UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Chambal River: Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh. The Chambal River has tributaries such as Banas and Parbati. The Chambal River directly flows into the Ganga River. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Chambal River is a significant tributary in the greater Ganga river system, but it does not directly join the Ganga. Statement 1 is correct: The Chambal originates near Janapav hills in the Vindhya Range, specifically in Madhya Pradesh’s Mhow region. Statement 2 is also correct: The river is joined by several important tributaries, including the Banas, Parbati, Kali Sindh, and Shipra. These tributaries enhance its flow and ecological significance. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chambal flows northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before entering Uttar Pradesh, where it merges with the Yamuna River, not the Ganga directly. Incorrect Solution: B The Chambal River is a significant tributary in the greater Ganga river system, but it does not directly join the Ganga. Statement 1 is correct: The Chambal originates near Janapav hills in the Vindhya Range, specifically in Madhya Pradesh’s Mhow region. Statement 2 is also correct: The river is joined by several important tributaries, including the Banas, Parbati, Kali Sindh, and Shipra. These tributaries enhance its flow and ecological significance. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chambal flows northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before entering Uttar Pradesh, where it merges with the Yamuna River, not the Ganga directly.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the Chambal River:

• Chambal River originates from the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh.

• The Chambal River has tributaries such as Banas and Parbati.

• The Chambal River directly flows into the Ganga River.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Chambal River is a significant tributary in the greater Ganga river system, but it does not directly join the Ganga.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Chambal originates near Janapav hills in the Vindhya Range, specifically in Madhya Pradesh’s Mhow region.

• Statement 2 is also correct: The river is joined by several important tributaries, including the Banas, Parbati, Kali Sindh, and Shipra. These tributaries enhance its flow and ecological significance.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chambal flows northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before entering Uttar Pradesh, where it merges with the Yamuna River, not the Ganga directly.

Solution: B

• The Chambal River is a significant tributary in the greater Ganga river system, but it does not directly join the Ganga.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Chambal originates near Janapav hills in the Vindhya Range, specifically in Madhya Pradesh’s Mhow region.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chambal flows northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before entering Uttar Pradesh, where it merges with the Yamuna River, not the Ganga directly.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the L69 Grouping: African nations are not part of the grouping. The group focuses on UNSC reforms, advocating for both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion. India is a member of the L69 Grouping. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The 69 Group is a coalition of developing countries from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Caribbean, committed to achieving comprehensive reform of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). Statement 1 is incorrect: African nations are part of the L.69 Group, reflecting its broad South-South solidarity and support for equitable representation of developing regions in global governance. Statement 2 is correct: The group strongly advocates for expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories of UNSC membership, pushing for greater inclusion of developing countries and correcting the historical imbalance. Statement 3 is also correct: India is a vocal and active member of the L.69 Group, using this platform to push for its longstanding demand for a permanent seat in a reformed UNSC. Incorrect Solution: B The 69 Group is a coalition of developing countries from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Caribbean, committed to achieving comprehensive reform of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). Statement 1 is incorrect: African nations are part of the L.69 Group, reflecting its broad South-South solidarity and support for equitable representation of developing regions in global governance. Statement 2 is correct: The group strongly advocates for expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories of UNSC membership, pushing for greater inclusion of developing countries and correcting the historical imbalance. Statement 3 is also correct: India is a vocal and active member of the L.69 Group, using this platform to push for its longstanding demand for a permanent seat in a reformed UNSC.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the L69 Grouping:

• African nations are not part of the grouping.

• The group focuses on UNSC reforms, advocating for both permanent and non-permanent seat expansion.

• India is a member of the L69 Grouping.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The 69 Group is a coalition of developing countries from Asia, Africa, Latin America, and the Caribbean, committed to achieving comprehensive reform of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

• Statement 1 is incorrect: African nations are part of the L.69 Group, reflecting its broad South-South solidarity and support for equitable representation of developing regions in global governance.

• Statement 2 is correct: The group strongly advocates for expansion in both permanent and non-permanent categories of UNSC membership, pushing for greater inclusion of developing countries and correcting the historical imbalance.

• Statement 3 is also correct: India is a vocal and active member of the L.69 Group, using this platform to push for its longstanding demand for a permanent seat in a reformed UNSC.

Solution: B

• Statement 3 is also correct: India is a vocal and active member of the L.69 Group, using this platform to push for its longstanding demand for a permanent seat in a reformed UNSC.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations. It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security. All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC. Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: C The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War II—Statement 1 is correct. Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States). This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct. Incorrect Solution: C The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War II—Statement 1 is correct. Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States). This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council (UNSC):

• It was established after World War II as a principal organ of the United Nations.

• It is responsible for making binding decisions on international peace and security.

• All members, both permanent and non-permanent, have equal voting power in the UNSC.

• Permanent members can veto decisions made by the UNSC.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: C

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War II—Statement 1 is correct.

• Its primary responsibility is the maintenance of international peace and security, and it is the only UN body with the authority to issue binding resolutions that member states are obligated to follow under the UN Charter—Statement 2 is also correct.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While all 15 members of the UNSC (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent) each have one vote, the real power imbalance lies in the veto power held exclusively by the five permanent members (P5: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States).

• This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

Solution: C

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is one of the six principal organs of the UN, established in 1945 following the end of World War II—Statement 1 is correct.

• This veto allows any P5 nation to block the adoption of any “substantive” resolution, even if the rest of the Council votes in favor—making Statement 4 correct.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is NOT a power of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)? a) Restrict activities impacting air quality b) Conduct research on pollution c) Penalize individuals for violating air quality standards d) Issue binding directions to authorities Correct Solution: C The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct. The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power. Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority. However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals. Incorrect Solution: C The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct. The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power. Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority. However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is NOT a power of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)?

• a) Restrict activities impacting air quality

• b) Conduct research on pollution

• c) Penalize individuals for violating air quality standards

• d) Issue binding directions to authorities

Solution: C

• The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the CAQM Act, 2021, to provide a comprehensive and inter-jurisdictional approach to manage air quality in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. It holds significant powers to coordinate actions across states, supersede other bodies, and issue binding directions to central and state authorities—making option a) correct.

• The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power.

• Moreover, the Commission can restrict or regulate activities such as construction, industrial operations, and vehicular traffic during pollution spikes—confirming that option d) is also within its authority.

However, option c) is incorrect because the CAQM does not directly penalize individuals. The power to impose fines or take punitive action against individuals lies with state pollution control boards, municipal bodies, or police, depending on the violation. The CAQM may recommend action or coordinate enforcement, but it lacks direct punitive authority over individuals.

Solution: C

• The CAQM also engages in research and monitoring to identify pollution sources and suggest interventions—thus, option b) is also a valid power.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the PLI scheme for textiles: It aims to reduce India’s reliance on textile imports. The scheme provides tax benefits based on incremental sales of domestically manufactured goods. The PLI scheme aims to make India a global manufacturing hub by focusing on high-growth sectors. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct. It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness. Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive. Incorrect Solution: B The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct. It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness. Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains. However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the significance of the PLI scheme for textiles:

• It aims to reduce India’s reliance on textile imports.

• The scheme provides tax benefits based on incremental sales of domestically manufactured goods.

• The PLI scheme aims to make India a global manufacturing hub by focusing on high-growth sectors.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for textiles, launched in 2021, is a key initiative aimed at enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and reducing import dependence—making Statement 1 correct.

• It seeks to boost domestic production of high-value man-made fibre (MMF) garments, MMF fabrics, and technical textiles, thereby reducing India’s reliance on textile imports and improving export competitiveness.

• Statement 3 is also correct. The PLI scheme is part of a broader strategy across multiple sectors to position India as a global manufacturing hub. By focusing on high-growth and employment-intensive sectors like textiles, electronics, and pharmaceuticals, the government intends to boost domestic capacity, generate jobs, and integrate Indian firms into global value chains.

However, Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme does not offer tax benefits. Instead, it provides direct financial incentives based on incremental sales of eligible manufactured goods over a base year. These incentives are disbursed annually, provided the beneficiary meets investment and sales thresholds, making it performance-linked rather than a tax-based incentive.

Solution: B

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the functioning of Ice Stupas: The process exploits the concept of latent heat to store water in a frozen state. Water is transported via gravity-fed pipes to higher altitudes where it is released and frozen. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Ice Stupas are artificial glaciers designed to address water scarcity in high-altitude arid regions like Ladakh. The technique ingeniously uses the principle of latent heat, where water in its frozen form (ice) holds thermal energy. This energy remains “stored” until melting, enabling delayed release of water during critical sowing months in spring when natural water sources are scarce. Thus, Statement 1 is correct. The second aspect involves the use of gravity-fed piping systems to transport water from lower streams or rivers to the desired site. At night, when temperatures drop, water is released vertically through nozzles to freeze in the air, forming conical ice structures. These gravity-driven systems eliminate the need for electricity or fuel, making the process eco-friendly and cost-effective. Therefore, Statement 2 is also correct. Incorrect Solution: D Ice Stupas are artificial glaciers designed to address water scarcity in high-altitude arid regions like Ladakh. The technique ingeniously uses the principle of latent heat, where water in its frozen form (ice) holds thermal energy. This energy remains “stored” until melting, enabling delayed release of water during critical sowing months in spring when natural water sources are scarce. Thus, Statement 1 is correct. The second aspect involves the use of gravity-fed piping systems to transport water from lower streams or rivers to the desired site. At night, when temperatures drop, water is released vertically through nozzles to freeze in the air, forming conical ice structures. These gravity-driven systems eliminate the need for electricity or fuel, making the process eco-friendly and cost-effective. Therefore, Statement 2 is also correct.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the functioning of Ice Stupas:

• The process exploits the concept of latent heat to store water in a frozen state.

• Water is transported via gravity-fed pipes to higher altitudes where it is released and frozen.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Ice Stupas are artificial glaciers designed to address water scarcity in high-altitude arid regions like Ladakh. The technique ingeniously uses the principle of latent heat, where water in its frozen form (ice) holds thermal energy. This energy remains “stored” until melting, enabling delayed release of water during critical sowing months in spring when natural water sources are scarce. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.

• The second aspect involves the use of gravity-fed piping systems to transport water from lower streams or rivers to the desired site. At night, when temperatures drop, water is released vertically through nozzles to freeze in the air, forming conical ice structures. These gravity-driven systems eliminate the need for electricity or fuel, making the process eco-friendly and cost-effective. Therefore, Statement 2 is also correct.

Solution: D

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding PM Mudra Yojana (PMMY): PMMY covers both farm and non-farm activities through its Kishor and Tarun categories. Loans under the Shishu category are offered at a fixed government-subsidized interest rate. PMMY aims to promote financial inclusion among marginalized sections such as SCs, STs, and women. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect — PMMY excludes farm activities but includes non-farm income-generating micro-enterprises in manufacturing, processing, trading, and service sectors. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMMY does not offer interest subvention; interest rates are decided by lending institutions within RBI norms and based on borrower profile and credit risk. Statement 3 is correct — the scheme prioritizes underserved groups including SCs, STs, OBCs, women, and minorities. Dedicated targets and simplified loan processing aim to reduce barriers to financial access. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect — PMMY excludes farm activities but includes non-farm income-generating micro-enterprises in manufacturing, processing, trading, and service sectors. Statement 2 is incorrect because PMMY does not offer interest subvention; interest rates are decided by lending institutions within RBI norms and based on borrower profile and credit risk. Statement 3 is correct — the scheme prioritizes underserved groups including SCs, STs, OBCs, women, and minorities. Dedicated targets and simplified loan processing aim to reduce barriers to financial access.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding PM Mudra Yojana (PMMY):

• PMMY covers both farm and non-farm activities through its Kishor and Tarun categories.

• Loans under the Shishu category are offered at a fixed government-subsidized interest rate.

• PMMY aims to promote financial inclusion among marginalized sections such as SCs, STs, and women.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect — PMMY excludes farm activities but includes non-farm income-generating micro-enterprises in manufacturing, processing, trading, and service sectors.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because PMMY does not offer interest subvention; interest rates are decided by lending institutions within RBI norms and based on borrower profile and credit risk.

• Statement 3 is correct — the scheme prioritizes underserved groups including SCs, STs, OBCs, women, and minorities. Dedicated targets and simplified loan processing aim to reduce barriers to financial access.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect — PMMY excludes farm activities but includes non-farm income-generating micro-enterprises in manufacturing, processing, trading, and service sectors.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because PMMY does not offer interest subvention; interest rates are decided by lending institutions within RBI norms and based on borrower profile and credit risk.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about bear markets: Bear markets are always accompanied by a recession. Investor sentiment in bear markets is dominated by risk aversion and fear. Demand for fixed-income securities usually increases during bear markets. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While bear markets and recessions often co-occur, they are not synonymous. A bear market may arise without a formal recession if investor panic is driven by global tensions or sharp corrections in overvalued sectors. Statement 2 is correct—risk aversion and fear dominate in bear markets, triggering panic selling and reduced exposure to equity assets. Statement 3 is also correct. Investors typically seek safer assets like bonds or gold, which offer more stability during economic downturns. This shift explains why bond yields fall during bear phases due to higher demand. Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. While bear markets and recessions often co-occur, they are not synonymous. A bear market may arise without a formal recession if investor panic is driven by global tensions or sharp corrections in overvalued sectors. Statement 2 is correct—risk aversion and fear dominate in bear markets, triggering panic selling and reduced exposure to equity assets. Statement 3 is also correct. Investors typically seek safer assets like bonds or gold, which offer more stability during economic downturns. This shift explains why bond yields fall during bear phases due to higher demand. Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements about bear markets:

• Bear markets are always accompanied by a recession.

• Investor sentiment in bear markets is dominated by risk aversion and fear.

• Demand for fixed-income securities usually increases during bear markets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While bear markets and recessions often co-occur, they are not synonymous. A bear market may arise without a formal recession if investor panic is driven by global tensions or sharp corrections in overvalued sectors.

• Statement 2 is correct—risk aversion and fear dominate in bear markets, triggering panic selling and reduced exposure to equity assets.

• Statement 3 is also correct. Investors typically seek safer assets like bonds or gold, which offer more stability during economic downturns. This shift explains why bond yields fall during bear phases due to higher demand. Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct—risk aversion and fear dominate in bear markets, triggering panic selling and reduced exposure to equity assets.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the educational and literary contributions of Buddhism: Buddhist texts were primarily composed in Sanskrit during the Buddha’s lifetime. Nalanda and Vikramshila became global centers of learning under Buddhist patronage. Jataka tales are a collection of stories depicting the past lives of the Buddha. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Nalanda and Vikramshila were prominent Buddhist monastic universities, attracting scholars from China, Korea, Tibet, and Sri Lanka. They flourished during the Gupta and Pala periods. The Jataka tales are an extensive collection of narratives from the Pali Canon, illustrating the Buddha’s previous births and emphasizing moral values. Statement 1 is incorrect – Early Buddhist texts, especially Theravada scriptures, were composed in Pali and Prakrit, not Sanskrit. Mahayana texts later adopted Sanskrit. Incorrect Solution: C Nalanda and Vikramshila were prominent Buddhist monastic universities, attracting scholars from China, Korea, Tibet, and Sri Lanka. They flourished during the Gupta and Pala periods. The Jataka tales are an extensive collection of narratives from the Pali Canon, illustrating the Buddha’s previous births and emphasizing moral values. Statement 1 is incorrect – Early Buddhist texts, especially Theravada scriptures, were composed in Pali and Prakrit, not Sanskrit. Mahayana texts later adopted Sanskrit.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the educational and literary contributions of Buddhism:

• Buddhist texts were primarily composed in Sanskrit during the Buddha’s lifetime.

• Nalanda and Vikramshila became global centers of learning under Buddhist patronage.

• Jataka tales are a collection of stories depicting the past lives of the Buddha.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

Nalanda and Vikramshila were prominent Buddhist monastic universities, attracting scholars from China, Korea, Tibet, and Sri Lanka. They flourished during the Gupta and Pala periods. The Jataka tales are an extensive collection of narratives from the Pali Canon, illustrating the Buddha’s previous births and emphasizing moral values.

Statement 1 is incorrect – Early Buddhist texts, especially Theravada scriptures, were composed in Pali and Prakrit, not Sanskrit. Mahayana texts later adopted Sanskrit.

Solution: C

Statement 1 is incorrect – Early Buddhist texts, especially Theravada scriptures, were composed in Pali and Prakrit, not Sanskrit. Mahayana texts later adopted Sanskrit.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why mirrors form virtual images? a) Because light rays are absorbed and then re-emitted by the mirror surface b) Because the metallic surface bends light rays to converge at a real point c) Because light slows down on hitting the glass layer and creates refraction d) Because reflected rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror Correct Solution: D A virtual image in a mirror is formed when reflected rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror. The human eye traces these rays backward, creating the illusion of a source located behind the reflective surface. This differs from a real image, which is formed by actual convergence of rays. The key principle is specular reflection—smooth surfaces reflect light in a uniform manner such that angle of incidence = angle of reflection. The metallic layer (silver or aluminium) does not bend or refract the rays. Instead, it reflects them. Reflected rays do not meet in space but are extended backward by the eye, which perceives the virtual image. This is foundational to the physics of flat mirrors and is responsible for the accurate reproduction of appearance in personal mirrors, periscopes, or optical instruments. Incorrect Solution: D A virtual image in a mirror is formed when reflected rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror. The human eye traces these rays backward, creating the illusion of a source located behind the reflective surface. This differs from a real image, which is formed by actual convergence of rays. The key principle is specular reflection—smooth surfaces reflect light in a uniform manner such that angle of incidence = angle of reflection. The metallic layer (silver or aluminium) does not bend or refract the rays. Instead, it reflects them. Reflected rays do not meet in space but are extended backward by the eye, which perceives the virtual image. This is foundational to the physics of flat mirrors and is responsible for the accurate reproduction of appearance in personal mirrors, periscopes, or optical instruments.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following best explains why mirrors form virtual images?

• a) Because light rays are absorbed and then re-emitted by the mirror surface

• b) Because the metallic surface bends light rays to converge at a real point

• c) Because light slows down on hitting the glass layer and creates refraction

• d) Because reflected rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror

Solution: D

• A virtual image in a mirror is formed when reflected rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror. The human eye traces these rays backward, creating the illusion of a source located behind the reflective surface. This differs from a real image, which is formed by actual convergence of rays.

• The key principle is specular reflection—smooth surfaces reflect light in a uniform manner such that angle of incidence = angle of reflection. The metallic layer (silver or aluminium) does not bend or refract the rays. Instead, it reflects them.

• Reflected rays do not meet in space but are extended backward by the eye, which perceives the virtual image.

• This is foundational to the physics of flat mirrors and is responsible for the accurate reproduction of appearance in personal mirrors, periscopes, or optical instruments.

Solution: D

• Reflected rays do not meet in space but are extended backward by the eye, which perceives the virtual image.

• This is foundational to the physics of flat mirrors and is responsible for the accurate reproduction of appearance in personal mirrors, periscopes, or optical instruments.

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