahrain (1). The US Navy’s Fifth Fleet is responsible for naval operations across the Persian Gulf, Red Sea, Arabian Sea, and parts of the Indian Ocean. Incorrect Solution: C Al Udeid Air Base is located in Qatar (2). It is one of the most important US bases in the region, serving as the forward headquarters of the US Central Command (CENTCOM). Camp Arifjan is in Kuwait (3). It functions as a major logistics and administrative hub for the US Army Central (ARCENT) and supports operations in Iraq and the surrounding areas. Al Dhafra Air Base is situated in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (4). It is a critical base for US air operations, including reconnaissance and strike missions, and is shared with the UAE Air Force. D. Fifth Fleet HQ is headquartered in Bahrain (1). The US Navy’s Fifth Fleet is responsible for naval operations across the Persian Gulf, Red Sea, Arabian Sea, and parts of the Indian Ocean.

#### 3. Question

Match the following US military bases with the host country in West Asia:

List I (Base) | List II (Country)

A. Al Udeid Air Base | 1. Bahrain

B. Camp Arifjan | 2. Qatar

C. Al Dhafra Air Base | 3. Kuwait

D. Fifth Fleet HQ | 4. UAE

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

• (b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

• (c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

• (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Solution: C

• Al Udeid Air Base is located in Qatar (2). It is one of the most important US bases in the region, serving as the forward headquarters of the US Central Command (CENTCOM).

• Camp Arifjan is in Kuwait (3). It functions as a major logistics and administrative hub for the US Army Central (ARCENT) and supports operations in Iraq and the surrounding areas.

• Al Dhafra Air Base is situated in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (4). It is a critical base for US air operations, including reconnaissance and strike missions, and is shared with the UAE Air Force.

D. Fifth Fleet HQ is headquartered in Bahrain (1). The US Navy’s Fifth Fleet is responsible for naval operations across the Persian Gulf, Red Sea, Arabian Sea, and parts of the Indian Ocean.

Solution: C

• Al Udeid Air Base is located in Qatar (2). It is one of the most important US bases in the region, serving as the forward headquarters of the US Central Command (CENTCOM).

• Camp Arifjan is in Kuwait (3). It functions as a major logistics and administrative hub for the US Army Central (ARCENT) and supports operations in Iraq and the surrounding areas.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Subarnarekha River: It is a major rain-fed, peninsular river that originates in the state of Odisha. The famous Hundru Falls is located on one of its main tributaries, the Kharkai River. It is an independent river system that flows through three states before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Subarnarekha River originates near Piska/Nagri, close to Ranchi in Jharkhand, not Odisha. While it flows through Odisha in its lower course, its origin lies on the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hundru Falls, a major landmark, is located directly on the course of the Subarnarekha River itself, not on a tributary. The waterfall is situated in Jharkhand, where the river drops from a height of 98 metres. Statement 3 is correct. The Subarnarekha is not a tributary of any larger river system like the Ganga or Mahanadi. It maintains an independent course from its origin to its mouth. It flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha before finally draining into the Bay of Bengal near Talsari in Odisha. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Subarnarekha River originates near Piska/Nagri, close to Ranchi in Jharkhand, not Odisha. While it flows through Odisha in its lower course, its origin lies on the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hundru Falls, a major landmark, is located directly on the course of the Subarnarekha River itself, not on a tributary. The waterfall is situated in Jharkhand, where the river drops from a height of 98 metres. Statement 3 is correct. The Subarnarekha is not a tributary of any larger river system like the Ganga or Mahanadi. It maintains an independent course from its origin to its mouth. It flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha before finally draining into the Bay of Bengal near Talsari in Odisha.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Subarnarekha River:

• It is a major rain-fed, peninsular river that originates in the state of Odisha.

• The famous Hundru Falls is located on one of its main tributaries, the Kharkai River.

• It is an independent river system that flows through three states before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Subarnarekha River originates near Piska/Nagri, close to Ranchi in Jharkhand, not Odisha. While it flows through Odisha in its lower course, its origin lies on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hundru Falls, a major landmark, is located directly on the course of the Subarnarekha River itself, not on a tributary. The waterfall is situated in Jharkhand, where the river drops from a height of 98 metres.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Subarnarekha is not a tributary of any larger river system like the Ganga or Mahanadi. It maintains an independent course from its origin to its mouth. It flows through the states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha before finally draining into the Bay of Bengal near Talsari in Odisha.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Estimates Committee of the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: It consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected from the Lok Sabha. A Minister can be a member of the committee, but cannot be appointed as its Chairperson. The committee’s primary function is to examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings. The recommendations made by the committee are binding on the Government of India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee and is composed of 30 members. A unique feature of this committee is that all its members are from the Lok Sabha; there is no representation from the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Minister is explicitly barred from being elected as a member of the Estimates Committee. This rule is in place to ensure the committee’s objective and unbiased scrutiny of the government’s financial proposals and expenditures. Statement 3 is incorrect. The function of examining the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings is specifically assigned to a separate committee: the Committee on Public Undertakings. The Estimates Committee’s role is to scrutinize the estimates of government ministries and departments to suggest economies. Statement 4 is incorrect. The recommendations of the Estimates Committee, like those of other parliamentary committees, are advisory in nature. They are not binding on the government, although they hold significant persuasive value and the government is required to submit an Action Taken Report on them. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee and is composed of 30 members. A unique feature of this committee is that all its members are from the Lok Sabha; there is no representation from the Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Minister is explicitly barred from being elected as a member of the Estimates Committee. This rule is in place to ensure the committee’s objective and unbiased scrutiny of the government’s financial proposals and expenditures. Statement 3 is incorrect. The function of examining the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings is specifically assigned to a separate committee: the Committee on Public Undertakings. The Estimates Committee’s role is to scrutinize the estimates of government ministries and departments to suggest economies. Statement 4 is incorrect. The recommendations of the Estimates Committee, like those of other parliamentary committees, are advisory in nature. They are not binding on the government, although they hold significant persuasive value and the government is required to submit an Action Taken Report on them.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Estimates Committee of the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

• It consists of 30 members, all of whom are elected from the Lok Sabha.

• A Minister can be a member of the committee, but cannot be appointed as its Chairperson.

• The committee’s primary function is to examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings.

• The recommendations made by the committee are binding on the Government of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee and is composed of 30 members. A unique feature of this committee is that all its members are from the Lok Sabha; there is no representation from the Rajya Sabha.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A Minister is explicitly barred from being elected as a member of the Estimates Committee. This rule is in place to ensure the committee’s objective and unbiased scrutiny of the government’s financial proposals and expenditures.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The function of examining the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings is specifically assigned to a separate committee: the Committee on Public Undertakings. The Estimates Committee’s role is to scrutinize the estimates of government ministries and departments to suggest economies.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The recommendations of the Estimates Committee, like those of other parliamentary committees, are advisory in nature. They are not binding on the government, although they hold significant persuasive value and the government is required to submit an Action Taken Report on them.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the B-2 Spirit Stealth Bomber: It was developed by the US to function primarily as a strategic reconnaissance and surveillance aircraft. Its stealth capability is derived from a design that gives it a radar cross-section as small as a large insect. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The B-2 Spirit is an advanced strategic stealth bomber, not primarily a reconnaissance aircraft. Its main role is to penetrate dense anti-aircraft defences to deliver both conventional and nuclear weapons on high-value targets. While it may have surveillance capabilities, its core function is offensive. Statement 2 is incorrect. The radar cross-section is as small as a bird, not an insect. In the context of radar technology, the difference between the radar signature of a bird and an insect is significant. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The B-2 Spirit is an advanced strategic stealth bomber, not primarily a reconnaissance aircraft. Its main role is to penetrate dense anti-aircraft defences to deliver both conventional and nuclear weapons on high-value targets. While it may have surveillance capabilities, its core function is offensive. Statement 2 is incorrect. The radar cross-section is as small as a bird, not an insect. In the context of radar technology, the difference between the radar signature of a bird and an insect is significant.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the B-2 Spirit Stealth Bomber:

• It was developed by the US to function primarily as a strategic reconnaissance and surveillance aircraft.

• Its stealth capability is derived from a design that gives it a radar cross-section as small as a large insect.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The B-2 Spirit is an advanced strategic stealth bomber, not primarily a reconnaissance aircraft. Its main role is to penetrate dense anti-aircraft defences to deliver both conventional and nuclear weapons on high-value targets. While it may have surveillance capabilities, its core function is offensive.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The radar cross-section is as small as a bird, not an insect. In the context of radar technology, the difference between the radar signature of a bird and an insect is significant.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Midnight Hammer’. It was a joint military operation conducted by the US and its NATO allies. The primary objective was to degrade Iran’s naval capabilities in the Persian Gulf. The operation involved the use of B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk cruise missiles. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The operation was launched by the US Department of Defense, not a joint operation with NATO allies. Statement 2 is incorrect. The objective was to severely degrade Iran’s nuclear weapons infrastructure, targeting key nuclear facilities like Fordow and Natanz. It was not aimed at Iran’s naval capabilities. Statement 3 is correct. The weapons used include B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk Land Attack Cruise Missiles launched from a submarine. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The operation was launched by the US Department of Defense, not a joint operation with NATO allies. Statement 2 is incorrect. The objective was to severely degrade Iran’s nuclear weapons infrastructure, targeting key nuclear facilities like Fordow and Natanz. It was not aimed at Iran’s naval capabilities. Statement 3 is correct. The weapons used include B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk Land Attack Cruise Missiles launched from a submarine.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Operation Midnight Hammer’.

• It was a joint military operation conducted by the US and its NATO allies.

• The primary objective was to degrade Iran’s naval capabilities in the Persian Gulf.

• The operation involved the use of B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk cruise missiles.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The operation was launched by the US Department of Defense, not a joint operation with NATO allies.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The objective was to severely degrade Iran’s nuclear weapons infrastructure, targeting key nuclear facilities like Fordow and Natanz. It was not aimed at Iran’s naval capabilities.

Statement 3 is correct. The weapons used include B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk Land Attack Cruise Missiles launched from a submarine.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The operation was launched by the US Department of Defense, not a joint operation with NATO allies.

Statement 3 is correct. The weapons used include B-2 Spirit stealth bombers and Tomahawk Land Attack Cruise Missiles launched from a submarine.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With regard to the US Travel Advisory system and the recent advisory for India, consider the following statements: A “Level 2” advisory means that US citizens are advised not to travel to the country under any circumstances. The advisory restricts travel for US citizens across the entire territory of India without any exceptions. The advisory warns against specific threats such as violent crime, terrorism, and ethnic violence in certain regions. The use of satellite phones by travellers is encouraged by the advisory for safety in remote areas. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A Level 2 advisory means “Exercise Increased Caution”. The “Do Not Travel” recommendation corresponds to Level 4, which is the highest alert level. Statement 2 is incorrect. The advisory is not a blanket restriction. It applies a general Level 2 caution for the country but specifies higher risk levels for certain areas. For instance, it advises “Do Not Travel” (Level 4) to Jammu & Kashmir and areas near the India-Pakistan border, and “Reconsider Travel” (Level 3) to Manipur. Statement 3 is correct. The advisory explicitly mentions the reasons for caution, which include rising violent crime, the potential for terror attacks in crowded spaces, and ongoing ethnic violence in specific states like Manipur. Statement 4 is incorrect. The advisory explicitly warns that satellite phones are banned in India. It states that violating this rule can lead to significant penalties, including fines or imprisonment. It does not encourage their use. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A Level 2 advisory means “Exercise Increased Caution”. The “Do Not Travel” recommendation corresponds to Level 4, which is the highest alert level. Statement 2 is incorrect. The advisory is not a blanket restriction. It applies a general Level 2 caution for the country but specifies higher risk levels for certain areas. For instance, it advises “Do Not Travel” (Level 4) to Jammu & Kashmir and areas near the India-Pakistan border, and “Reconsider Travel” (Level 3) to Manipur. Statement 3 is correct. The advisory explicitly mentions the reasons for caution, which include rising violent crime, the potential for terror attacks in crowded spaces, and ongoing ethnic violence in specific states like Manipur. Statement 4 is incorrect. The advisory explicitly warns that satellite phones are banned in India. It states that violating this rule can lead to significant penalties, including fines or imprisonment. It does not encourage their use.

#### 8. Question

With regard to the US Travel Advisory system and the recent advisory for India, consider the following statements:

• A “Level 2” advisory means that US citizens are advised not to travel to the country under any circumstances.

• The advisory restricts travel for US citizens across the entire territory of India without any exceptions.

• The advisory warns against specific threats such as violent crime, terrorism, and ethnic violence in certain regions.

• The use of satellite phones by travellers is encouraged by the advisory for safety in remote areas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A Level 2 advisory means “Exercise Increased Caution”. The “Do Not Travel” recommendation corresponds to Level 4, which is the highest alert level.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The advisory is not a blanket restriction. It applies a general Level 2 caution for the country but specifies higher risk levels for certain areas. For instance, it advises “Do Not Travel” (Level 4) to Jammu & Kashmir and areas near the India-Pakistan border, and “Reconsider Travel” (Level 3) to Manipur.

• Statement 3 is correct. The advisory explicitly mentions the reasons for caution, which include rising violent crime, the potential for terror attacks in crowded spaces, and ongoing ethnic violence in specific states like Manipur.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The advisory explicitly warns that satellite phones are banned in India. It states that violating this rule can lead to significant penalties, including fines or imprisonment. It does not encourage their use.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. A Level 2 advisory means “Exercise Increased Caution”. The “Do Not Travel” recommendation corresponds to Level 4, which is the highest alert level.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most significant environmental advantage of scaling up insect-based livestock feed? (a) It increases the biodiversity of insect species in agricultural ecosystems. (b) It creates a new market for genetically modified insects, promoting biotechnological innovation. (c) It eliminates the need for water in the livestock farming process. (d) It leads to a significant reduction in greenhouse gas emissions compared to traditional feed sources like soy or fishmeal. Correct Solution: D Option (d) is the most significant advantage. The production of conventional livestock feed, particularly soy and fishmeal, is resource-intensive and has a large environmental footprint. Soy cultivation is linked to deforestation, while fishing for fishmeal contributes to overfishing. Insect farming, by contrast, requires far less land and water and generates significantly lower greenhouse gas emissions. This makes it a key tool for climate-smart agriculture and reducing the overall environmental impact of animal farming. Incorrect Solution: D Option (d) is the most significant advantage. The production of conventional livestock feed, particularly soy and fishmeal, is resource-intensive and has a large environmental footprint. Soy cultivation is linked to deforestation, while fishing for fishmeal contributes to overfishing. Insect farming, by contrast, requires far less land and water and generates significantly lower greenhouse gas emissions. This makes it a key tool for climate-smart agriculture and reducing the overall environmental impact of animal farming.

#### 9. Question

Which of the following is the most significant environmental advantage of scaling up insect-based livestock feed?

• (a) It increases the biodiversity of insect species in agricultural ecosystems.

• (b) It creates a new market for genetically modified insects, promoting biotechnological innovation.

• (c) It eliminates the need for water in the livestock farming process.

• (d) It leads to a significant reduction in greenhouse gas emissions compared to traditional feed sources like soy or fishmeal.

Solution: D

Option (d) is the most significant advantage. The production of conventional livestock feed, particularly soy and fishmeal, is resource-intensive and has a large environmental footprint. Soy cultivation is linked to deforestation, while fishing for fishmeal contributes to overfishing. Insect farming, by contrast, requires far less land and water and generates significantly lower greenhouse gas emissions. This makes it a key tool for climate-smart agriculture and reducing the overall environmental impact of animal farming.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The establishment of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) as a statutory body was a crucial step towards strengthening aviation safety oversight in India. Statement II: As a statutory body, the DGCA has enhanced powers to frame and enforce regulations, conduct audits, and impose penalties for non-compliance. Statement III: Prior to becoming a statutory body, the DGCA operated as an autonomous organization fully independent of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Statements II and III are correct, and both explain Statement I. (b) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I. (c) Only Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I. (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct. Correct Solution: B Statement I is correct. Giving the DGCA statutory status via the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020, was a major reform. It elevated its position from a mere government department to a body with a distinct legal identity and authority, which is critical for enforcing stringent safety oversight. Statement II is correct and directly explains Statement I. The significance of becoming a statutory body lies in the powers it confers. This legal backing provides the DGCA with the necessary authority to create binding regulations, conduct thorough safety and security audits, and take punitive action (like imposing fines or revoking licenses) against entities that violate safety norms. This enhanced power is precisely why its establishment as a statutory body strengthens safety oversight. Statement III is incorrect. Before 2020, the DGCA was not an autonomous or independent organization. It was an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, meaning it functioned directly under the administrative control of the ministry. The move to a statutory body gave it more functional autonomy, but it was not fully independent before. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I is correct. Giving the DGCA statutory status via the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020, was a major reform. It elevated its position from a mere government department to a body with a distinct legal identity and authority, which is critical for enforcing stringent safety oversight. Statement II is correct and directly explains Statement I. The significance of becoming a statutory body lies in the powers it confers. This legal backing provides the DGCA with the necessary authority to create binding regulations, conduct thorough safety and security audits, and take punitive action (like imposing fines or revoking licenses) against entities that violate safety norms. This enhanced power is precisely why its establishment as a statutory body strengthens safety oversight. Statement III is incorrect. Before 2020, the DGCA was not an autonomous or independent organization. It was an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, meaning it functioned directly under the administrative control of the ministry. The move to a statutory body gave it more functional autonomy, but it was not fully independent before.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The establishment of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) as a statutory body was a crucial step towards strengthening aviation safety oversight in India.

Statement II: As a statutory body, the DGCA has enhanced powers to frame and enforce regulations, conduct audits, and impose penalties for non-compliance.

Statement III: Prior to becoming a statutory body, the DGCA operated as an autonomous organization fully independent of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Statements II and III are correct, and both explain Statement I.

• (b) Only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.

• (c) Only Statement III is correct and it explains Statement I.

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Solution: B

• Statement I is correct. Giving the DGCA statutory status via the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020, was a major reform. It elevated its position from a mere government department to a body with a distinct legal identity and authority, which is critical for enforcing stringent safety oversight.

• Statement II is correct and directly explains Statement I. The significance of becoming a statutory body lies in the powers it confers. This legal backing provides the DGCA with the necessary authority to create binding regulations, conduct thorough safety and security audits, and take punitive action (like imposing fines or revoking licenses) against entities that violate safety norms. This enhanced power is precisely why its establishment as a statutory body strengthens safety oversight.

• Statement III is incorrect. Before 2020, the DGCA was not an autonomous or independent organization. It was an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation, meaning it functioned directly under the administrative control of the ministry. The move to a statutory body gave it more functional autonomy, but it was not fully independent before.

Solution: B

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