UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, consider the following statements: He was the first leader to propose the idea of a National Planning Committee within the Indian National Congress. He resigned from the presidency of the Haripura session due to ideological differences with the Gandhian faction. The Forward Bloc was established as a separate political party outside the Indian National Congress from its inception. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Subhas Chandra Bose, during his presidency at the Haripura Session in 1938, initiated the National Planning Committee (NPC). This highlighted his vision for a socialist economic model and state-led industrialization for a future independent India. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Bose had significant ideological differences with the Gandhian faction, he did not resign at Haripura. He was successfully elected again for the Tripuri Session (1939), where the “Tripuri Crisis” occurred. He resigned from the presidency after the Tripuri session, not Haripura, when he realized he could not work with the Working Committee dominated by Gandhi’s supporters. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Forward Bloc was initially formed in 1939 as a radical faction within the Indian National Congress, not as an independent party outside it. Its primary goal was to consolidate left-wing elements to provide a militant alternative to the existing leadership. The diversity of Bose’s contributions, from the Indian Civil Services (ICS) resignation in 1920 to the armed struggle of the INA, underscores his radical shift from constitutional methods to assertive realism. His life remains a testament to the uncompromising demand for Purna Swaraj over dominion status. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. Subhas Chandra Bose, during his presidency at the Haripura Session in 1938, initiated the National Planning Committee (NPC). This highlighted his vision for a socialist economic model and state-led industrialization for a future independent India. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Bose had significant ideological differences with the Gandhian faction, he did not resign at Haripura. He was successfully elected again for the Tripuri Session (1939), where the “Tripuri Crisis” occurred. He resigned from the presidency after the Tripuri session, not Haripura, when he realized he could not work with the Working Committee dominated by Gandhi’s supporters. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Forward Bloc was initially formed in 1939 as a radical faction within the Indian National Congress, not as an independent party outside it. Its primary goal was to consolidate left-wing elements to provide a militant alternative to the existing leadership. The diversity of Bose’s contributions, from the Indian Civil Services (ICS) resignation in 1920 to the armed struggle of the INA, underscores his radical shift from constitutional methods to assertive realism. His life remains a testament to the uncompromising demand for Purna Swaraj over dominion status.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:

• He was the first leader to propose the idea of a National Planning Committee within the Indian National Congress.

• He resigned from the presidency of the Haripura session due to ideological differences with the Gandhian faction.

• The Forward Bloc was established as a separate political party outside the Indian National Congress from its inception.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Subhas Chandra Bose, during his presidency at the Haripura Session in 1938, initiated the National Planning Committee (NPC). This highlighted his vision for a socialist economic model and state-led industrialization for a future independent India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Bose had significant ideological differences with the Gandhian faction, he did not resign at Haripura. He was successfully elected again for the Tripuri Session (1939), where the “Tripuri Crisis” occurred. He resigned from the presidency after the Tripuri session, not Haripura, when he realized he could not work with the Working Committee dominated by Gandhi’s supporters.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Forward Bloc was initially formed in 1939 as a radical faction within the Indian National Congress, not as an independent party outside it. Its primary goal was to consolidate left-wing elements to provide a militant alternative to the existing leadership. The diversity of Bose’s contributions, from the Indian Civil Services (ICS) resignation in 1920 to the armed struggle of the INA, underscores his radical shift from constitutional methods to assertive realism. His life remains a testament to the uncompromising demand for Purna Swaraj over dominion status.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the World Health Organization (WHO): It was established as the primary health agency of the League of Nations before being incorporated into the United Nations. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is a global standard developed by the WHO for health reporting. Membership in the WHO is open only to sovereign states that are already members of the United Nations. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the WHO emerged from earlier efforts like the International Sanitary Conferences and eventually incorporated the League of Nations Health Organization, it was established as a new specialized agency of the United Nations on 7 April 1948 (now celebrated as World Health Day). It was not a direct continuation that simply changed names. Statement 2 is correct. One of the core functions of the WHO is standard-setting. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is the global diagnostic standard for all clinical and research purposes, used to track health trends and statistics globally. Statement 3 is incorrect. The WHO currently has 194 Member States. While most are UN members, membership is not strictly limited to them. For example, Niue and the Cook Islands are members of the WHO but not members of the UN. The organization plays a vital role in Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and coordinating responses to pandemics and health emergencies like Ebola and COVID-19. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the WHO emerged from earlier efforts like the International Sanitary Conferences and eventually incorporated the League of Nations Health Organization, it was established as a new specialized agency of the United Nations on 7 April 1948 (now celebrated as World Health Day). It was not a direct continuation that simply changed names. Statement 2 is correct. One of the core functions of the WHO is standard-setting. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is the global diagnostic standard for all clinical and research purposes, used to track health trends and statistics globally. Statement 3 is incorrect. The WHO currently has 194 Member States. While most are UN members, membership is not strictly limited to them. For example, Niue and the Cook Islands are members of the WHO but not members of the UN. The organization plays a vital role in Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and coordinating responses to pandemics and health emergencies like Ebola and COVID-19.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the World Health Organization (WHO):

• It was established as the primary health agency of the League of Nations before being incorporated into the United Nations.

• The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is a global standard developed by the WHO for health reporting.

• Membership in the WHO is open only to sovereign states that are already members of the United Nations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the WHO emerged from earlier efforts like the International Sanitary Conferences and eventually incorporated the League of Nations Health Organization, it was established as a new specialized agency of the United Nations on 7 April 1948 (now celebrated as World Health Day). It was not a direct continuation that simply changed names.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the core functions of the WHO is standard-setting. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is the global diagnostic standard for all clinical and research purposes, used to track health trends and statistics globally.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The WHO currently has 194 Member States. While most are UN members, membership is not strictly limited to them. For example, Niue and the Cook Islands are members of the WHO but not members of the UN. The organization plays a vital role in Universal Health Coverage (UHC) and coordinating responses to pandemics and health emergencies like Ebola and COVID-19.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points In the context of India’s defence technology, consider the following statements about the Long-Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Glide Missile (LRAShM): It is a cruise missile that maintains a constant hypersonic speed throughout its atmospheric flight. It utilizes a boost-glide architecture where a rocket motor boosts the vehicle to a high altitude before it glides at hypersonic speeds. The missile is designed to be launched from land-based mobile launchers as well as naval platforms. Its primary objective is to enhance Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The LRAShM is a Hypersonic Glide Vehicle (HGV), which differs from a Hypersonic Cruise Missile (HCM). HGVs do not maintain a constant powered flight; instead, they are unpowered during the glide phase. Statement 2 is correct. It follows a boost-glide architecture. A solid-propellant rocket boosts the missile to the required altitude and speed, after which the glide vehicle detaches and performs high-speed, evasive manoeuvres toward the target. Statement 3 is correct. While initially developed for land-based mobile launchers (coastal batteries), ship-borne and air-launched versions are envisaged to provide multi-platform flexibility. Statement 4 is correct. The missile’s 1,500 km range and Mach 5+ speed are designed to neutralize high-value targets like aircraft carrier battle groups, thereby strengthening India’s Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) posture in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). This indigenous development by DRDO places India in an exclusive group of nations with hypersonic capabilities. Its ability to perform low-altitude flight significantly reduces radar detection time, making it a credible deterrent against sophisticated naval adversaries. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. The LRAShM is a Hypersonic Glide Vehicle (HGV), which differs from a Hypersonic Cruise Missile (HCM). HGVs do not maintain a constant powered flight; instead, they are unpowered during the glide phase. Statement 2 is correct. It follows a boost-glide architecture. A solid-propellant rocket boosts the missile to the required altitude and speed, after which the glide vehicle detaches and performs high-speed, evasive manoeuvres toward the target. Statement 3 is correct. While initially developed for land-based mobile launchers (coastal batteries), ship-borne and air-launched versions are envisaged to provide multi-platform flexibility. Statement 4 is correct. The missile’s 1,500 km range and Mach 5+ speed are designed to neutralize high-value targets like aircraft carrier battle groups, thereby strengthening India’s Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) posture in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). This indigenous development by DRDO places India in an exclusive group of nations with hypersonic capabilities. Its ability to perform low-altitude flight significantly reduces radar detection time, making it a credible deterrent against sophisticated naval adversaries.

#### 3. Question

• In the context of India’s defence technology, consider the following statements about the Long-Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Glide Missile (LRAShM):

• It is a cruise missile that maintains a constant hypersonic speed throughout its atmospheric flight.

• It utilizes a boost-glide architecture where a rocket motor boosts the vehicle to a high altitude before it glides at hypersonic speeds.

• The missile is designed to be launched from land-based mobile launchers as well as naval platforms.

• Its primary objective is to enhance Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The LRAShM is a Hypersonic Glide Vehicle (HGV), which differs from a Hypersonic Cruise Missile (HCM). HGVs do not maintain a constant powered flight; instead, they are unpowered during the glide phase.

• Statement 2 is correct. It follows a boost-glide architecture. A solid-propellant rocket boosts the missile to the required altitude and speed, after which the glide vehicle detaches and performs high-speed, evasive manoeuvres toward the target.

• Statement 3 is correct. While initially developed for land-based mobile launchers (coastal batteries), ship-borne and air-launched versions are envisaged to provide multi-platform flexibility.

• Statement 4 is correct. The missile’s 1,500 km range and Mach 5+ speed are designed to neutralize high-value targets like aircraft carrier battle groups, thereby strengthening India’s Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) posture in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

• This indigenous development by DRDO places India in an exclusive group of nations with hypersonic capabilities. Its ability to perform low-altitude flight significantly reduces radar detection time, making it a credible deterrent against sophisticated naval adversaries.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to address the State Legislature: The Governor’s Address at the start of the first session of each year is a discretionary power that can be bypassed if the government and Governor disagree on the speech’s content. A partial reading of the Address by the Governor is considered a constitutional illegality that nullifies all subsequent legislative proceedings of that session. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor’s Address under Article 176(1) is a mandatory constitutional requirement, not a discretionary act. It must take place at the commencement of the first session after a general election and the first session of every year. The Governor cannot omit or rewrite the speech prepared by the elected government. Statement 2 is incorrect. Legal precedents, including rulings by the Rajasthan High Court (1966) and Calcutta High Court, have held that even if a Governor reads only parts of the speech or experiences delivery defects, it is considered an irregularity of procedure, not a constitutional illegality. It does not invalidate the legislative proceedings. The Address serves as a symbolic communication of the government’s agenda, reinforcing democratic accountability and the federal balance between the constitutional head and the elected executive. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor’s Address under Article 176(1) is a mandatory constitutional requirement, not a discretionary act. It must take place at the commencement of the first session after a general election and the first session of every year. The Governor cannot omit or rewrite the speech prepared by the elected government. Statement 2 is incorrect. Legal precedents, including rulings by the Rajasthan High Court (1966) and Calcutta High Court, have held that even if a Governor reads only parts of the speech or experiences delivery defects, it is considered an irregularity of procedure, not a constitutional illegality. It does not invalidate the legislative proceedings. The Address serves as a symbolic communication of the government’s agenda, reinforcing democratic accountability and the federal balance between the constitutional head and the elected executive.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to address the State Legislature:

• The Governor’s Address at the start of the first session of each year is a discretionary power that can be bypassed if the government and Governor disagree on the speech’s content.

• A partial reading of the Address by the Governor is considered a constitutional illegality that nullifies all subsequent legislative proceedings of that session.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor’s Address under Article 176(1) is a mandatory constitutional requirement, not a discretionary act. It must take place at the commencement of the first session after a general election and the first session of every year. The Governor cannot omit or rewrite the speech prepared by the elected government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Legal precedents, including rulings by the Rajasthan High Court (1966) and Calcutta High Court, have held that even if a Governor reads only parts of the speech or experiences delivery defects, it is considered an irregularity of procedure, not a constitutional illegality. It does not invalidate the legislative proceedings. The Address serves as a symbolic communication of the government’s agenda, reinforcing democratic accountability and the federal balance between the constitutional head and the elected executive.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Indian National Army (INA), which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The INA was initially founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore in 1943. (b) The "Rani of Jhansi Regiment" was an all-female infantry unit of the INA, one of the first of its kind in the world. (c) The INA trials were held at the Red Fort in Delhi and were presided over by a panel of Indian judges. (d) The INA successfully captured the city of Imphal, establishing it as the capital of the Azad Hind Government. Correct Solution: B Statement (a) is incorrect. The INA was initially formed by Captain Mohan Singh and members of the Indian Independence League in 1942. Bose took command and revived it in 1943. Statement (b) is correct. The Rani of Jhansi Regiment, led by Lakshmi Swaminathan (Sahgal), was a pioneering all-female combat unit, reflecting Netaji’s progressive vision of total mobilization. Statement (c) is incorrect. The INA trials were held at the Red Fort (1945–46), but they were British military courts-martial, not presided over by Indian judges. However, they were defended by prominent Indian lawyers like Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapru. Statement (d) is incorrect. While the INA reached the outskirts of Imphal and Kohima and hoisted the tricolour at Moirang, they did not successfully capture the cities due to supply chain failures and the arrival of the monsoon. Nevertheless, the campaign broke the myth of British invincibility. The trials that followed galvanized the Indian public, leading to widespread protests and even revolts in the Royal Indian Navy, which ultimately hastened the colonial exit by making the British occupation militarily and morally untenable. Incorrect Solution: B Statement (a) is incorrect. The INA was initially formed by Captain Mohan Singh and members of the Indian Independence League in 1942. Bose took command and revived it in 1943. Statement (b) is correct. The Rani of Jhansi Regiment, led by Lakshmi Swaminathan (Sahgal), was a pioneering all-female combat unit, reflecting Netaji’s progressive vision of total mobilization. Statement (c) is incorrect. The INA trials were held at the Red Fort (1945–46), but they were British military courts-martial, not presided over by Indian judges. However, they were defended by prominent Indian lawyers like Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapru. Statement (d) is incorrect. While the INA reached the outskirts of Imphal and Kohima and hoisted the tricolour at Moirang, they did not successfully capture the cities due to supply chain failures and the arrival of the monsoon. Nevertheless, the campaign broke the myth of British invincibility. The trials that followed galvanized the Indian public, leading to widespread protests and even revolts in the Royal Indian Navy, which ultimately hastened the colonial exit by making the British occupation militarily and morally untenable.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Indian National Army (INA), which one of the following statements is correct?

• (a) The INA was initially founded by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore in 1943.

• (b) The "Rani of Jhansi Regiment" was an all-female infantry unit of the INA, one of the first of its kind in the world.

• (c) The INA trials were held at the Red Fort in Delhi and were presided over by a panel of Indian judges.

• (d) The INA successfully captured the city of Imphal, establishing it as the capital of the Azad Hind Government.

Solution: B

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The INA was initially formed by Captain Mohan Singh and members of the Indian Independence League in 1942. Bose took command and revived it in 1943.

• Statement (b) is correct. The Rani of Jhansi Regiment, led by Lakshmi Swaminathan (Sahgal), was a pioneering all-female combat unit, reflecting Netaji’s progressive vision of total mobilization.

• Statement (c) is incorrect. The INA trials were held at the Red Fort (1945–46), but they were British military courts-martial, not presided over by Indian judges. However, they were defended by prominent Indian lawyers like Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapru.

• Statement (d) is incorrect. While the INA reached the outskirts of Imphal and Kohima and hoisted the tricolour at Moirang, they did not successfully capture the cities due to supply chain failures and the arrival of the monsoon. Nevertheless, the campaign broke the myth of British invincibility. The trials that followed galvanized the Indian public, leading to widespread protests and even revolts in the Royal Indian Navy, which ultimately hastened the colonial exit by making the British occupation militarily and morally untenable.

Solution: B

• Statement (a) is incorrect. The INA was initially formed by Captain Mohan Singh and members of the Indian Independence League in 1942. Bose took command and revived it in 1943.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Long-Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Glide Missile (LRAShM): It is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army’s mountain strike corps. The missile’s operational range is approximately 1,500 km, enabling standoff strikes. It utilizes active radar seekers to engage moving naval targets accurately. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While developed by DRDO, the LRAShM is primarily intended for the Indian Navy to meet maritime strike and coastal battery requirements, not specifically for the Army’s mountain strike corps. Statement 2 is correct. The missile has an operational range of ~1,500 km, allowing the Indian Navy to engage enemy surface combatants, such as aircraft carrier battle groups, from a standoff distance. This means India can strike targets while staying outside the reach of the enemy’s conventional defenses. Statement 3 is correct. For effective engagement of moving ships at sea, the missile is equipped with advanced guidance systems, including active radar seekers, inertial navigation, and satellite aid. Its hypersonic speed (up to Mach 10) compresses the enemy’s reaction time and makes interception extremely difficult. By deploying these through land-based mobile launchers, India significantly strengthens its Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). This technology places India alongside the US, Russia, and China in the exclusive club of nations possessing hypersonic glide technology, enhancing maritime deterrence across the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While developed by DRDO, the LRAShM is primarily intended for the Indian Navy to meet maritime strike and coastal battery requirements, not specifically for the Army’s mountain strike corps. Statement 2 is correct. The missile has an operational range of ~1,500 km, allowing the Indian Navy to engage enemy surface combatants, such as aircraft carrier battle groups, from a standoff distance. This means India can strike targets while staying outside the reach of the enemy’s conventional defenses. Statement 3 is correct. For effective engagement of moving ships at sea, the missile is equipped with advanced guidance systems, including active radar seekers, inertial navigation, and satellite aid. Its hypersonic speed (up to Mach 10) compresses the enemy’s reaction time and makes interception extremely difficult. By deploying these through land-based mobile launchers, India significantly strengthens its Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). This technology places India alongside the US, Russia, and China in the exclusive club of nations possessing hypersonic glide technology, enhancing maritime deterrence across the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Long-Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Glide Missile (LRAShM):

• It is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army’s mountain strike corps.

• The missile’s operational range is approximately 1,500 km, enabling standoff strikes.

• It utilizes active radar seekers to engage moving naval targets accurately.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While developed by DRDO, the LRAShM is primarily intended for the Indian Navy to meet maritime strike and coastal battery requirements, not specifically for the Army’s mountain strike corps.

• Statement 2 is correct. The missile has an operational range of ~1,500 km, allowing the Indian Navy to engage enemy surface combatants, such as aircraft carrier battle groups, from a standoff distance. This means India can strike targets while staying outside the reach of the enemy’s conventional defenses.

• Statement 3 is correct. For effective engagement of moving ships at sea, the missile is equipped with advanced guidance systems, including active radar seekers, inertial navigation, and satellite aid. Its hypersonic speed (up to Mach 10) compresses the enemy’s reaction time and makes interception extremely difficult. By deploying these through land-based mobile launchers, India significantly strengthens its Anti-Access/Area Denial (A2/AD) capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR). This technology places India alongside the US, Russia, and China in the exclusive club of nations possessing hypersonic glide technology, enhancing maritime deterrence across the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

Solution: B

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Match the following columns regarding the Governor’s constitutional role: Column I (Article) Column II (Subject Matter) Column III (Constitutional Status) A. Article 163 1. Governor’s Address I. Mandatory Requirement B. Article 174 2. Summoning the House II. Aid and Advice of Ministers C. Article 176 3. Discretionary Powers III. Limited to Specified Matters Which of the following is the correctly matched set? (a) A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I (b) A-1-I, B-2-II, C-3-III (c) A-2-II, B-3-III, C-1-I (d) A-3-I, B-2-III, C-1-II Correct Solution: A The correct match is A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I. Article 163 establishes that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in matters where the Constitution requires them to exercise discretion (3). However, this discretion is limited to specified matters (III) as clarified by the judiciary. Article 174 deals with the summoning, proroguing, and dissolution (2) of the State Legislature. The Supreme Court has consistently held that this must be done based on the aid and advice of the Cabinet (II). Article 176 pertains to the Special Address (1) by the Governor at the start of the first session of each year and after elections. This is a mandatory constitutional requirement (I). The Governor is a constitutional head, not a parallel power center, and the Address reflects the elected government’s agenda. Incorrect Solution: A The correct match is A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I. Article 163 establishes that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in matters where the Constitution requires them to exercise discretion (3). However, this discretion is limited to specified matters (III) as clarified by the judiciary. Article 174 deals with the summoning, proroguing, and dissolution (2) of the State Legislature. The Supreme Court has consistently held that this must be done based on the aid and advice of the Cabinet (II). Article 176 pertains to the Special Address (1) by the Governor at the start of the first session of each year and after elections. This is a mandatory constitutional requirement (I). The Governor is a constitutional head, not a parallel power center, and the Address reflects the elected government’s agenda.

#### 7. Question

Match the following columns regarding the Governor’s constitutional role:

Column I (Article) | Column II (Subject Matter) | Column III (Constitutional Status)

A. Article 163 | 1. Governor’s Address | I. Mandatory Requirement

B. Article 174 | 2. Summoning the House | II. Aid and Advice of Ministers

C. Article 176 | 3. Discretionary Powers | III. Limited to Specified Matters

Which of the following is the correctly matched set?

• (a) A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I

• (b) A-1-I, B-2-II, C-3-III

• (c) A-2-II, B-3-III, C-1-I

• (d) A-3-I, B-2-III, C-1-II

Solution: A

• The correct match is A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I.

• Article 163 establishes that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in matters where the Constitution requires them to exercise discretion (3). However, this discretion is limited to specified matters (III) as clarified by the judiciary.

• Article 174 deals with the summoning, proroguing, and dissolution (2) of the State Legislature. The Supreme Court has consistently held that this must be done based on the aid and advice of the Cabinet (II).

• Article 176 pertains to the Special Address (1) by the Governor at the start of the first session of each year and after elections. This is a mandatory constitutional requirement (I). The Governor is a constitutional head, not a parallel power center, and the Address reflects the elected government’s agenda.

Solution: A

• The correct match is A-3-III, B-2-II, C-1-I.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points With reference to the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements: It contains high-altitude wetlands such as the Bedang Tso Lake. It serves as a natural habitat for the Himalayan Monal and the Red Panda. The sanctuary is geographically contiguous with the Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct as Bedang Tso Lake is a significant high-altitude wetland within the sanctuary, contributing to its role as a natural water regulator. Statement 2 is correct because the sanctuary’s diverse biomes—ranging from subtropical to alpine—support rare fauna including the Himalayan Monal, Red Panda, Takin, and Musk Deer. It is a designated Important Bird Area (IBA). Statement 3 is correct as the sanctuary extends southwards from East Sikkim to connect with the Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal. This contiguity is vital for ecological connectivity and the movement of wildlife across the eastern Himalayan landscape. Established in 2002, the sanctuary covers 12,400 hectares and is part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot. Its strategic location along the Indo-China-Bhutan tri-junction near Nathu La makes it ecologically and geopolitically sensitive. However, the region faces threats from climate change and forest fires, such as the fire in January 2026 that affected 12 hectares of forest land. Conserving this sanctuary is essential for protecting high-altitude watersheds and the fragile ecosystems of the eastern Himalayan frontier. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct as Bedang Tso Lake is a significant high-altitude wetland within the sanctuary, contributing to its role as a natural water regulator. Statement 2 is correct because the sanctuary’s diverse biomes—ranging from subtropical to alpine—support rare fauna including the Himalayan Monal, Red Panda, Takin, and Musk Deer. It is a designated Important Bird Area (IBA). Statement 3 is correct as the sanctuary extends southwards from East Sikkim to connect with the Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal. This contiguity is vital for ecological connectivity and the movement of wildlife across the eastern Himalayan landscape. Established in 2002, the sanctuary covers 12,400 hectares and is part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot. Its strategic location along the Indo-China-Bhutan tri-junction near Nathu La makes it ecologically and geopolitically sensitive. However, the region faces threats from climate change and forest fires, such as the fire in January 2026 that affected 12 hectares of forest land. Conserving this sanctuary is essential for protecting high-altitude watersheds and the fragile ecosystems of the eastern Himalayan frontier.

#### 8. Question

With reference to the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements:

• It contains high-altitude wetlands such as the Bedang Tso Lake.

• It serves as a natural habitat for the Himalayan Monal and the Red Panda.

• The sanctuary is geographically contiguous with the Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct as Bedang Tso Lake is a significant high-altitude wetland within the sanctuary, contributing to its role as a natural water regulator.

• Statement 2 is correct because the sanctuary’s diverse biomes—ranging from subtropical to alpine—support rare fauna including the Himalayan Monal, Red Panda, Takin, and Musk Deer. It is a designated Important Bird Area (IBA).

• Statement 3 is correct as the sanctuary extends southwards from East Sikkim to connect with the Neora Valley National Park in West Bengal. This contiguity is vital for ecological connectivity and the movement of wildlife across the eastern Himalayan landscape. Established in 2002, the sanctuary covers 12,400 hectares and is part of the Eastern Himalayas biodiversity hotspot.

• Its strategic location along the Indo-China-Bhutan tri-junction near Nathu La makes it ecologically and geopolitically sensitive. However, the region faces threats from climate change and forest fires, such as the fire in January 2026 that affected 12 hectares of forest land. Conserving this sanctuary is essential for protecting high-altitude watersheds and the fragile ecosystems of the eastern Himalayan frontier.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct as Bedang Tso Lake is a significant high-altitude wetland within the sanctuary, contributing to its role as a natural water regulator.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the state of Rajasthan and is part of the Aravalli hill system. The sanctuary has recently been notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It falls under the Khathiar–Gir dry deciduous forest ecoregion and is home to the Indian wolf and leopard. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The sanctuary is spread across Rajsamand, Udaipur, and Pali districts in Rajasthan and is situated within the Aravalli Range. Statement 2 is correct: To strengthen conservation and regulate activities around the sanctuary, the MoEFCC notified it as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ), typically covering 0–1 km around the boundary. Statement 3 is correct: The vegetation is part of the Khathiar–Gir dry deciduous forest, supporting diverse fauna. The Leopard is the apex predator here, and the sanctuary is a known habitat for the Indian wolf, sloth bear, and Chinkara. It acts as a critical biodiversity corridor in the Aravalli landscape. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct: The sanctuary is spread across Rajsamand, Udaipur, and Pali districts in Rajasthan and is situated within the Aravalli Range. Statement 2 is correct: To strengthen conservation and regulate activities around the sanctuary, the MoEFCC notified it as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ), typically covering 0–1 km around the boundary. Statement 3 is correct: The vegetation is part of the Khathiar–Gir dry deciduous forest, supporting diverse fauna. The Leopard is the apex predator here, and the sanctuary is a known habitat for the Indian wolf, sloth bear, and Chinkara. It acts as a critical biodiversity corridor in the Aravalli landscape.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It is located in the state of Rajasthan and is part of the Aravalli hill system.

• The sanctuary has recently been notified as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

• It falls under the Khathiar–Gir dry deciduous forest ecoregion and is home to the Indian wolf and leopard.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The sanctuary is spread across Rajsamand, Udaipur, and Pali districts in Rajasthan and is situated within the Aravalli Range.

• Statement 2 is correct: To strengthen conservation and regulate activities around the sanctuary, the MoEFCC notified it as an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ), typically covering 0–1 km around the boundary.

Statement 3 is correct: The vegetation is part of the Khathiar–Gir dry deciduous forest, supporting diverse fauna. The Leopard is the apex predator here, and the sanctuary is a known habitat for the Indian wolf, sloth bear, and Chinkara. It acts as a critical biodiversity corridor in the Aravalli landscape.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct: The sanctuary is spread across Rajsamand, Udaipur, and Pali districts in Rajasthan and is situated within the Aravalli Range.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points The ‘Cartagena Declaration’ and the ‘Abuja Global Forum’, sometimes mentioned in the news, are associated with which of the following? (a) Conservation of migratory species in marine ecosystems. (b) Regulation of Trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste. (c) Global standards for 6G telecommunication networks. (d) UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance. Correct Solution: D The UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance was originally launched in 2013 at the Global Forum for Partnerships on MIL in Abuja, Nigeria. More recently, in 2025, the Alliance was relaunched during Global MIL Week with the Cartagena Declaration. This declaration, along with a renewed strategic action plan, aims to strengthen societal resilience to disinformation, misinformation, and hate speech. The Alliance consists of over 300 organizations and 180 experts globally. The recent election of its first-ever Global Board marks a significant milestone in its institutional governance, helping shape global norms on how citizens interact with information in the digital age. Incorrect Solution: D The UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance was originally launched in 2013 at the Global Forum for Partnerships on MIL in Abuja, Nigeria. More recently, in 2025, the Alliance was relaunched during Global MIL Week with the Cartagena Declaration. This declaration, along with a renewed strategic action plan, aims to strengthen societal resilience to disinformation, misinformation, and hate speech. The Alliance consists of over 300 organizations and 180 experts globally. The recent election of its first-ever Global Board marks a significant milestone in its institutional governance, helping shape global norms on how citizens interact with information in the digital age.

#### 10. Question

The ‘Cartagena Declaration’ and the ‘Abuja Global Forum’, sometimes mentioned in the news, are associated with which of the following?

• (a) Conservation of migratory species in marine ecosystems.

• (b) Regulation of Trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste.

• (c) Global standards for 6G telecommunication networks.

• (d) UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance.

Solution: D

• The UNESCO Media and Information Literacy (MIL) Alliance was originally launched in 2013 at the Global Forum for Partnerships on MIL in Abuja, Nigeria. More recently, in 2025, the Alliance was relaunched during Global MIL Week with the Cartagena Declaration. This declaration, along with a renewed strategic action plan, aims to strengthen societal resilience to disinformation, misinformation, and hate speech.

• The Alliance consists of over 300 organizations and 180 experts globally. The recent election of its first-ever Global Board marks a significant milestone in its institutional governance, helping shape global norms on how citizens interact with information in the digital age.

Solution: D

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