UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 10 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 10 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score |

Your score |

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result

Table is loading

No data available

| | | |

• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Listeria. Listeria is a bacteria that can lead to an infection called listeriosis. It is found in soil, vegetation, water and even the faeces of animals and humans. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food will fall sick or develop symptoms immediately. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection. Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever. People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable. Incorrect Solution: A Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis. Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection. Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever. People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Listeria.

• Listeria is a bacteria that can lead to an infection called listeriosis.

• It is found in soil, vegetation, water and even the faeces of animals and humans.

• Most people who ingest listeria-infected food will fall sick or develop symptoms immediately.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.

Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection.

Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.

People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

Solution: A

Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.

People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd is a private joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally. Lithium is an alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries and medical devices like pacemakers. Niobium is a silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration: Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration: Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Khanij Bidesh India Ltd is a private joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally.

• Lithium is an alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries and medical devices like pacemakers.

• Niobium is a silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:

Initiative | Details

Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act | Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation

Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government

Khanij Bidesh India Ltd | It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America.

Mineral | Description | Common Uses

Lithium | An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. | Rechargeable batteries, energy storage.

Rare Earth Elements | A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. | Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines.

Niobium | A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. | Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners).

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:

Initiative | Details

Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government

Khanij Bidesh India Ltd | It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America.

Mineral | Description | Common Uses

Lithium | An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. | Rechargeable batteries, energy storage.

Rare Earth Elements | A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. | Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. The reasons under which an MP can be disqualified include: if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State. if he is an undischarged insolvent. if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India. if he is disqualified by the Election Commission of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. Incorrect Solution: C Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

#### 3. Question

Article 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. The reasons under which an MP can be disqualified include:

• if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.

• if he is an undischarged insolvent.

• if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India.

• if he is disqualified by the Election Commission of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.

Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

Solution: C

Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.

Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,

(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;

(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;

(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Morocco shares its bored with which of the following water bodies? Mediterranean Sea Atlantic Ocean Caspian Sea Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Option 3 is incorrect. Morocco, a North African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, is distinguished by its Berber, Arabian and European cultural influences. Incorrect Solution: A Option 3 is incorrect. Morocco, a North African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, is distinguished by its Berber, Arabian and European cultural influences.

#### 4. Question

Morocco shares its bored with which of the following water bodies?

• Mediterranean Sea

• Atlantic Ocean

• Caspian Sea

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Option 3 is incorrect.

Morocco, a North African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, is distinguished by its Berber, Arabian and European cultural influences.

Solution: A

Option 3 is incorrect.

Morocco, a North African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, is distinguished by its Berber, Arabian and European cultural influences.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points How is the ‘creamy layer’ determination different for children of government employees compared to those from the private sector? (a) Government employees' children are always in the creamy layer (b) Private sector employees' children are never in the creamy layer (c) For government employees, it's based on rank; for private sector, it's based on income (d) There is no difference in determination between the two sectors Correct Solution: C The determination of ‘creamy layer’ status differs between government and private sector employees’ children. For government employees, the criteria are primarily based on the rank or position of the parent in service. For instance, children of Group A officers or those promoted to Group A before age 40 are considered part of the creamy layer. In contrast, for private sector employees, the determination is based on the parents’ income. This distinction recognizes the different structures and compensation systems in government and private sectors, aiming to create a fair assessment of socio-economic status across various employment types. Incorrect Solution: C The determination of ‘creamy layer’ status differs between government and private sector employees’ children. For government employees, the criteria are primarily based on the rank or position of the parent in service. For instance, children of Group A officers or those promoted to Group A before age 40 are considered part of the creamy layer. In contrast, for private sector employees, the determination is based on the parents’ income. This distinction recognizes the different structures and compensation systems in government and private sectors, aiming to create a fair assessment of socio-economic status across various employment types.

#### 5. Question

How is the ‘creamy layer’ determination different for children of government employees compared to those from the private sector?

• (a) Government employees' children are always in the creamy layer

• (b) Private sector employees' children are never in the creamy layer

• (c) For government employees, it's based on rank; for private sector, it's based on income

• (d) There is no difference in determination between the two sectors

• Solution: C

The determination of ‘creamy layer’ status differs between government and private sector employees’ children. For government employees, the criteria are primarily based on the rank or position of the parent in service. For instance, children of Group A officers or those promoted to Group A before age 40 are considered part of the creamy layer. In contrast, for private sector employees, the determination is based on the parents’ income. This distinction recognizes the different structures and compensation systems in government and private sectors, aiming to create a fair assessment of socio-economic status across various employment types.

• Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements in the context of Lightning characteristics and occurrence in India Lightning is a rapid discharge of atmospheric electricity. Eastern and central India experience the highest cloud-to-ground strikes. Palm trees provide immediate protection against lightning strikes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Lightning is indeed a rapid discharge of electricity in the atmosphere. This occurs when there’s a buildup of electrical charge within clouds or between clouds and the ground, which is then suddenly released, creating the flash we see as lightning. According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024 published by CROPC and IMD, eastern and central India do experience the highest number of cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning strikes. This is likely due to the specific atmospheric conditions prevalent in these regions. Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 3 is incorrect. Lightning is indeed a rapid discharge of electricity in the atmosphere. This occurs when there’s a buildup of electrical charge within clouds or between clouds and the ground, which is then suddenly released, creating the flash we see as lightning. According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024 published by CROPC and IMD, eastern and central India do experience the highest number of cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning strikes. This is likely due to the specific atmospheric conditions prevalent in these regions. Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements in the context of Lightning characteristics and occurrence in India

• Lightning is a rapid discharge of atmospheric electricity.

• Eastern and central India experience the highest cloud-to-ground strikes.

• Palm trees provide immediate protection against lightning strikes.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Lightning is indeed a rapid discharge of electricity in the atmosphere. This occurs when there’s a buildup of electrical charge within clouds or between clouds and the ground, which is then suddenly released, creating the flash we see as lightning.

According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024 published by CROPC and IMD, eastern and central India do experience the highest number of cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning strikes. This is likely due to the specific atmospheric conditions prevalent in these regions.

Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution.

Solution: B

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding White phosphorus. White phosphorus is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures. It is used by militaries to create smokescreens due to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production. It is categorized as an “incendiary weapon” and is banned by international conventions. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A About White phosphorus: It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit). It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes. White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burns, penetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour. While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns. Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target. Incorrect Solution: A About White phosphorus: It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit). It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes. White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burns, penetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour. While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns. Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding White phosphorus.

• White phosphorus is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures.

• It is used by militaries to create smokescreens due to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production.

• It is categorized as an “incendiary weapon” and is banned by international conventions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

About White phosphorus:

• It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit).

• It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes.

• White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burns, penetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart

• White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour.

While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns.

Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target.

Solution: A

About White phosphorus:

• It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit).

• It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes.

• White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour.

While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points What physiological factor is primarily responsible for the athletic performance differences between men and women? (a) Chromosome count (b) Muscle fiber type (c) Bone density (d) Circulating testosterone levels Correct Solution: D Circulating testosterone is considered the primary factor responsible for athletic performance differences between men and women. Testosterone has been shown to increase muscle mass and strength, bone size and density, and circulating hemoglobin levels. These physiological changes contribute significantly to athletic performance advantages. While other factors like bone density and muscle fiber type are influenced by testosterone, they are secondary effects rather than the primary cause. The hormone’s direct impact on multiple physiological systems makes it the key differentiator in athletic performance between sexes. Incorrect Solution: D Circulating testosterone is considered the primary factor responsible for athletic performance differences between men and women. Testosterone has been shown to increase muscle mass and strength, bone size and density, and circulating hemoglobin levels. These physiological changes contribute significantly to athletic performance advantages. While other factors like bone density and muscle fiber type are influenced by testosterone, they are secondary effects rather than the primary cause. The hormone’s direct impact on multiple physiological systems makes it the key differentiator in athletic performance between sexes.

#### 8. Question

What physiological factor is primarily responsible for the athletic performance differences between men and women?

• (a) Chromosome count

• (b) Muscle fiber type

• (c) Bone density

• (d) Circulating testosterone levels

• Solution: D

Circulating testosterone is considered the primary factor responsible for athletic performance differences between men and women. Testosterone has been shown to increase muscle mass and strength, bone size and density, and circulating hemoglobin levels. These physiological changes contribute significantly to athletic performance advantages. While other factors like bone density and muscle fiber type are influenced by testosterone, they are secondary effects rather than the primary cause. The hormone’s direct impact on multiple physiological systems makes it the key differentiator in athletic performance between sexes.

• Solution: D

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points How does Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution affect the rights of individuals under preventive detention? (a) It grants additional rights to those under preventive detention (b) It mandates immediate judicial review of preventive detention cases (c) It exempts preventive detention from the protections of Article 22(1) and 22(2) (d) It limits preventive detention to a maximum of 24 hours Correct Solution: C Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals. By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws. This exemption means that individuals held under preventive detention may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of their arrest or the right to consult a legal practitioner of their choice. Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply. This provision reflects the balance struck by the Constitution between individual rights and perceived needs for national security or public order, albeit at the cost of certain fundamental protections. Incorrect Solution: C Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals. By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws. This exemption means that individuals held under preventive detention may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of their arrest or the right to consult a legal practitioner of their choice. Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply. This provision reflects the balance struck by the Constitution between individual rights and perceived needs for national security or public order, albeit at the cost of certain fundamental protections.

#### 9. Question

How does Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution affect the rights of individuals under preventive detention?

• (a) It grants additional rights to those under preventive detention

• (b) It mandates immediate judicial review of preventive detention cases

• (c) It exempts preventive detention from the protections of Article 22(1) and 22(2)

• (d) It limits preventive detention to a maximum of 24 hours

• Solution: C

• Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals.

• By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws.

• This exemption means that individuals held under preventive detention may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of their arrest or the right to consult a legal practitioner of their choice.

• Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply.

• This provision reflects the balance struck by the Constitution between individual rights and perceived needs for national security or public order, albeit at the cost of certain fundamental protections.

• Solution: C

• Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals.

• By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws.

• Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the United Nations (UN) and its structure: The UN was established after World War I, with collective security and peacekeeping as some of its founding principles. The General Assembly is the primary policymaking body of the UN, while the UNSC is responsible for peace and security. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities. Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities. Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about the United Nations (UN) and its structure:

• The UN was established after World War I, with collective security and peacekeeping as some of its founding principles.

• The General Assembly is the primary policymaking body of the UN, while the UNSC is responsible for peace and security.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities.

• Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE