UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 November 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
.The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Megalithic culture in India? a) Use of bronze tools for agriculture. b) Rock shelters exclusively depicting daily life scenes. c) Absence of iron tools and weapons. d) Construction of large stone burial monuments. Correct Solution: d) Megalithic culture is characterized by the construction of large stone monuments (megaliths), primarily used as burial or commemorative structures. Iron tools and weapons were also prevalent, distinguishing this culture from earlier ones like the Chalcolithic. Incorrect Solution: d) Megalithic culture is characterized by the construction of large stone monuments (megaliths), primarily used as burial or commemorative structures. Iron tools and weapons were also prevalent, distinguishing this culture from earlier ones like the Chalcolithic.
#### 1. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Megalithic culture in India?
• a) Use of bronze tools for agriculture.
• b) Rock shelters exclusively depicting daily life scenes.
• c) Absence of iron tools and weapons.
• d) Construction of large stone burial monuments.
Solution: d)
Megalithic culture is characterized by the construction of large stone monuments (megaliths), primarily used as burial or commemorative structures. Iron tools and weapons were also prevalent, distinguishing this culture from earlier ones like the Chalcolithic.
Solution: d)
Megalithic culture is characterized by the construction of large stone monuments (megaliths), primarily used as burial or commemorative structures. Iron tools and weapons were also prevalent, distinguishing this culture from earlier ones like the Chalcolithic.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following: Statement-I: The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) can refer cases to the ICC even if the crimes occurred outside the jurisdiction of the ICC. Statement-II: The ICC is a judicial body under the United Nations and operates within its framework. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The UNSC can refer cases to the ICC under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, even if the crimes occurred outside the ICC’s jurisdiction. Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC is not a UN body. It operates independently but cooperates with the UN under agreements. About International Criminal Court (ICC): Establishment: Created by the Rome Statute in 1998; began operations in 2003. Headquarters: Located in The Hague, Netherlands. Purpose: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression. Membership: 123 countries recognize ICC authority; key non-members include the US, China, Russia, and India. Structure: Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms. Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents. Registry: Manages administrative and operational support. Jurisdiction: Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states. Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act. Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002. Relationship with UN: Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements. The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The UNSC can refer cases to the ICC under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, even if the crimes occurred outside the ICC’s jurisdiction. Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC is not a UN body. It operates independently but cooperates with the UN under agreements. About International Criminal Court (ICC): Establishment: Created by the Rome Statute in 1998; began operations in 2003. Headquarters: Located in The Hague, Netherlands. Purpose: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression. Membership: 123 countries recognize ICC authority; key non-members include the US, China, Russia, and India. Structure: Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms. Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents. Registry: Manages administrative and operational support. Jurisdiction: Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states. Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act. Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002. Relationship with UN: Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements. The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following:
Statement-I: The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) can refer cases to the ICC even if the crimes occurred outside the jurisdiction of the ICC.
Statement-II: The ICC is a judicial body under the United Nations and operates within its framework.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. The UNSC can refer cases to the ICC under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, even if the crimes occurred outside the ICC’s jurisdiction.
Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC is not a UN body. It operates independently but cooperates with the UN under agreements.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
• Establishment: Created by the Rome Statute in 1998; began operations in 2003.
• Headquarters: Located in The Hague, Netherlands.
• Purpose: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression.
• Membership: 123 countries recognize ICC authority; key non-members include the US, China, Russia, and India.
• Structure: Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms. Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents. Registry: Manages administrative and operational support.
• Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms.
• Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents.
• Registry: Manages administrative and operational support.
• Jurisdiction: Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states. Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act. Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002.
• Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states.
• Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act.
• Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002.
• Relationship with UN: Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements. The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.
• Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements.
• The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.
Solution: c)
Statement-I is correct. The UNSC can refer cases to the ICC under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, even if the crimes occurred outside the ICC’s jurisdiction.
Statement-II is incorrect. The ICC is not a UN body. It operates independently but cooperates with the UN under agreements.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
• Establishment: Created by the Rome Statute in 1998; began operations in 2003.
• Headquarters: Located in The Hague, Netherlands.
• Purpose: Prosecutes individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression.
• Membership: 123 countries recognize ICC authority; key non-members include the US, China, Russia, and India.
• Structure: Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms. Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents. Registry: Manages administrative and operational support.
• Judges: 18 judges elected for non-renewable nine-year terms.
• Presidency: Comprises a President and two Vice-Presidents.
• Registry: Manages administrative and operational support.
• Jurisdiction: Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states. Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act. Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002.
• Covers crimes committed in member states or by nationals of member states.
• Operates only when national courts are unable or unwilling to act.
• Jurisdiction applies only to crimes committed after July 1, 2002.
• Relationship with UN: Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements. The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.
• Not a UN body but cooperates through agreements.
• The UN Security Council can refer cases to the ICC if outside its jurisdiction.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which of the following is a unique feature of the Marine Fisheries Census 2025? a) Exclusive focus on marine fish species diversity. b) Use of drones for mapping fishing zones. c) Fully digital data collection using mobile apps and virtual servers. d) Collection of data limited to the economic status of fisherfolk. Correct Solution: c) The Marine Fisheries Census 2025 is distinct for its fully digital process, utilizing mobile apps and virtual servers to ensure real-time data collection and faster processing. It covers socio-economic aspects and fisherfolk engagement, rather than solely focusing on marine species or economic data. Department Involved: Conducted by Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) and the Union Ministry of Fisheries, with support from 3,500 staff for the 2025 census. Features of 2025 Census: Fully digitalprocess using mobile apps and virtual servers for real-time data collection. Covers 2 million householdsacross India’s coastline, including remote locations like Bitra Island and Campbell Bay. Collects data on household sizes, socio-economic status, and fisherfolk engagement. 80% faster data processing compared to previous censuses. Incorrect Solution: c) The Marine Fisheries Census 2025 is distinct for its fully digital process, utilizing mobile apps and virtual servers to ensure real-time data collection and faster processing. It covers socio-economic aspects and fisherfolk engagement, rather than solely focusing on marine species or economic data. Department Involved: Conducted by Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) and the Union Ministry of Fisheries, with support from 3,500 staff for the 2025 census. Features of 2025 Census: Fully digitalprocess using mobile apps and virtual servers for real-time data collection. Covers 2 million householdsacross India’s coastline, including remote locations like Bitra Island and Campbell Bay. Collects data on household sizes, socio-economic status, and fisherfolk engagement. 80% faster data processing compared to previous censuses.
#### 3. Question
Which of the following is a unique feature of the Marine Fisheries Census 2025?
• a) Exclusive focus on marine fish species diversity.
• b) Use of drones for mapping fishing zones.
• c) Fully digital data collection using mobile apps and virtual servers.
• d) Collection of data limited to the economic status of fisherfolk.
Solution: c)
The Marine Fisheries Census 2025 is distinct for its fully digital process, utilizing mobile apps and virtual servers to ensure real-time data collection and faster processing. It covers socio-economic aspects and fisherfolk engagement, rather than solely focusing on marine species or economic data.
Department Involved:
Conducted by Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) and the Union Ministry of Fisheries, with support from 3,500 staff for the 2025 census.
Features of 2025 Census:
• Fully digitalprocess using mobile apps and virtual servers for real-time data collection.
• Covers 2 million householdsacross India’s coastline, including remote locations like Bitra Island and Campbell Bay.
• Collects data on household sizes, socio-economic status, and fisherfolk engagement.
• 80% faster data processing compared to previous censuses.
Solution: c)
The Marine Fisheries Census 2025 is distinct for its fully digital process, utilizing mobile apps and virtual servers to ensure real-time data collection and faster processing. It covers socio-economic aspects and fisherfolk engagement, rather than solely focusing on marine species or economic data.
Department Involved:
Conducted by Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) and the Union Ministry of Fisheries, with support from 3,500 staff for the 2025 census.
Features of 2025 Census:
• Fully digitalprocess using mobile apps and virtual servers for real-time data collection.
• Covers 2 million householdsacross India’s coastline, including remote locations like Bitra Island and Campbell Bay.
• Collects data on household sizes, socio-economic status, and fisherfolk engagement.
• 80% faster data processing compared to previous censuses.
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty: It was launched during the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024. Membership includes countries, international organizations, financial institutions, and NGOs. Operational funding is solely provided by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance was launched at the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024. Statement 2 is correct. Membership includes 81 countries, 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs. Statement 3 is incorrect. Operational funding is shared by member countries and institutions like FAO, UNICEF, and the World Bank, not FAO alone. The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty aims to address the urgent global challenges of hunger and povertyexacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic, economic disparities, conflicts, and climate change. About Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty: Launch:Introduced at Brazil G20 Summit 2024. Objective:Connect countries in need with partners offering technical expertise or financial support to eradicate hunger and poverty. Membership:81 countries (including India), 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs and philanthropic foundations. Function: Acts as a matchmaking platform for sharing proven policies, facilitating technical assistance, and mobilizing financial aid. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance was launched at the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024. Statement 2 is correct. Membership includes 81 countries, 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs. Statement 3 is incorrect. Operational funding is shared by member countries and institutions like FAO, UNICEF, and the World Bank, not FAO alone. The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty aims to address the urgent global challenges of hunger and povertyexacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic, economic disparities, conflicts, and climate change. About Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty: Launch:Introduced at Brazil G20 Summit 2024. Objective:Connect countries in need with partners offering technical expertise or financial support to eradicate hunger and poverty. Membership:81 countries (including India), 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs and philanthropic foundations. Function: Acts as a matchmaking platform for sharing proven policies, facilitating technical assistance, and mobilizing financial aid.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements about the Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:
• It was launched during the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024.
• Membership includes countries, international organizations, financial institutions, and NGOs.
• Operational funding is solely provided by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance was launched at the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024.
Statement 2 is correct. Membership includes 81 countries, 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Operational funding is shared by member countries and institutions like FAO, UNICEF, and the World Bank, not FAO alone.
• The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty aims to address the urgent global challenges of hunger and povertyexacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic, economic disparities, conflicts, and climate change.
About Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:
• Launch:Introduced at Brazil G20 Summit 2024.
• Objective:Connect countries in need with partners offering technical expertise or financial support to eradicate hunger and poverty.
• Membership:81 countries (including India), 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs and philanthropic foundations.
• Function: Acts as a matchmaking platform for sharing proven policies, facilitating technical assistance, and mobilizing financial aid.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct. The Global Alliance was launched at the Brazil G20 Summit in 2024.
Statement 2 is correct. Membership includes 81 countries, 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Operational funding is shared by member countries and institutions like FAO, UNICEF, and the World Bank, not FAO alone.
• The Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty aims to address the urgent global challenges of hunger and povertyexacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic, economic disparities, conflicts, and climate change.
About Global Alliance Against Hunger and Poverty:
• Launch:Introduced at Brazil G20 Summit 2024.
• Objective:Connect countries in need with partners offering technical expertise or financial support to eradicate hunger and poverty.
• Membership:81 countries (including India), 26 international organizations, 9 financial institutions, and 31 NGOs and philanthropic foundations.
• Function: Acts as a matchmaking platform for sharing proven policies, facilitating technical assistance, and mobilizing financial aid.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI): It was established under the Ministry of Power. It is responsible for implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM). Its mandate was expanded to include the entire renewable energy sector. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power. Statement 2 is correct. SECI plays a critical role in implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM). Statement 3 is correct. In 2015, SECI’s mandate was expanded to cover the entire renewable energy sector. About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI): Establishment:Founded on 20th September 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Purpose:Facilitates implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and other renewable energy targets. CPSU for Renewables:The only Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to renewable energy. Mission objectives: Lead in large-scale solarinstallations, plants, and parks. Promote solar energy use in remote areas. Deploy new technologies to harness solar energy. Structure:Initially a not-for-profit Section-25 company under the Companies Act, 1956; later restructured in 2015 into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013. Mandate expansion:Broadened to cover the entire renewable energy sector, including project development and power trading. Power trading role: Trades solar power generated under MNRE schemes. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power. Statement 2 is correct. SECI plays a critical role in implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM). Statement 3 is correct. In 2015, SECI’s mandate was expanded to cover the entire renewable energy sector. About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI): Establishment:Founded on 20th September 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Purpose:Facilitates implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and other renewable energy targets. CPSU for Renewables:The only Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to renewable energy. Mission objectives: Lead in large-scale solarinstallations, plants, and parks. Promote solar energy use in remote areas. Deploy new technologies to harness solar energy. Structure:Initially a not-for-profit Section-25 company under the Companies Act, 1956; later restructured in 2015 into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013. Mandate expansion:Broadened to cover the entire renewable energy sector, including project development and power trading. Power trading role: Trades solar power generated under MNRE schemes.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
• It was established under the Ministry of Power.
• It is responsible for implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM).
• Its mandate was expanded to include the entire renewable energy sector.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power.
Statement 2 is correct. SECI plays a critical role in implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM).
Statement 3 is correct. In 2015, SECI’s mandate was expanded to cover the entire renewable energy sector.
About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
• Establishment:Founded on 20th September 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• Purpose:Facilitates implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and other renewable energy targets.
• CPSU for Renewables:The only Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to renewable energy.
Mission objectives:
• Lead in large-scale solarinstallations, plants, and parks.
• Promote solar energy use in remote areas.
• Deploy new technologies to harness solar energy.
• Structure:Initially a not-for-profit Section-25 company under the Companies Act, 1956; later restructured in 2015 into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013.
• Mandate expansion:Broadened to cover the entire renewable energy sector, including project development and power trading.
• Power trading role: Trades solar power generated under MNRE schemes.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect. SECI was established in 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Power.
Statement 2 is correct. SECI plays a critical role in implementing the National Solar Mission (NSM).
Statement 3 is correct. In 2015, SECI’s mandate was expanded to cover the entire renewable energy sector.
About Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI):
• Establishment:Founded on 20th September 2011 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• Purpose:Facilitates implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and other renewable energy targets.
• CPSU for Renewables:The only Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) dedicated to renewable energy.
Mission objectives:
• Lead in large-scale solarinstallations, plants, and parks.
• Promote solar energy use in remote areas.
• Deploy new technologies to harness solar energy.
• Structure:Initially a not-for-profit Section-25 company under the Companies Act, 1956; later restructured in 2015 into a Section-3 company under the Companies Act, 2013.
• Mandate expansion:Broadened to cover the entire renewable energy sector, including project development and power trading.
• Power trading role: Trades solar power generated under MNRE schemes.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points What makes the Kenyan lesser mealworm significant in environmental research? a) It is the first insect species capable of digesting polystyrene. b) It uses enzymes to convert plastics directly into biofuels. c) It is primarily found in marine ecosystems. d) It degrades polystyrene with the help of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. Correct Solution: d) The Kenyan lesser mealworm, a larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, is significant because it degrades polystyrene with the assistance of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. While not the first insect species to degrade plastics, it is the first African-native species identified for this purpose. About Mealworm Larvae: Species:The Kenyan lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling Habitat:Found in poultry rearing houses; thrives in warm, food-rich environments. Plastic Consumption:Capable of degrading polystyrene with assistance from gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. Significance:Shows potential for scalable solutions to plastic degradation without direct release of insects into the environment. Plastic-Decomposing Insects: Yellow Mealworms (Tenebrio molitor):Break down polystyrene with gut bacteria. Superworms (Zophobas morio):Known to digest synthetic plastics like polystyrene. Kenyan Lesser Mealworm: The first African-native species identified to degrade polystyrene. Incorrect Solution: d) The Kenyan lesser mealworm, a larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, is significant because it degrades polystyrene with the assistance of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. While not the first insect species to degrade plastics, it is the first African-native species identified for this purpose. About Mealworm Larvae: Species:The Kenyan lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling Habitat:Found in poultry rearing houses; thrives in warm, food-rich environments. Plastic Consumption:Capable of degrading polystyrene with assistance from gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. Significance:Shows potential for scalable solutions to plastic degradation without direct release of insects into the environment. Plastic-Decomposing Insects: Yellow Mealworms (Tenebrio molitor):Break down polystyrene with gut bacteria. Superworms (Zophobas morio):Known to digest synthetic plastics like polystyrene. Kenyan Lesser Mealworm: The first African-native species identified to degrade polystyrene.
#### 6. Question
What makes the Kenyan lesser mealworm significant in environmental research?
• a) It is the first insect species capable of digesting polystyrene.
• b) It uses enzymes to convert plastics directly into biofuels.
• c) It is primarily found in marine ecosystems.
• d) It degrades polystyrene with the help of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.
Solution: d)
The Kenyan lesser mealworm, a larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, is significant because it degrades polystyrene with the assistance of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. While not the first insect species to degrade plastics, it is the first African-native species identified for this purpose.
About Mealworm Larvae:
• Species:The Kenyan lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling
• Habitat:Found in poultry rearing houses; thrives in warm, food-rich environments.
• Plastic Consumption:Capable of degrading polystyrene with assistance from gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.
• Significance:Shows potential for scalable solutions to plastic degradation without direct release of insects into the environment.
Plastic-Decomposing Insects:
• Yellow Mealworms (Tenebrio molitor):Break down polystyrene with gut bacteria.
• Superworms (Zophobas morio):Known to digest synthetic plastics like polystyrene.
• Kenyan Lesser Mealworm: The first African-native species identified to degrade polystyrene.
Solution: d)
The Kenyan lesser mealworm, a larval form of the Alphitobius darkling beetle, is significant because it degrades polystyrene with the assistance of gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes. While not the first insect species to degrade plastics, it is the first African-native species identified for this purpose.
About Mealworm Larvae:
• Species:The Kenyan lesser mealworm is the larval form of the Alphitobius darkling
• Habitat:Found in poultry rearing houses; thrives in warm, food-rich environments.
• Plastic Consumption:Capable of degrading polystyrene with assistance from gut bacteria like Proteobacteria and Firmicutes.
• Significance:Shows potential for scalable solutions to plastic degradation without direct release of insects into the environment.
Plastic-Decomposing Insects:
• Yellow Mealworms (Tenebrio molitor):Break down polystyrene with gut bacteria.
• Superworms (Zophobas morio):Known to digest synthetic plastics like polystyrene.
• Kenyan Lesser Mealworm: The first African-native species identified to degrade polystyrene.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the actions under National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-SHARKS): It advocates species cataloging through genetic coding and indicator development. It encourages the unrestricted promotion of shark fishing for export revenue. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The plan proposes species cataloging through genetic coding and the development of species-specific indicators using survey data to bridge research gaps. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks discourages unrestricted shark fishing and instead promotes sustainable and regulated fishing practices. Actions: Avoid promoting direct shark fishing until sufficient scientific data is available. Implement monitoring, control, and surveillance (MCS)plans promptly. Identify shark breeding grounds and seasons; adopt conservation measures like seasonal bansand area closures. Initiate species cataloging through genetic codingand develop species-specific indicators using survey data. Conduct awareness drivesfor stakeholders, fishermen, and associations to encourage monitoring and reporting of shark catches. Research value addition for sharks and explore eco-tourism opportunities like reef shark diving. Enforce the fin-attached policyand review shark export policies to encourage value-added products. Introduce logbook systems, develop a national shark identification kit, and build research capacity in taxonomy and data collection. Align with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and promote regional cooperation for better shark conservation. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The plan proposes species cataloging through genetic coding and the development of species-specific indicators using survey data to bridge research gaps. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks discourages unrestricted shark fishing and instead promotes sustainable and regulated fishing practices. Actions: Avoid promoting direct shark fishing until sufficient scientific data is available. Implement monitoring, control, and surveillance (MCS)plans promptly. Identify shark breeding grounds and seasons; adopt conservation measures like seasonal bansand area closures. Initiate species cataloging through genetic codingand develop species-specific indicators using survey data. Conduct awareness drivesfor stakeholders, fishermen, and associations to encourage monitoring and reporting of shark catches. Research value addition for sharks and explore eco-tourism opportunities like reef shark diving. Enforce the fin-attached policyand review shark export policies to encourage value-added products. Introduce logbook systems, develop a national shark identification kit, and build research capacity in taxonomy and data collection. Align with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and promote regional cooperation for better shark conservation.
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the actions under National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-SHARKS):
• It advocates species cataloging through genetic coding and indicator development.
• It encourages the unrestricted promotion of shark fishing for export revenue.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct. The plan proposes species cataloging through genetic coding and the development of species-specific indicators using survey data to bridge research gaps.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks discourages unrestricted shark fishing and instead promotes sustainable and regulated fishing practices.
Actions:
• Avoid promoting direct shark fishing until sufficient scientific data is available.
• Implement monitoring, control, and surveillance (MCS)plans promptly.
• Identify shark breeding grounds and seasons; adopt conservation measures like seasonal bansand area closures.
• Initiate species cataloging through genetic codingand develop species-specific indicators using survey data.
• Conduct awareness drivesfor stakeholders, fishermen, and associations to encourage monitoring and reporting of shark catches.
• Research value addition for sharks and explore eco-tourism opportunities like reef shark diving.
• Enforce the fin-attached policyand review shark export policies to encourage value-added products.
• Introduce logbook systems, develop a national shark identification kit, and build research capacity in taxonomy and data collection.
• Align with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and promote regional cooperation for better shark conservation.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct. The plan proposes species cataloging through genetic coding and the development of species-specific indicators using survey data to bridge research gaps.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks discourages unrestricted shark fishing and instead promotes sustainable and regulated fishing practices.
Actions:
• Avoid promoting direct shark fishing until sufficient scientific data is available.
• Implement monitoring, control, and surveillance (MCS)plans promptly.
• Identify shark breeding grounds and seasons; adopt conservation measures like seasonal bansand area closures.
• Initiate species cataloging through genetic codingand develop species-specific indicators using survey data.
• Conduct awareness drivesfor stakeholders, fishermen, and associations to encourage monitoring and reporting of shark catches.
• Research value addition for sharks and explore eco-tourism opportunities like reef shark diving.
• Enforce the fin-attached policyand review shark export policies to encourage value-added products.
• Introduce logbook systems, develop a national shark identification kit, and build research capacity in taxonomy and data collection.
• Align with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and promote regional cooperation for better shark conservation.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs): ICBMs are exclusively designed for nuclear warhead delivery. India’s Agni V is a solid-fuelled ICBM with a range of 7,000–10,000 km. Agni VI will be India’s first ICBM to feature MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles). How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While ICBMs are primarily designed for nuclear warhead delivery, they can also carry conventional warheads. Statement 2 is correct. Agni V is a solid-fuelled missile with an estimated range of 7,000–10,000 km. Statement 3 is correct. Agni VI, which is under development, will feature MIRV capability, enhancing India’s deterrence capacity. About Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM): Definition:Long-range ballistic missile primarily designed for delivering nuclear weapons. Range:Over 5,500 km, maximum ranges between 7,000 and 16,000 km. Speed:Exceeds 20,000 km/h. Countries with ICBMs:Russia, United States, China, France, India, United Kingdom, Israel, North Korea. India’s ICBMs: Agni V:Solid-fuelled missile with a range of 7,000–10,000 km. Agni VI:Upcoming iteration with MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles). Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While ICBMs are primarily designed for nuclear warhead delivery, they can also carry conventional warheads. Statement 2 is correct. Agni V is a solid-fuelled missile with an estimated range of 7,000–10,000 km. Statement 3 is correct. Agni VI, which is under development, will feature MIRV capability, enhancing India’s deterrence capacity. About Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM): Definition:Long-range ballistic missile primarily designed for delivering nuclear weapons. Range:Over 5,500 km, maximum ranges between 7,000 and 16,000 km. Speed:Exceeds 20,000 km/h. Countries with ICBMs:Russia, United States, China, France, India, United Kingdom, Israel, North Korea. India’s ICBMs: Agni V:Solid-fuelled missile with a range of 7,000–10,000 km. Agni VI:Upcoming iteration with MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).
#### 8. Question
Consider the following statements about Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs):
• ICBMs are exclusively designed for nuclear warhead delivery.
• India’s Agni V is a solid-fuelled ICBM with a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
• Agni VI will be India’s first ICBM to feature MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. While ICBMs are primarily designed for nuclear warhead delivery, they can also carry conventional warheads.
Statement 2 is correct. Agni V is a solid-fuelled missile with an estimated range of 7,000–10,000 km.
Statement 3 is correct. Agni VI, which is under development, will feature MIRV capability, enhancing India’s deterrence capacity.
About Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM):
• Definition:Long-range ballistic missile primarily designed for delivering nuclear weapons.
• Range:Over 5,500 km, maximum ranges between 7,000 and 16,000 km.
• Speed:Exceeds 20,000 km/h.
• Countries with ICBMs:Russia, United States, China, France, India, United Kingdom, Israel, North Korea.
India’s ICBMs:
• Agni V:Solid-fuelled missile with a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
• Agni VI:Upcoming iteration with MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. While ICBMs are primarily designed for nuclear warhead delivery, they can also carry conventional warheads.
Statement 2 is correct. Agni V is a solid-fuelled missile with an estimated range of 7,000–10,000 km.
Statement 3 is correct. Agni VI, which is under development, will feature MIRV capability, enhancing India’s deterrence capacity.
About Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM):
• Definition:Long-range ballistic missile primarily designed for delivering nuclear weapons.
• Range:Over 5,500 km, maximum ranges between 7,000 and 16,000 km.
• Speed:Exceeds 20,000 km/h.
• Countries with ICBMs:Russia, United States, China, France, India, United Kingdom, Israel, North Korea.
India’s ICBMs:
• Agni V:Solid-fuelled missile with a range of 7,000–10,000 km.
• Agni VI:Upcoming iteration with MIRV capability (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicles).
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Megalithic period in India: It marks the first extensive use of iron for tools and weapons. Rock art primarily depicted urban settlements and trade routes. Megalithic cultures practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Megalithic period saw widespread use of iron for agriculture and warfare. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock art from this period predominantly depicted hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances rather than urban settlements or trade routes. Statement 3 is correct. Megalithic communities practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry, as evidenced by tools and rock paintings. About Megaliths: Definition:Megaliths are monuments made of large stones, often serving as burial sites away from settlements. Chronology: Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations. Geographical spread: Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir. Iron usage: A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu). Cultural elements: Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Megalithic period saw widespread use of iron for agriculture and warfare. Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock art from this period predominantly depicted hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances rather than urban settlements or trade routes. Statement 3 is correct. Megalithic communities practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry, as evidenced by tools and rock paintings. About Megaliths: Definition:Megaliths are monuments made of large stones, often serving as burial sites away from settlements. Chronology: Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations. Geographical spread: Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir. Iron usage: A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu). Cultural elements: Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements about the Megalithic period in India:
• It marks the first extensive use of iron for tools and weapons.
• Rock art primarily depicted urban settlements and trade routes.
• Megalithic cultures practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct. The Megalithic period saw widespread use of iron for agriculture and warfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock art from this period predominantly depicted hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances rather than urban settlements or trade routes.
Statement 3 is correct. Megalithic communities practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry, as evidenced by tools and rock paintings.
About Megaliths:
• Definition:Megaliths are monuments made of large stones, often serving as burial sites away from settlements.
• Chronology: Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations.
• Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations.
• Geographical spread: Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Iron usage: A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu).
• A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu).
• Cultural elements: Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.
• Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is correct. The Megalithic period saw widespread use of iron for agriculture and warfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Rock art from this period predominantly depicted hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances rather than urban settlements or trade routes.
Statement 3 is correct. Megalithic communities practiced agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry, as evidenced by tools and rock paintings.
About Megaliths:
• Definition:Megaliths are monuments made of large stones, often serving as burial sites away from settlements.
• Chronology: Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations.
• Megalithic cultures in South India date from the 3rd B.C. to the 1st A.D.as per Brahmagiri excavations.
• Geographical spread: Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Found in Deccan (south of Godavari), Punjab Plains, Indo-Gangetic basin, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Burzahom in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Iron usage: A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu).
• A hallmark of this period, with iron tools for agriculture and weapons discovered across sites like Junapani (Vidarbha) and Adichanallur (Tamil Nadu).
• Cultural elements: Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.
• Subsistence through agriculture, hunting, and animal husbandry; rock paintings depict hunting scenes, cattle raids, and group dances.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks): It aims to assess shark populations in India’s marine ecosystem. The plan focuses solely on sustainable shark fishing practices. It is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) aims to assess and conserve shark populations within India’s marine ecosystem. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plan encompasses shark conservation, management, and sustainable utilization, not just fishing practices. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks is implemented under the Ministry of Fisheries, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. The National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) aims to assess and conserve shark populations within India’s marine ecosystem. Statement 2 is incorrect. The plan encompasses shark conservation, management, and sustainable utilization, not just fishing practices. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks is implemented under the Ministry of Fisheries, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements about the National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks):
• It aims to assess shark populations in India’s marine ecosystem.
• The plan focuses solely on sustainable shark fishing practices.
• It is implemented under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct. The National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) aims to assess and conserve shark populations within India’s marine ecosystem.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The plan encompasses shark conservation, management, and sustainable utilization, not just fishing practices.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks is implemented under the Ministry of Fisheries, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct. The National Plan of Action on Sharks (NPOA-Sharks) aims to assess and conserve shark populations within India’s marine ecosystem.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The plan encompasses shark conservation, management, and sustainable utilization, not just fishing practices.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPOA-Sharks is implemented under the Ministry of Fisheries, not the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
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