UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The capitals of Ashokan pillars, such as the one at Sarnath, exhibit distinct artistic influences from the Persian-Achaemenid empire. Statement-II: Emperor Ashoka’s primary objective in his interactions with the Achaemenid empire was the adoption of their imperial architectural styles for the propagation of Dhamma. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. There is a general consensus among art historians that certain features of the Ashokan pillars, particularly the highly polished finish (Mauryan polish) and the form of the animal capitals carved in the round, show stylistic similarities with Persian-Achaemenid art. This suggests a degree of cultural and artistic interaction. Statement-II is incorrect. While the artistic influence is noted, there is no historical evidence to suggest that Ashoka’s main purpose for engaging with the Achaemenids was to borrow their architectural styles. The artistic elements were not merely copied but were reimagined and adapted within a uniquely Indian and Buddhist context. The core purpose of the pillars was the dissemination of Ashoka’s concept of Dhamma (ethical conduct and social welfare), an indigenous moral and political philosophy. The artistic style was a medium, not the primary objective of any political or cultural exchange. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. There is a general consensus among art historians that certain features of the Ashokan pillars, particularly the highly polished finish (Mauryan polish) and the form of the animal capitals carved in the round, show stylistic similarities with Persian-Achaemenid art. This suggests a degree of cultural and artistic interaction. Statement-II is incorrect. While the artistic influence is noted, there is no historical evidence to suggest that Ashoka’s main purpose for engaging with the Achaemenids was to borrow their architectural styles. The artistic elements were not merely copied but were reimagined and adapted within a uniquely Indian and Buddhist context. The core purpose of the pillars was the dissemination of Ashoka’s concept of Dhamma (ethical conduct and social welfare), an indigenous moral and political philosophy. The artistic style was a medium, not the primary objective of any political or cultural exchange.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The capitals of Ashokan pillars, such as the one at Sarnath, exhibit distinct artistic influences from the Persian-Achaemenid empire.

Statement-II: Emperor Ashoka’s primary objective in his interactions with the Achaemenid empire was the adoption of their imperial architectural styles for the propagation of Dhamma.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. There is a general consensus among art historians that certain features of the Ashokan pillars, particularly the highly polished finish (Mauryan polish) and the form of the animal capitals carved in the round, show stylistic similarities with Persian-Achaemenid art. This suggests a degree of cultural and artistic interaction.

Statement-II is incorrect. While the artistic influence is noted, there is no historical evidence to suggest that Ashoka’s main purpose for engaging with the Achaemenids was to borrow their architectural styles. The artistic elements were not merely copied but were reimagined and adapted within a uniquely Indian and Buddhist context. The core purpose of the pillars was the dissemination of Ashoka’s concept of Dhamma (ethical conduct and social welfare), an indigenous moral and political philosophy. The artistic style was a medium, not the primary objective of any political or cultural exchange.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the history of radio broadcasting in India: Formal radio broadcasting in India was initiated by the British government through the Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS). All India Radio (AIR) was established post-independence and was formally named ‘Akashvani’ in 1947. The External Services Division of AIR was launched after 1947 to connect with the Indian diaspora. Vividh Bharati was launched to focus on popular entertainment and film music, diversifying AIR’s content. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Formal broadcasting was started on July 23, 1927, by a private entity, the Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC). The British government, through the Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS), only took over in 1930 after the IBC went into liquidation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS) was renamed All India Radio (AIR) in 1936, well before independence. The name ‘Akashvani’ was formally adopted for the national broadcaster much later, in 1956. Statement 3 is incorrect. The External Services Division began broadcasting in 1939, during the British colonial era. Its initial purpose was to counter Axis propaganda in Pashto and Afghan languages during the onset of World War II, not to connect with the diaspora post-independence. Statement 4 is correct. Vividh Bharati was launched in 1957 as a dedicated service for popular entertainment, featuring film music, comedies, and other light programs, which was a significant diversification from AIR’s more formal news and classical content. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Formal broadcasting was started on July 23, 1927, by a private entity, the Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC). The British government, through the Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS), only took over in 1930 after the IBC went into liquidation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS) was renamed All India Radio (AIR) in 1936, well before independence. The name ‘Akashvani’ was formally adopted for the national broadcaster much later, in 1956. Statement 3 is incorrect. The External Services Division began broadcasting in 1939, during the British colonial era. Its initial purpose was to counter Axis propaganda in Pashto and Afghan languages during the onset of World War II, not to connect with the diaspora post-independence. Statement 4 is correct. Vividh Bharati was launched in 1957 as a dedicated service for popular entertainment, featuring film music, comedies, and other light programs, which was a significant diversification from AIR’s more formal news and classical content.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the history of radio broadcasting in India:

• Formal radio broadcasting in India was initiated by the British government through the Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS).

• All India Radio (AIR) was established post-independence and was formally named ‘Akashvani’ in 1947.

• The External Services Division of AIR was launched after 1947 to connect with the Indian diaspora.

• Vividh Bharati was launched to focus on popular entertainment and film music, diversifying AIR’s content.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Formal broadcasting was started on July 23, 1927, by a private entity, the Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC). The British government, through the Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS), only took over in 1930 after the IBC went into liquidation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian State Broadcasting Service (ISBS) was renamed All India Radio (AIR) in 1936, well before independence. The name ‘Akashvani’ was formally adopted for the national broadcaster much later, in 1956.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The External Services Division began broadcasting in 1939, during the British colonial era. Its initial purpose was to counter Axis propaganda in Pashto and Afghan languages during the onset of World War II, not to connect with the diaspora post-independence.

Statement 4 is correct. Vividh Bharati was launched in 1957 as a dedicated service for popular entertainment, featuring film music, comedies, and other light programs, which was a significant diversification from AIR’s more formal news and classical content.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the MiG-21 aircraft: The MiG-21 was jointly developed by the Soviet Union’s Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau and India’s Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL). The aircraft was primarily used in a defensive, air-to-air combat role and was not equipped for offensive bombing missions. The entire fleet of MiG-21s is being replaced by the French-made Rafale jets as part of the Indian Air Force’s modernization drive. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was designed and developed exclusively by the Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau in the Soviet Union. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) was involved later, but only for licensed production of the aircraft in India, not its joint development. Statement 2 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was a versatile, multi-role fighter. While it excelled as a supersonic interceptor, it was also capable of ground-attack missions and was equipped to carry not only air-to-air missiles and cannons but also bombs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MiG-21 squadrons are being phased out and are primarily being replaced by the indigenously developed Tejas Mk-1A Light Combat Aircraft (LCA). While the Rafale jets are a crucial part of the IAF’s modernization, they are not the designated replace Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was designed and developed exclusively by the Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau in the Soviet Union. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) was involved later, but only for licensed production of the aircraft in India, not its joint development. Statement 2 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was a versatile, multi-role fighter. While it excelled as a supersonic interceptor, it was also capable of ground-attack missions and was equipped to carry not only air-to-air missiles and cannons but also bombs. Statement 3 is incorrect. The MiG-21 squadrons are being phased out and are primarily being replaced by the indigenously developed Tejas Mk-1A Light Combat Aircraft (LCA). While the Rafale jets are a crucial part of the IAF’s modernization, they are not the designated replace

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the MiG-21 aircraft:

• The MiG-21 was jointly developed by the Soviet Union’s Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau and India’s Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL).

• The aircraft was primarily used in a defensive, air-to-air combat role and was not equipped for offensive bombing missions.

• The entire fleet of MiG-21s is being replaced by the French-made Rafale jets as part of the Indian Air Force’s modernization drive.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was designed and developed exclusively by the Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau in the Soviet Union. Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) was involved later, but only for licensed production of the aircraft in India, not its joint development.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The MiG-21 was a versatile, multi-role fighter. While it excelled as a supersonic interceptor, it was also capable of ground-attack missions and was equipped to carry not only air-to-air missiles and cannons but also bombs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The MiG-21 squadrons are being phased out and are primarily being replaced by the indigenously developed Tejas Mk-1A Light Combat Aircraft (LCA). While the Rafale jets are a crucial part of the IAF’s modernization, they are not the designated replace

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the electoral process for the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements: The electoral college comprises the elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies. The election is conducted by the Election Commission of India based on the principle of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV). As per Article 68(2) of the Constitution, a vacancy in the office of the Vice-President due to resignation must be filled within six months from the date of the vacancy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The electoral college for the Vice-President, as defined in Article 66(1), consists of members (both elected and nominated) of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the Vice-Presidential election, unlike in the Presidential election. Statement 2 is correct. The election for the Vice-President is conducted by the Election Commission of India using the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), and the voting is by secret ballot. This ensures that the elected candidate has a broad base of support from the members of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 68(2) of the Constitution states that an election to fill a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a fixed deadline of six months, which is a provision applicable only to the office of the President under Article 62(2). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The electoral college for the Vice-President, as defined in Article 66(1), consists of members (both elected and nominated) of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the Vice-Presidential election, unlike in the Presidential election. Statement 2 is correct. The election for the Vice-President is conducted by the Election Commission of India using the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), and the voting is by secret ballot. This ensures that the elected candidate has a broad base of support from the members of Parliament. Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 68(2) of the Constitution states that an election to fill a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a fixed deadline of six months, which is a provision applicable only to the office of the President under Article 62(2).

#### 4. Question

With reference to the electoral process for the Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:

• The electoral college comprises the elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies.

• The election is conducted by the Election Commission of India based on the principle of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV).

• As per Article 68(2) of the Constitution, a vacancy in the office of the Vice-President due to resignation must be filled within six months from the date of the vacancy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The electoral college for the Vice-President, as defined in Article 66(1), consists of members (both elected and nominated) of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the Vice-Presidential election, unlike in the Presidential election.

• Statement 2 is correct. The election for the Vice-President is conducted by the Election Commission of India using the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV), and the voting is by secret ballot. This ensures that the elected candidate has a broad base of support from the members of Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 68(2) of the Constitution states that an election to fill a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a fixed deadline of six months, which is a provision applicable only to the office of the President under Article 62(2).

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Karenia mikimotoi blooms. Statement-I: Algal blooms caused by Karenia mikimotoi can lead to massive fish kills even though the dinoflagellate does not produce toxins that are significantly harmful to humans upon ingestion. Statement-II: Karenia mikimotoi blooms create severe hypoxic or anoxic conditions by depleting dissolved oxygen during their decomposition, and its toxins directly impair the gill function in fish and other marine fauna. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I correctly points out a key characteristic of Karenia mikimotoi blooms: they cause widespread mortality in marine life but are not associated with human illnesses like neurotoxic shellfish poisoning, which is caused by its relative, Karenia brevis. Statement-II provides a comprehensive explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement-I. The lethality of these blooms stems from a dual mechanism. First, as the massive bloom of algae dies and decomposes, the bacterial action consumes vast amounts of dissolved oxygen, creating hypoxic (low oxygen) or anoxic (no oxygen) zones that suffocate marine organisms. Second, K. mikimotoi releases ichthyotoxins (fish-killing toxins) and reactive oxygen species that specifically damage the gills of fish, impairing their ability to respire even before oxygen levels plummet. Both mechanisms explained in Statement-II are the direct causes of the massive fish kills mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I correctly points out a key characteristic of Karenia mikimotoi blooms: they cause widespread mortality in marine life but are not associated with human illnesses like neurotoxic shellfish poisoning, which is caused by its relative, Karenia brevis. Statement-II provides a comprehensive explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement-I. The lethality of these blooms stems from a dual mechanism. First, as the massive bloom of algae dies and decomposes, the bacterial action consumes vast amounts of dissolved oxygen, creating hypoxic (low oxygen) or anoxic (no oxygen) zones that suffocate marine organisms. Second, K. mikimotoi releases ichthyotoxins (fish-killing toxins) and reactive oxygen species that specifically damage the gills of fish, impairing their ability to respire even before oxygen levels plummet. Both mechanisms explained in Statement-II are the direct causes of the massive fish kills mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Karenia mikimotoi blooms.

Statement-I: Algal blooms caused by Karenia mikimotoi can lead to massive fish kills even though the dinoflagellate does not produce toxins that are significantly harmful to humans upon ingestion. Statement-II: Karenia mikimotoi blooms create severe hypoxic or anoxic conditions by depleting dissolved oxygen during their decomposition, and its toxins directly impair the gill function in fish and other marine fauna.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I correctly points out a key characteristic of Karenia mikimotoi blooms: they cause widespread mortality in marine life but are not associated with human illnesses like neurotoxic shellfish poisoning, which is caused by its relative, Karenia brevis.

• Statement-II provides a comprehensive explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement-I. The lethality of these blooms stems from a dual mechanism.

• First, as the massive bloom of algae dies and decomposes, the bacterial action consumes vast amounts of dissolved oxygen, creating hypoxic (low oxygen) or anoxic (no oxygen) zones that suffocate marine organisms.

• Second, K. mikimotoi releases ichthyotoxins (fish-killing toxins) and reactive oxygen species that specifically damage the gills of fish, impairing their ability to respire even before oxygen levels plummet.

• Both mechanisms explained in Statement-II are the direct causes of the massive fish kills mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides a comprehensive explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement-I. The lethality of these blooms stems from a dual mechanism.

• Both mechanisms explained in Statement-II are the direct causes of the massive fish kills mentioned in Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO): UNESCO was founded in the immediate aftermath of World War I to promote international cooperation in education, science, and culture. One of UNESCO’s key mandates is the safeguarding of both tangible cultural heritage, like World Heritage Sites, and intangible heritage through specific conventions. The organization’s scope includes setting global ethical standards for emerging fields like Artificial Intelligence and promoting freedom of expression. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. UNESCO’s constitution was adopted in London on November 16, 1945, and came into force in 1946. It was born out of the experience of World War II, not World War I, with the aim of building “the defenses of peace in the minds of men.” Statement 2 is correct. UNESCO is renowned for its work in preserving global heritage. It administers the World Heritage Convention (1972) for tangible sites (both cultural and natural) and the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003) for traditions, performing arts, and traditional knowledge. Statement 3 is correct. UNESCO’s role has evolved to address contemporary challenges. It is actively involved in global dialogue and standard-setting on the ethics of science and technology, including its landmark Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence (2021). Furthermore, advocating for freedom of expression and safety of journalists is a central part of its communication and information mandate. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. UNESCO’s constitution was adopted in London on November 16, 1945, and came into force in 1946. It was born out of the experience of World War II, not World War I, with the aim of building “the defenses of peace in the minds of men.” Statement 2 is correct. UNESCO is renowned for its work in preserving global heritage. It administers the World Heritage Convention (1972) for tangible sites (both cultural and natural) and the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003) for traditions, performing arts, and traditional knowledge. Statement 3 is correct. UNESCO’s role has evolved to address contemporary challenges. It is actively involved in global dialogue and standard-setting on the ethics of science and technology, including its landmark Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence (2021). Furthermore, advocating for freedom of expression and safety of journalists is a central part of its communication and information mandate.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO):

• UNESCO was founded in the immediate aftermath of World War I to promote international cooperation in education, science, and culture.

• One of UNESCO’s key mandates is the safeguarding of both tangible cultural heritage, like World Heritage Sites, and intangible heritage through specific conventions.

• The organization’s scope includes setting global ethical standards for emerging fields like Artificial Intelligence and promoting freedom of expression.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. UNESCO’s constitution was adopted in London on November 16, 1945, and came into force in 1946. It was born out of the experience of World War II, not World War I, with the aim of building “the defenses of peace in the minds of men.”

• Statement 2 is correct. UNESCO is renowned for its work in preserving global heritage. It administers the World Heritage Convention (1972) for tangible sites (both cultural and natural) and the Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage (2003) for traditions, performing arts, and traditional knowledge.

• Statement 3 is correct. UNESCO’s role has evolved to address contemporary challenges. It is actively involved in global dialogue and standard-setting on the ethics of science and technology, including its landmark Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence (2021). Furthermore, advocating for freedom of expression and safety of journalists is a central part of its communication and information mandate.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the geography of South Australia, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) It is the driest state in Australia, with its entire southern coastline bordering the Tasman Sea. (b) The Murray River is the state's most significant perennial river, and its coastal regions predominantly feature a Mediterranean climate. (c) The state's highest point, Mount Woodroffe, and its lowest point, Lake Eyre, are both located within the Flinders Ranges. (d) The state is geographically isolated, sharing land borders only with Western Australia and Victoria. Correct Solution: B South Australia is described as the driest state on the driest continent. Its most significant and only major perennial river system is the Murray River, which flows to its end in the state. The coastal areas, including around the capital Adelaide, are known for their Mediterranean climate, characterized by warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters. The interior of the state is largely arid. Incorrect Solution: B South Australia is described as the driest state on the driest continent. Its most significant and only major perennial river system is the Murray River, which flows to its end in the state. The coastal areas, including around the capital Adelaide, are known for their Mediterranean climate, characterized by warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters. The interior of the state is largely arid.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the geography of South Australia, which one of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It is the driest state in Australia, with its entire southern coastline bordering the Tasman Sea.

• (b) The Murray River is the state's most significant perennial river, and its coastal regions predominantly feature a Mediterranean climate.

• (c) The state's highest point, Mount Woodroffe, and its lowest point, Lake Eyre, are both located within the Flinders Ranges.

• (d) The state is geographically isolated, sharing land borders only with Western Australia and Victoria.

Solution: B

South Australia is described as the driest state on the driest continent. Its most significant and only major perennial river system is the Murray River, which flows to its end in the state. The coastal areas, including around the capital Adelaide, are known for their Mediterranean climate, characterized by warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters. The interior of the state is largely arid.

Solution: B

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the scientific approach used to create the fungus-resistant pineapple at the Bose Institute? (a) Traditional cross-breeding of a wild, resistant pineapple variety with a commercial variety. (b) Silencing a native pineapple gene that makes the plant susceptible to fungal attacks. (c) Introducing a resistance gene from a different fungus-fighting organism into the pineapple's genome. (d) Enhancing the expression of an existing, inherent pineapple gene to boost its natural defence system. Correct Solution: D The core of this scientific achievement lies in genetic engineering, but of a specific kind. The researchers did not introduce a foreign gene from another species (as in many GMOs) or silence an existing gene. Instead, they identified an inherent (native) gene in the pineapple, AcSERK3, which is part of the plant’s natural defence pathway. By using Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, they “overexpressed” this gene, meaning they amplified its activity. This overexpression boosts the plant’s own defence mechanisms, making it significantly more resistant to the Fusarium fungus. This approach leverages and enhances the plant’s own genetic toolkit rather than introducing external elements or disabling existing ones. Incorrect Solution: D The core of this scientific achievement lies in genetic engineering, but of a specific kind. The researchers did not introduce a foreign gene from another species (as in many GMOs) or silence an existing gene. Instead, they identified an inherent (native) gene in the pineapple, AcSERK3, which is part of the plant’s natural defence pathway. By using Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, they “overexpressed” this gene, meaning they amplified its activity. This overexpression boosts the plant’s own defence mechanisms, making it significantly more resistant to the Fusarium fungus. This approach leverages and enhances the plant’s own genetic toolkit rather than introducing external elements or disabling existing ones.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following best describes the scientific approach used to create the fungus-resistant pineapple at the Bose Institute?

• (a) Traditional cross-breeding of a wild, resistant pineapple variety with a commercial variety.

• (b) Silencing a native pineapple gene that makes the plant susceptible to fungal attacks.

• (c) Introducing a resistance gene from a different fungus-fighting organism into the pineapple's genome.

• (d) Enhancing the expression of an existing, inherent pineapple gene to boost its natural defence system.

Solution: D

The core of this scientific achievement lies in genetic engineering, but of a specific kind. The researchers did not introduce a foreign gene from another species (as in many GMOs) or silence an existing gene. Instead, they identified an inherent (native) gene in the pineapple, AcSERK3, which is part of the plant’s natural defence pathway. By using Agrobacterium-mediated transformation, they “overexpressed” this gene, meaning they amplified its activity. This overexpression boosts the plant’s own defence mechanisms, making it significantly more resistant to the Fusarium fungus. This approach leverages and enhances the plant’s own genetic toolkit rather than introducing external elements or disabling existing ones.

Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points A key implication of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducting a Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction is: (a) It offers banks a lower return on their surplus funds compared to the fixed reverse repo rate. (b) It leads to an easing of liquidity in the money market, causing short-term rates to fall. (c) It can lead to a rise in short-term bond yields as it absorbs surplus liquidity from the system. (d) It permanently reduces the funds available with banks for lending and investment. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. VRRR auctions are typically conducted when the RBI wants to offer banks a higher return than the fixed reverse repo rate to encourage them to park their surplus funds with the central bank for a longer tenor. The rate is market-discovered and generally higher. Option (b) is incorrect. VRRR is a liquidity absorption By taking surplus cash out of the banking system, it leads to tighter liquidity, not easier. This tightening effect causes short-term interest rates, like the call money rate, to rise, not fall. Option (c) is correct. When the RBI absorbs a significant amount of liquidity through VRRR auctions, the availability of short-term funds in the market decreases. This scarcity of funds pushes up short-term interest rates. Consequently, the yields on short-term bonds and commercial papers tend to rise, making borrowing costlier for the government and corporates in the short term. Option (d) is incorrect. The VRRR auction temporarily locks funds for a specified period (e.g., 7 or 14 days). It does not permanently reduce the funds. Once the tenor of the VRRR ends, the liquidity returns to the banking system. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. VRRR auctions are typically conducted when the RBI wants to offer banks a higher return than the fixed reverse repo rate to encourage them to park their surplus funds with the central bank for a longer tenor. The rate is market-discovered and generally higher. Option (b) is incorrect. VRRR is a liquidity absorption By taking surplus cash out of the banking system, it leads to tighter liquidity, not easier. This tightening effect causes short-term interest rates, like the call money rate, to rise, not fall. Option (c) is correct. When the RBI absorbs a significant amount of liquidity through VRRR auctions, the availability of short-term funds in the market decreases. This scarcity of funds pushes up short-term interest rates. Consequently, the yields on short-term bonds and commercial papers tend to rise, making borrowing costlier for the government and corporates in the short term. Option (d) is incorrect. The VRRR auction temporarily locks funds for a specified period (e.g., 7 or 14 days). It does not permanently reduce the funds. Once the tenor of the VRRR ends, the liquidity returns to the banking system.

#### 9. Question

A key implication of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducting a Variable Rate Reverse Repo (VRRR) auction is:

• (a) It offers banks a lower return on their surplus funds compared to the fixed reverse repo rate.

• (b) It leads to an easing of liquidity in the money market, causing short-term rates to fall.

• (c) It can lead to a rise in short-term bond yields as it absorbs surplus liquidity from the system.

• (d) It permanently reduces the funds available with banks for lending and investment.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. VRRR auctions are typically conducted when the RBI wants to offer banks a higher return than the fixed reverse repo rate to encourage them to park their surplus funds with the central bank for a longer tenor. The rate is market-discovered and generally higher.

• Option (b) is incorrect. VRRR is a liquidity absorption By taking surplus cash out of the banking system, it leads to tighter liquidity, not easier. This tightening effect causes short-term interest rates, like the call money rate, to rise, not fall.

• Option (c) is correct. When the RBI absorbs a significant amount of liquidity through VRRR auctions, the availability of short-term funds in the market decreases. This scarcity of funds pushes up short-term interest rates. Consequently, the yields on short-term bonds and commercial papers tend to rise, making borrowing costlier for the government and corporates in the short term.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The VRRR auction temporarily locks funds for a specified period (e.g., 7 or 14 days). It does not permanently reduce the funds. Once the tenor of the VRRR ends, the liquidity returns to the banking system.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The WHO 3 by 35 Initiative is significant for global development primarily because it: (a) Focuses solely on providing technical assistance for drafting health tax legislation in developing countries. (b) Aims to create a large global fund managed by WHO to directly finance health infrastructure. (c) Links public health goals with sustainable domestic resource mobilization, reducing reliance on foreign aid. (d) Mandates that all revenue generated from health taxes must be earmarked exclusively for NCD treatment. Correct Solution: C The core significance of this initiative lies in its innovative dual-pronged approach. It simultaneously tackles two major challenges faced by many countries: a rising burden of noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) and a shortage of domestic funds for development priorities (as outlined in the SDGs). By advocating for health taxes, the initiative provides a clear pathway to improve public health (by reducing consumption of harmful products) and strengthen fiscal health. The revenue generated is a form of sustainable domestic resource mobilization. This empowers countries to finance their own development, including but not limited to health, thereby reducing their long-term reliance on fluctuating foreign aid. This linkage is its most powerful and significant feature from a development perspective. Incorrect Solution: C The core significance of this initiative lies in its innovative dual-pronged approach. It simultaneously tackles two major challenges faced by many countries: a rising burden of noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) and a shortage of domestic funds for development priorities (as outlined in the SDGs). By advocating for health taxes, the initiative provides a clear pathway to improve public health (by reducing consumption of harmful products) and strengthen fiscal health. The revenue generated is a form of sustainable domestic resource mobilization. This empowers countries to finance their own development, including but not limited to health, thereby reducing their long-term reliance on fluctuating foreign aid. This linkage is its most powerful and significant feature from a development perspective.

#### 10. Question

The WHO 3 by 35 Initiative is significant for global development primarily because it:

• (a) Focuses solely on providing technical assistance for drafting health tax legislation in developing countries.

• (b) Aims to create a large global fund managed by WHO to directly finance health infrastructure.

• (c) Links public health goals with sustainable domestic resource mobilization, reducing reliance on foreign aid.

• (d) Mandates that all revenue generated from health taxes must be earmarked exclusively for NCD treatment.

Solution: C

• The core significance of this initiative lies in its innovative dual-pronged approach. It simultaneously tackles two major challenges faced by many countries: a rising burden of noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) and a shortage of domestic funds for development priorities (as outlined in the SDGs).

• By advocating for health taxes, the initiative provides a clear pathway to improve public health (by reducing consumption of harmful products) and strengthen fiscal health. The revenue generated is a form of sustainable domestic resource mobilization. This empowers countries to finance their own development, including but not limited to health, thereby reducing their long-term reliance on fluctuating foreign aid. This linkage is its most powerful and significant feature from a development perspective.

Solution: C

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