UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 24 April 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
#### Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
#### Information
The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
Your score |
#### Categories
• Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result
Table is loading
No data available
| | | |
• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Ross Ice Shelf: It is the smallest ice shelf in Antarctica. It is located on the eastern coast of Antarctica. It is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: The Ross Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, covering an area of about 182,000 square miles. It floats in, and covers, a large southern portion of the Ross Sea and the entire Roosevelt Island located in the east of the Ross Sea. Ice shelves are extensions of glaciers or ice sheets that float on the sea, but they remain connected to the landmass. Thus, the Ross Ice Shelf is not completely detached from the Antarctic landmass. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ross-ice-shelf/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: The Ross Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, covering an area of about 182,000 square miles. It floats in, and covers, a large southern portion of the Ross Sea and the entire Roosevelt Island located in the east of the Ross Sea. Ice shelves are extensions of glaciers or ice sheets that float on the sea, but they remain connected to the landmass. Thus, the Ross Ice Shelf is not completely detached from the Antarctic landmass. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ross-ice-shelf/
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements about Ross Ice Shelf:
• It is the smallest ice shelf in Antarctica. It is located on the eastern coast of Antarctica. It is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica.
• It is the smallest ice shelf in Antarctica.
• It is located on the eastern coast of Antarctica.
• It is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 1 and 2 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 3 only
Explanation:
• The Ross Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, covering an area of about 182,000 square miles. It floats in, and covers, a large southern portion of the Ross Sea and the entire Roosevelt Island located in the east of the Ross Sea.
• Ice shelves are extensions of glaciers or ice sheets that float on the sea, but they remain connected to the landmass. Thus, the Ross Ice Shelf is not completely detached from the Antarctic landmass.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ross-ice-shelf/
Explanation:
• The Ross Ice Shelf is the largest ice shelf in Antarctica, covering an area of about 182,000 square miles. It floats in, and covers, a large southern portion of the Ross Sea and the entire Roosevelt Island located in the east of the Ross Sea.
• Ice shelves are extensions of glaciers or ice sheets that float on the sea, but they remain connected to the landmass. Thus, the Ross Ice Shelf is not completely detached from the Antarctic landmass.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ross-ice-shelf/
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): The NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The NHRC has the power to inquire into violations of human rights committed by public servants. The NHRC has the authority to impose penalties on individuals found guilty of human rights violations. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Aspect Details Establishment Established in 1993 as a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Its establishment aligns with the Paris Principle, which sets out the international minimum standards for national human rights institutions. Composition Consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Deemed Members include Chairpersons of other key National Commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, etc. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, provided that a Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as Chairperson in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India. Tenure The tenure for both the Chairperson and Members is three years or until the age of seventy years. Powers and Functions Has all the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition. Can intervene in proceedings regarding allegations of human rights violations pending before a court. Key Initiatives Guidelines to check the misuse of the power of arrest by the police. Elimination of manual scavenging. Challenges The Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred its re-accreditation mainly due to political interference in appointments, involving the police in probes into human rights violations, etc. Without accreditation, NHRC will be unable to represent India at the UN Human Rights Council Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/national-human-rights-commission-nhrc-of-india/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Aspect Details Establishment Established in 1993 as a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Its establishment aligns with the Paris Principle, which sets out the international minimum standards for national human rights institutions. Composition Consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Deemed Members include Chairpersons of other key National Commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, etc. The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, provided that a Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as Chairperson in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India. Tenure The tenure for both the Chairperson and Members is three years or until the age of seventy years. Powers and Functions Has all the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition. Can intervene in proceedings regarding allegations of human rights violations pending before a court. Key Initiatives Guidelines to check the misuse of the power of arrest by the police. Elimination of manual scavenging. Challenges The Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred its re-accreditation mainly due to political interference in appointments, involving the police in probes into human rights violations, etc. Without accreditation, NHRC will be unable to represent India at the UN Human Rights Council Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/national-human-rights-commission-nhrc-of-india/
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
• The NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The NHRC has the power to inquire into violations of human rights committed by public servants. The NHRC has the authority to impose penalties on individuals found guilty of human rights violations.
• The NHRC was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• The NHRC has the power to inquire into violations of human rights committed by public servants.
• The NHRC has the authority to impose penalties on individuals found guilty of human rights violations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Aspect | Details
Establishment | Established in 1993 as a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Its establishment aligns with the Paris Principle, which sets out the international minimum standards for national human rights institutions.
Composition | Consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Deemed Members include Chairpersons of other key National Commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, etc.
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, provided that a Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as Chairperson in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India.
Tenure | The tenure for both the Chairperson and Members is three years or until the age of seventy years.
Powers and Functions | Has all the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition. Can intervene in proceedings regarding allegations of human rights violations pending before a court.
Key Initiatives | Guidelines to check the misuse of the power of arrest by the police. Elimination of manual scavenging.
Challenges | The Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred its re-accreditation mainly due to political interference in appointments, involving the police in probes into human rights violations, etc. Without accreditation, NHRC will be unable to represent India at the UN Human Rights Council
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/national-human-rights-commission-nhrc-of-india/
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Aspect | Details
Establishment | Established in 1993 as a statutory body under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Its establishment aligns with the Paris Principle, which sets out the international minimum standards for national human rights institutions.
Composition | Consists of a Chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Deemed Members include Chairpersons of other key National Commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, etc.
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, provided that a Judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as Chairperson in addition to the person who has been the Chief Justice of India.
Tenure | The tenure for both the Chairperson and Members is three years or until the age of seventy years.
Powers and Functions | Has all the powers of a civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Can inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant, either suo motu or on a petition. Can intervene in proceedings regarding allegations of human rights violations pending before a court.
Key Initiatives | Guidelines to check the misuse of the power of arrest by the police. Elimination of manual scavenging.
Challenges | The Global Alliance for National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred its re-accreditation mainly due to political interference in appointments, involving the police in probes into human rights violations, etc. Without accreditation, NHRC will be unable to represent India at the UN Human Rights Council
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/national-human-rights-commission-nhrc-of-india/
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points With reference to ‘Summit of the Future’ 2024, a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly, consider the following statements: The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration. The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations. The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts. About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis. Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts. About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis. Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
#### 3. Question
With reference to ‘Summit of the Future’ 2024, a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly, consider the following statements:
• The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration. The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations. The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence.
• The summit focused solely on advancements in space exploration.
• The primary focus of the summit was on the history of ancient civilizations.
• The summit’s main objective was to discuss advancements in artificial intelligence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts.
• About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis.
• Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: UN Secretary-General Guterres highlights Multilateral Development Banks (MDB) reform as a key theme at the upcoming Summit of the Future during UNGA, praising the Indian G20 presidency’s efforts.
• About the Summit:The Summit of the Future 2024 is a flagship event organized during the annual high-level UN General Assembly meeting in September. It focuses on key global issues, with a particular emphasis on reforming multilateral development banks (MDBs) to address contemporary challenges like poverty and climate crisis.
• Originating from the Our Common Agenda report, it emphasizes renewing trust and solidarity across nations and generations. Member States aim to create a Pact for the Future, reaffirming the UN Charter, reinvigorating multilateralism, and agreeing on solutions to current and future challenges.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following statements best describes Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6)? (a) Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all. (b) Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls. (c) Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all. (d) Reduce inequality within and among countries. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Sustainable Development Goal 6 declares the importance of achieving “clean water and sanitation for all”. It is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations General Assembly to succeed the former Millennium Development Goals. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Sustainable Development Goal 6 declares the importance of achieving “clean water and sanitation for all”. It is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations General Assembly to succeed the former Millennium Development Goals. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
#### 4. Question
Which of the following statements best describes Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG 6)?
• (a) Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all.
• (b) Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls.
• (c) Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
• (d) Reduce inequality within and among countries.
Explanation:
• Sustainable Development Goal 6 declares the importance of achieving “clean water and sanitation for all”. It is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations General Assembly to succeed the former Millennium Development Goals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
Explanation:
• Sustainable Development Goal 6 declares the importance of achieving “clean water and sanitation for all”. It is one of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations General Assembly to succeed the former Millennium Development Goals.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/summit-of-the-future-2024/
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The term “Mpox” sometimes mentioned in the news, is a/an/the (a) treatment for smallpox (b) detoxifying agent (c) strange plastic rock (d) DNA virus Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome. Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/ Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome. Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
#### 5. Question
The term “Mpox” sometimes mentioned in the news, is a/an/the
• (a) treatment for smallpox
• (b) detoxifying agent
• (c) strange plastic rock
• (d) DNA virus
Explanation:
• Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome.
• Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
Explanation:
• Context: Mpox, a DNA virus, exhibits a unique evolutionary strategy known as the genomic accordion, involving expansions and contractions of its genome.
• Researchers identified 4-kilobase sections of the genome, previously deemed unimportant, as critical for human-to-human transmissibility and evolutionary adaptability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about genomes is correct? (a) Every organism has a unique genome consisting of a single type of DNA sequence. (b) The human genome contains approximately 50,000 genes. (c) The genome of an organism is the complete set of its genetic material, including genes and non-coding sequences. (d) Genomes are only found in animals and plants, not in microorganisms. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: A genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an organism. This includes not only genes but also non-coding sequences like regulatory elements, introns, and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins. Option A is incorrect because genomes can vary in complexity and can be made up of DNA or RNA. Option B is also incorrect; the human genome is estimated to contain around 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes, not 50,000. Option D is incorrect because genomes are found in all living organisms, including animals, plants, and microorganisms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: A genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an organism. This includes not only genes but also non-coding sequences like regulatory elements, introns, and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins. Option A is incorrect because genomes can vary in complexity and can be made up of DNA or RNA. Option B is also incorrect; the human genome is estimated to contain around 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes, not 50,000. Option D is incorrect because genomes are found in all living organisms, including animals, plants, and microorganisms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
#### 6. Question
Which of the following statements about genomes is correct?
• (a) Every organism has a unique genome consisting of a single type of DNA sequence.
• (b) The human genome contains approximately 50,000 genes.
• (c) The genome of an organism is the complete set of its genetic material, including genes and non-coding sequences.
• (d) Genomes are only found in animals and plants, not in microorganisms.
Explanation:
• A genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an organism. This includes not only genes but also non-coding sequences like regulatory elements, introns, and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins. Option A is incorrect because genomes can vary in complexity and can be made up of DNA or RNA. Option B is also incorrect; the human genome is estimated to contain around 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes, not 50,000. Option D is incorrect because genomes are found in all living organisms, including animals, plants, and microorganisms.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
Explanation:
• A genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an organism. This includes not only genes but also non-coding sequences like regulatory elements, introns, and other DNA sequences that do not code for proteins. Option A is incorrect because genomes can vary in complexity and can be made up of DNA or RNA. Option B is also incorrect; the human genome is estimated to contain around 20,000-25,000 protein-coding genes, not 50,000. Option D is incorrect because genomes are found in all living organisms, including animals, plants, and microorganisms.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/genomic-accordion/
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Ethylene oxide: It is primarily used as an insecticide. It is banned for use in food items in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Following red flags raised by food regulators in Hong Kong and Singapore regarding the presence of a cancer-causing ingredient in certain Indian spice products from some brands, the Indian government has ordered food commissioners to collect samples of spices from all manufacturing units in the country. The harmful substance, ethylene oxide, has been classified as a ‘Group 1 carcinogen’ by the International Agency for Research on Cancer. Ethylene oxide is banned for use in food items in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ethylene-oxide-in-indian-spices/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Following red flags raised by food regulators in Hong Kong and Singapore regarding the presence of a cancer-causing ingredient in certain Indian spice products from some brands, the Indian government has ordered food commissioners to collect samples of spices from all manufacturing units in the country. The harmful substance, ethylene oxide, has been classified as a ‘Group 1 carcinogen’ by the International Agency for Research on Cancer. Ethylene oxide is banned for use in food items in India. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ethylene-oxide-in-indian-spices/
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements about Ethylene oxide:
• It is primarily used as an insecticide. It is banned for use in food items in India.
• It is primarily used as an insecticide.
• It is banned for use in food items in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Context: Following red flags raised by food regulators in Hong Kong and Singapore regarding the presence of a cancer-causing ingredient in certain Indian spice products from some brands, the Indian government has ordered food commissioners to collect samples of spices from all manufacturing units in the country.
• The harmful substance, ethylene oxide, has been classified as a ‘Group 1 carcinogen’ by the International Agency for Research on Cancer.
• Ethylene oxide is banned for use in food items in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ethylene-oxide-in-indian-spices/
Explanation:
• Context: Following red flags raised by food regulators in Hong Kong and Singapore regarding the presence of a cancer-causing ingredient in certain Indian spice products from some brands, the Indian government has ordered food commissioners to collect samples of spices from all manufacturing units in the country.
• The harmful substance, ethylene oxide, has been classified as a ‘Group 1 carcinogen’ by the International Agency for Research on Cancer.
• Ethylene oxide is banned for use in food items in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/ethylene-oxide-in-indian-spices/
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about ‘Pink hydrogen’ is correct? (a) Pink hydrogen is produced from natural gas through steam methane reforming without carbon capture. (b) Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. (c) Pink hydrogen is a form of hydrogen produced from coal gasification with carbon capture. (d) Pink hydrogen is another term for blue hydrogen produced from natural gas with carbon capture. Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India is considering amending the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, to allow private investments in the nuclear sector, aiming to boost nuclear capacity and promote clean energy initiatives, particularly hydrogen. Currently, the Act restricts private ownership of nuclear plants, but proposed amendments would enable private companies to participate in certain activities, such as financing, project development, and equipment supply. The production of ‘pink’ hydrogen, which is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/pink-hydrogen/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Context: India is considering amending the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, to allow private investments in the nuclear sector, aiming to boost nuclear capacity and promote clean energy initiatives, particularly hydrogen. Currently, the Act restricts private ownership of nuclear plants, but proposed amendments would enable private companies to participate in certain activities, such as financing, project development, and equipment supply. The production of ‘pink’ hydrogen, which is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/pink-hydrogen/
#### 8. Question
Which of the following statements about ‘Pink hydrogen’ is correct?
• (a) Pink hydrogen is produced from natural gas through steam methane reforming without carbon capture.
• (b) Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
• (c) Pink hydrogen is a form of hydrogen produced from coal gasification with carbon capture.
• (d) Pink hydrogen is another term for blue hydrogen produced from natural gas with carbon capture.
Explanation:
• Context: India is considering amending the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, to allow private investments in the nuclear sector, aiming to boost nuclear capacity and promote clean energy initiatives, particularly hydrogen.
• Currently, the Act restricts private ownership of nuclear plants, but proposed amendments would enable private companies to participate in certain activities, such as financing, project development, and equipment supply.
• The production of ‘pink’ hydrogen, which is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/pink-hydrogen/
Explanation:
• Context: India is considering amending the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, to allow private investments in the nuclear sector, aiming to boost nuclear capacity and promote clean energy initiatives, particularly hydrogen.
• Currently, the Act restricts private ownership of nuclear plants, but proposed amendments would enable private companies to participate in certain activities, such as financing, project development, and equipment supply.
• The production of ‘pink’ hydrogen, which is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/pink-hydrogen/
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about large language models is true? (a) Large language models are only capable of understanding and generating text in English. (b) Large language models are designed to perform only simple tasks like answering trivia questions. (c) Large language models like GPT-3 can understand and generate text in multiple languages and handle a variety of tasks such as translation, summarization, and content creation. (d) Large language models do not require extensive computational resources for training. Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Meta has unveiled its most advanced Large Language Model (LLM) yet, the Meta Llama 3, which boasts significant improvements in performance and capabilities over its predecessors Large language models (LLMs) are artificial intelligence (AI) programs that use deep learning to process large amounts of text data. LLMs can perform a variety of tasks, including: Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/llama-3/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: Context: Meta has unveiled its most advanced Large Language Model (LLM) yet, the Meta Llama 3, which boasts significant improvements in performance and capabilities over its predecessors Large language models (LLMs) are artificial intelligence (AI) programs that use deep learning to process large amounts of text data. LLMs can perform a variety of tasks, including: Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/llama-3/
#### 9. Question
Which of the following statements about large language models is true?
• (a) Large language models are only capable of understanding and generating text in English.
• (b) Large language models are designed to perform only simple tasks like answering trivia questions.
• (c) Large language models like GPT-3 can understand and generate text in multiple languages and handle a variety of tasks such as translation, summarization, and content creation.
• (d) Large language models do not require extensive computational resources for training.
Explanation:
• Context: Meta has unveiled its most advanced Large Language Model (LLM) yet, the Meta Llama 3, which boasts significant improvements in performance and capabilities over its predecessors
• Large language models (LLMs) are artificial intelligence (AI) programs that use deep learning to process large amounts of text data. LLMs can perform a variety of tasks, including: Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting.
• Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/llama-3/
Explanation:
• Context: Meta has unveiled its most advanced Large Language Model (LLM) yet, the Meta Llama 3, which boasts significant improvements in performance and capabilities over its predecessors
• Large language models (LLMs) are artificial intelligence (AI) programs that use deep learning to process large amounts of text data. LLMs can perform a variety of tasks, including: Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting.
• Translation, Summarization, Object recognition, Content generation, Classification, and Predicting.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/04/23/llama-3/
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following protected sites: Campbell Bay & Galathea National Parks Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park Mount Harriet National Park Rani Jhansi Marine National Park Saddle Peak National Park How many of the above sites are situated/located in/around the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five Correct Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Andaman and Nicobar administration’s plan to establish wildlife sanctuaries on islands traditionally managed and inhabited by the indigenous southern Nicobarese people ignores their rights and disregards the ecological and social impacts. The Andaman Islands consist of 572 islands, with key ones including North Andaman, South Andaman, Little Andaman, and Middle Andaman. It boasts the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, totalling 96, along with 9 national parks. Incorrect Ans: (d) Explanation: Context: The Andaman and Nicobar administration’s plan to establish wildlife sanctuaries on islands traditionally managed and inhabited by the indigenous southern Nicobarese people ignores their rights and disregards the ecological and social impacts. The Andaman Islands consist of 572 islands, with key ones including North Andaman, South Andaman, Little Andaman, and Middle Andaman. It boasts the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, totalling 96, along with 9 national parks.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following protected sites:
• Campbell Bay & Galathea National Parks Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park Mount Harriet National Park Rani Jhansi Marine National Park Saddle Peak National Park
• Campbell Bay & Galathea National Parks
• Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park
• Mount Harriet National Park
• Rani Jhansi Marine National Park
• Saddle Peak National Park
How many of the above sites are situated/located in/around the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar?
• (a) Only two
• (b) Only three
• (c) Only four
• (d) All five
Explanation:
• Context: The Andaman and Nicobar administration’s plan to establish wildlife sanctuaries on islands traditionally managed and inhabited by the indigenous southern Nicobarese people ignores their rights and disregards the ecological and social impacts.
• The Andaman Islands consist of 572 islands, with key ones including North Andaman, South Andaman, Little Andaman, and Middle Andaman. It boasts the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, totalling 96, along with 9 national parks.
Explanation:
• Context: The Andaman and Nicobar administration’s plan to establish wildlife sanctuaries on islands traditionally managed and inhabited by the indigenous southern Nicobarese people ignores their rights and disregards the ecological and social impacts.
• The Andaman Islands consist of 572 islands, with key ones including North Andaman, South Andaman, Little Andaman, and Middle Andaman. It boasts the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, totalling 96, along with 9 national parks.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates
Join our Twitter Channel HERE
Follow our Instagram Channel HERE