UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 May 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding border infrastructure development in India: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) operates primarily under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is responsible for infrastructure development only along India’s land borders with China and Pakistan. The Sela Tunnel project, providing all-weather connectivity, is located in the state of Sikkim on the border with Nepal. The Vibrant Villages Programme aims to enhance infrastructure and economic opportunities in border villages primarily located along the northern border (Indo-China border). Project DANTAK, executed by the BRO, focuses on developing road infrastructure within Bhutan, contributing to bilateral cooperation. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) functions under the Ministry of Defence. While it plays a crucial role along the borders with China and Pakistan, its mandate extends to other border areas (e.g., Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bhutan) and friendly foreign countries, as well as infrastructure development in difficult terrains within India, including non-border areas. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sela Tunnel project provides all-weather connectivity to Tawang and other forward areas. It is located in Arunachal Pradesh, near the border with China (Tibet Autonomous Region), not Sikkim or near the Nepal border. Statement 3 is correct. The Vibrant Villages Programme is a centrally sponsored scheme announced in the 2022 budget, focusing on comprehensive development of select border villages primarily along India’s northern border (states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and UT of Ladakh) facing China, to improve infrastructure, livelihood opportunities, and reverse out-migration. Statement 4 is correct. Project DANTAK is one of the oldest projects undertaken by the BRO, established in 1961 at the request of the Bhutanese government. It has been instrumental in developing crucial road infrastructure (highways, bridges, airfields) within Bhutan, signifying strong India-Bhutan bilateral ties. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) functions under the Ministry of Defence. While it plays a crucial role along the borders with China and Pakistan, its mandate extends to other border areas (e.g., Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bhutan) and friendly foreign countries, as well as infrastructure development in difficult terrains within India, including non-border areas. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sela Tunnel project provides all-weather connectivity to Tawang and other forward areas. It is located in Arunachal Pradesh, near the border with China (Tibet Autonomous Region), not Sikkim or near the Nepal border. Statement 3 is correct. The Vibrant Villages Programme is a centrally sponsored scheme announced in the 2022 budget, focusing on comprehensive development of select border villages primarily along India’s northern border (states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and UT of Ladakh) facing China, to improve infrastructure, livelihood opportunities, and reverse out-migration. Statement 4 is correct. Project DANTAK is one of the oldest projects undertaken by the BRO, established in 1961 at the request of the Bhutanese government. It has been instrumental in developing crucial road infrastructure (highways, bridges, airfields) within Bhutan, signifying strong India-Bhutan bilateral ties.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding border infrastructure development in India:

• The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) operates primarily under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is responsible for infrastructure development only along India’s land borders with China and Pakistan.

• The Sela Tunnel project, providing all-weather connectivity, is located in the state of Sikkim on the border with Nepal.

• The Vibrant Villages Programme aims to enhance infrastructure and economic opportunities in border villages primarily located along the northern border (Indo-China border).

• Project DANTAK, executed by the BRO, focuses on developing road infrastructure within Bhutan, contributing to bilateral cooperation.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) functions under the Ministry of Defence. While it plays a crucial role along the borders with China and Pakistan, its mandate extends to other border areas (e.g., Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bhutan) and friendly foreign countries, as well as infrastructure development in difficult terrains within India, including non-border areas.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Sela Tunnel project provides all-weather connectivity to Tawang and other forward areas. It is located in Arunachal Pradesh, near the border with China (Tibet Autonomous Region), not Sikkim or near the Nepal border.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Vibrant Villages Programme is a centrally sponsored scheme announced in the 2022 budget, focusing on comprehensive development of select border villages primarily along India’s northern border (states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and UT of Ladakh) facing China, to improve infrastructure, livelihood opportunities, and reverse out-migration.

• Statement 4 is correct. Project DANTAK is one of the oldest projects undertaken by the BRO, established in 1961 at the request of the Bhutanese government. It has been instrumental in developing crucial road infrastructure (highways, bridges, airfields) within Bhutan, signifying strong India-Bhutan bilateral ties.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points With reference to the Chambal River, consider the following statements: The river originates from the Janapav Hills in Madhya Pradesh and is known for flowing through extensive badland topography. It is a right-bank tributary of the Ganga River, contributing directly to the main Ganga channel. The National Chambal Sanctuary, located along this river, is primarily focused on the conservation of the Gharial, Ganges Dolphin, and the Mugger crocodile. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Chambal River originates from Bhadakla Falls near Janapav Hills in the Indore district of Madhya Pradesh. It is well-known for flowing through Vindhyan scarplands, creating badlands and ravines. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chambal River is part of the Ganga drainage system, it is a major tributary of the Yamuna River, not directly of the Ganga. It confluences with the Yamuna River in Jalaun district, Uttar Pradesh. The Yamuna subsequently joins the Ganga. Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary, a tri-state protected riverine zone, has a primary focus on the conservation of the Gharial (boasting the world’s largest population), the endangered Ganges River Dolphin, and the Red-crowned Roof Turtle. While Mugger crocodiles are also found, the explicitly stated primary focus includes the Gharial and Ganges Dolphin. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. The Chambal River originates from Bhadakla Falls near Janapav Hills in the Indore district of Madhya Pradesh. It is well-known for flowing through Vindhyan scarplands, creating badlands and ravines. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chambal River is part of the Ganga drainage system, it is a major tributary of the Yamuna River, not directly of the Ganga. It confluences with the Yamuna River in Jalaun district, Uttar Pradesh. The Yamuna subsequently joins the Ganga. Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary, a tri-state protected riverine zone, has a primary focus on the conservation of the Gharial (boasting the world’s largest population), the endangered Ganges River Dolphin, and the Red-crowned Roof Turtle. While Mugger crocodiles are also found, the explicitly stated primary focus includes the Gharial and Ganges Dolphin.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Chambal River, consider the following statements:

• The river originates from the Janapav Hills in Madhya Pradesh and is known for flowing through extensive badland topography.

• It is a right-bank tributary of the Ganga River, contributing directly to the main Ganga channel.

• The National Chambal Sanctuary, located along this river, is primarily focused on the conservation of the Gharial, Ganges Dolphin, and the Mugger crocodile.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Chambal River originates from Bhadakla Falls near Janapav Hills in the Indore district of Madhya Pradesh. It is well-known for flowing through Vindhyan scarplands, creating badlands and ravines.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chambal River is part of the Ganga drainage system, it is a major tributary of the Yamuna River, not directly of the Ganga. It confluences with the Yamuna River in Jalaun district, Uttar Pradesh. The Yamuna subsequently joins the Ganga.

• Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary, a tri-state protected riverine zone, has a primary focus on the conservation of the Gharial (boasting the world’s largest population), the endangered Ganges River Dolphin, and the Red-crowned Roof Turtle. While Mugger crocodiles are also found, the explicitly stated primary focus includes the Gharial and Ganges Dolphin.

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes a core objective of the ‘MY Bharat’ portal? (a) To provide direct financial assistance to youth for skill development and entrepreneurship. (b) To create a centralized database of unemployed youth for government job placements. (c) To establish a tech-driven institutional platform for youth development and youth-led transformation through engagement in national initiatives. (d) To exclusively manage and disburse scholarships for higher education to meritorious young students. Correct Solution: c) The ‘MY Bharat’ (Mera Yuva Bharat) portal is designed as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Its primary aim is to provide a tech-driven institutional platform for youth development and youth-led transformation. This involves fostering inclusive youth participation in national development, preparing youth as change-makers for Amrit Kaal and Viksit Bharat@2047, and providing equal opportunities for learning, volunteering, and mentorship. Option (a) is incorrect as direct financial assistance for entrepreneurship is not stated as its core objective, though it connects youth to opportunities. Option (b) is too narrow; while digital profiles list skills, its purpose is broader than just job placements. Option (d) is incorrect as it’s not exclusively for scholarships, but for holistic youth development and engagement. Incorrect Solution: c) The ‘MY Bharat’ (Mera Yuva Bharat) portal is designed as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Its primary aim is to provide a tech-driven institutional platform for youth development and youth-led transformation. This involves fostering inclusive youth participation in national development, preparing youth as change-makers for Amrit Kaal and Viksit Bharat@2047, and providing equal opportunities for learning, volunteering, and mentorship. Option (a) is incorrect as direct financial assistance for entrepreneurship is not stated as its core objective, though it connects youth to opportunities. Option (b) is too narrow; while digital profiles list skills, its purpose is broader than just job placements. Option (d) is incorrect as it’s not exclusively for scholarships, but for holistic youth development and engagement.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes a core objective of the ‘MY Bharat’ portal?

• (a) To provide direct financial assistance to youth for skill development and entrepreneurship.

• (b) To create a centralized database of unemployed youth for government job placements.

• (c) To establish a tech-driven institutional platform for youth development and youth-led transformation through engagement in national initiatives.

• (d) To exclusively manage and disburse scholarships for higher education to meritorious young students.

Solution: c)

The ‘MY Bharat’ (Mera Yuva Bharat) portal is designed as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Its primary aim is to provide a tech-driven institutional platform for youth development and youth-led transformation. This involves fostering inclusive youth participation in national development, preparing youth as change-makers for Amrit Kaal and Viksit Bharat@2047, and providing equal opportunities for learning, volunteering, and mentorship.

Option (a) is incorrect as direct financial assistance for entrepreneurship is not stated as its core objective, though it connects youth to opportunities.

Option (b) is too narrow; while digital profiles list skills, its purpose is broader than just job placements.

Option (d) is incorrect as it’s not exclusively for scholarships, but for holistic youth development and engagement.

Solution: c)

Option (a) is incorrect as direct financial assistance for entrepreneurship is not stated as its core objective, though it connects youth to opportunities.

Option (b) is too narrow; while digital profiles list skills, its purpose is broader than just job placements.

Option (d) is incorrect as it’s not exclusively for scholarships, but for holistic youth development and engagement.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems. Statement-I: Drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems offer enhanced security for communication by relying on the principles of quantum mechanics rather than mathematical complexity. Statement-II: The no-cloning theorem is fundamental to QKD, ensuring that any attempt by an eavesdropper to intercept the quantum signals will inevitably introduce detectable anomalies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Drone-based QKD, like other QKD methods, provides a secure method of key exchange using quantum mechanics. Its security is based on physical laws, making it “provably secure” and “quantum-resilient,” unlike classical encryption which relies on computational difficulty that quantum computers might break. Statement-II is correct. The security of QKD heavily relies on fundamental quantum principles. The no-cloning theorem states that an arbitrary unknown quantum state cannot be perfectly copied. The measurement disturbance principle implies that any attempt to measure a quantum state will disturb it. These principles ensure that if an eavesdropper tries to intercept and measure the photons carrying the key information, their actions will introduce errors or changes that can be detected by the legitimate users. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Drone-based QKD, like other QKD methods, provides a secure method of key exchange using quantum mechanics. Its security is based on physical laws, making it “provably secure” and “quantum-resilient,” unlike classical encryption which relies on computational difficulty that quantum computers might break. Statement-II is correct. The security of QKD heavily relies on fundamental quantum principles. The no-cloning theorem states that an arbitrary unknown quantum state cannot be perfectly copied. The measurement disturbance principle implies that any attempt to measure a quantum state will disturb it. These principles ensure that if an eavesdropper tries to intercept and measure the photons carrying the key information, their actions will introduce errors or changes that can be detected by the legitimate users. Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems.

Statement-I: Drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems offer enhanced security for communication by relying on the principles of quantum mechanics rather than mathematical complexity.

Statement-II: The no-cloning theorem is fundamental to QKD, ensuring that any attempt by an eavesdropper to intercept the quantum signals will inevitably introduce detectable anomalies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. Drone-based QKD, like other QKD methods, provides a secure method of key exchange using quantum mechanics. Its security is based on physical laws, making it “provably secure” and “quantum-resilient,” unlike classical encryption which relies on computational difficulty that quantum computers might break.

• Statement-II is correct. The security of QKD heavily relies on fundamental quantum principles. The no-cloning theorem states that an arbitrary unknown quantum state cannot be perfectly copied. The measurement disturbance principle implies that any attempt to measure a quantum state will disturb it. These principles ensure that if an eavesdropper tries to intercept and measure the photons carrying the key information, their actions will introduce errors or changes that can be detected by the legitimate users.

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: a)

Furthermore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Geotubing technology: Geotubes are exclusively made from impermeable synthetic materials to prevent any water exchange with the surrounding environment. The installation of geotubes always requires deep excavation of the seabed to ensure their stability against wave action. A primary mechanism by which geotubes protect coasts is by forming a submerged barrier that absorbs and dissipates wave energy before it reaches the shore. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Geotubes are made from high-performance woven geotextiles (typically polypropylene or polyester) that are permeable. This permeability is a key feature, allowing water to pass through while retaining the fill material (sand or slurry), which aids in dewatering and consolidation. Statement 2 is incorrect. While stability is crucial, geotubes do not always require deep excavation. They can be placed directly on the seabed or a prepared foundation. Their large size and weight when filled contribute to stability. The Poonthura example involved placing them to form submerged breakwaters, not necessarily with deep excavation as a universal rule. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary functions of geotubes, especially when used as submerged breakwaters or near-shore structures, is to act as a barrier that absorbs and dissipates wave energy. By reducing the energy of waves before they impact the shoreline, they help prevent erosion and can promote sand accumulation. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Geotubes are made from high-performance woven geotextiles (typically polypropylene or polyester) that are permeable. This permeability is a key feature, allowing water to pass through while retaining the fill material (sand or slurry), which aids in dewatering and consolidation. Statement 2 is incorrect. While stability is crucial, geotubes do not always require deep excavation. They can be placed directly on the seabed or a prepared foundation. Their large size and weight when filled contribute to stability. The Poonthura example involved placing them to form submerged breakwaters, not necessarily with deep excavation as a universal rule. Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary functions of geotubes, especially when used as submerged breakwaters or near-shore structures, is to act as a barrier that absorbs and dissipates wave energy. By reducing the energy of waves before they impact the shoreline, they help prevent erosion and can promote sand accumulation.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about Geotubing technology:

• Geotubes are exclusively made from impermeable synthetic materials to prevent any water exchange with the surrounding environment.

• The installation of geotubes always requires deep excavation of the seabed to ensure their stability against wave action.

• A primary mechanism by which geotubes protect coasts is by forming a submerged barrier that absorbs and dissipates wave energy before it reaches the shore.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Geotubes are made from high-performance woven geotextiles (typically polypropylene or polyester) that are permeable. This permeability is a key feature, allowing water to pass through while retaining the fill material (sand or slurry), which aids in dewatering and consolidation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While stability is crucial, geotubes do not always require deep excavation. They can be placed directly on the seabed or a prepared foundation. Their large size and weight when filled contribute to stability. The Poonthura example involved placing them to form submerged breakwaters, not necessarily with deep excavation as a universal rule.

• Statement 3 is correct. One of the primary functions of geotubes, especially when used as submerged breakwaters or near-shore structures, is to act as a barrier that absorbs and dissipates wave energy. By reducing the energy of waves before they impact the shoreline, they help prevent erosion and can promote sand accumulation.

Solution: a)

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which one of the following geographical features is not typically associated with the topography of the Tibetan Plateau? (a) High-altitude cold deserts like the Qiangtang Plateau. (b) Presence of major mountain ranges like the Himalayas to its south and Kunlun to its north. (c) Deep river valleys and ravines, particularly in its southeastern parts. (d) Extensive, low-lying coastal plains and mangrove ecosystems. Correct Solution: d) The Tibetan Plateau, often called the “Roof of the World,” is characterized by extremely high average elevations (4,500–5,000 metres). Option (a) is correctly associated; the Qiangtang Plateau in northern Tibet is a high-altitude, cold desert. Option (b) is correctly associated; the Himalayas form its southern boundary, and the Kunlun Mountains are to its north. Option (c) is correctly associated; the southeastern parts of Tibet feature deep valleys and ravines carved by major rivers. Option (d) is not associated with the Tibetan Plateau. Extensive, low-lying coastal plains and mangrove ecosystems are features of coastal regions at or near sea level, which is antithetical to the high-altitude, landlocked nature of Tibet. Incorrect Solution: d) The Tibetan Plateau, often called the “Roof of the World,” is characterized by extremely high average elevations (4,500–5,000 metres). Option (a) is correctly associated; the Qiangtang Plateau in northern Tibet is a high-altitude, cold desert. Option (b) is correctly associated; the Himalayas form its southern boundary, and the Kunlun Mountains are to its north. Option (c) is correctly associated; the southeastern parts of Tibet feature deep valleys and ravines carved by major rivers. Option (d) is not associated with the Tibetan Plateau. Extensive, low-lying coastal plains and mangrove ecosystems are features of coastal regions at or near sea level, which is antithetical to the high-altitude, landlocked nature of Tibet.

#### 6. Question

Which one of the following geographical features is not typically associated with the topography of the Tibetan Plateau?

• (a) High-altitude cold deserts like the Qiangtang Plateau.

• (b) Presence of major mountain ranges like the Himalayas to its south and Kunlun to its north.

• (c) Deep river valleys and ravines, particularly in its southeastern parts.

• (d) Extensive, low-lying coastal plains and mangrove ecosystems.

Solution: d)

The Tibetan Plateau, often called the “Roof of the World,” is characterized by extremely high average elevations (4,500–5,000 metres).

Option (a) is correctly associated; the Qiangtang Plateau in northern Tibet is a high-altitude, cold desert.

Option (b) is correctly associated; the Himalayas form its southern boundary, and the Kunlun Mountains are to its north.

Option (c) is correctly associated; the southeastern parts of Tibet feature deep valleys and ravines carved by major rivers.

Option (d) is not associated with the Tibetan Plateau. Extensive, low-lying coastal plains and mangrove ecosystems are features of coastal regions at or near sea level, which is antithetical to the high-altitude, landlocked nature of Tibet.

Solution: d)

The Tibetan Plateau, often called the “Roof of the World,” is characterized by extremely high average elevations (4,500–5,000 metres).

Option (a) is correctly associated; the Qiangtang Plateau in northern Tibet is a high-altitude, cold desert.

Option (b) is correctly associated; the Himalayas form its southern boundary, and the Kunlun Mountains are to its north.

Option (c) is correctly associated; the southeastern parts of Tibet feature deep valleys and ravines carved by major rivers.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements concerning the National Chambal Sanctuary: It is a tri-state protected area exclusively managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. The sanctuary’s topography is primarily characterized by dense tropical rainforests and extensive mangrove swamps. It has been officially recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA) due to its significance for avian biodiversity. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the National Chambal Sanctuary is a tri-state protected riverine zone (Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh), its management involves the respective state forest departments. While central guidelines and funding may be involved, it’s not exclusively managed by the central ministry alone without state participation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s topography is characterized by ravines, sandy stretches, and hilly terrain, and its flora consists mainly of dry deciduous forests typical of the Kathiar-Gir ecoregion. Dense tropical rainforests and mangrove swamps are not features of this region. Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary is recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA), highlighting its crucial role in supporting diverse bird populations, including resident and migratory species. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. While the National Chambal Sanctuary is a tri-state protected riverine zone (Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh), its management involves the respective state forest departments. While central guidelines and funding may be involved, it’s not exclusively managed by the central ministry alone without state participation. Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s topography is characterized by ravines, sandy stretches, and hilly terrain, and its flora consists mainly of dry deciduous forests typical of the Kathiar-Gir ecoregion. Dense tropical rainforests and mangrove swamps are not features of this region. Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary is recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA), highlighting its crucial role in supporting diverse bird populations, including resident and migratory species.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements concerning the National Chambal Sanctuary:

• It is a tri-state protected area exclusively managed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India.

• The sanctuary’s topography is primarily characterized by dense tropical rainforests and extensive mangrove swamps.

• It has been officially recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA) due to its significance for avian biodiversity.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the National Chambal Sanctuary is a tri-state protected riverine zone (Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh), its management involves the respective state forest departments. While central guidelines and funding may be involved, it’s not exclusively managed by the central ministry alone without state participation.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s topography is characterized by ravines, sandy stretches, and hilly terrain, and its flora consists mainly of dry deciduous forests typical of the Kathiar-Gir ecoregion. Dense tropical rainforests and mangrove swamps are not features of this region.

• Statement 3 is correct. The National Chambal Sanctuary is recognized as an Important Bird Area (IBA), highlighting its crucial role in supporting diverse bird populations, including resident and migratory species.

Solution: b)

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following is the primary purpose of the International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) Extended Fund Facility (EFF)? (a) To provide short-term liquidity support to countries facing temporary balance of payments difficulties. (b) To offer grants for poverty reduction and social development programs in low-income countries. (c) To facilitate medium-term structural reforms in countries experiencing prolonged balance of payments problems due to deep economic weaknesses. (d) To fund specific infrastructure development projects in member countries. Correct Solution: c) The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a specific lending mechanism of the IMF designed with a distinct purpose. Option (a) is incorrect because short-term liquidity support for temporary balance of payments issues is typically addressed by other IMF facilities like Stand-By Arrangements (SBAs), not primarily the EFF. The EFF is for prolonged issues. Option (b) is incorrect. EFF provides repayable loans, not grants. While the IMF has facilities that support poverty reduction (like the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust), the EFF’s core function is different and loan-based. Option (c) is correct. The EFF is specifically designed to help countries that are facing prolonged balance of payments problems stemming from deep-rooted structural economic weaknesses. Its primary purpose is to support comprehensive programs that include medium-term structural reforms aimed at correcting these underlying issues, such as improving tax systems, reducing inflation, or curbing unsustainable fiscal deficits. Option (d) is incorrect. The IMF, through facilities like the EFF, provides balance of payments support and policy advice; it does not typically fund specific infrastructure projects in the manner of development banks like the World Bank. Incorrect Solution: c) The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a specific lending mechanism of the IMF designed with a distinct purpose. Option (a) is incorrect because short-term liquidity support for temporary balance of payments issues is typically addressed by other IMF facilities like Stand-By Arrangements (SBAs), not primarily the EFF. The EFF is for prolonged issues. Option (b) is incorrect. EFF provides repayable loans, not grants. While the IMF has facilities that support poverty reduction (like the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust), the EFF’s core function is different and loan-based. Option (c) is correct. The EFF is specifically designed to help countries that are facing prolonged balance of payments problems stemming from deep-rooted structural economic weaknesses. Its primary purpose is to support comprehensive programs that include medium-term structural reforms aimed at correcting these underlying issues, such as improving tax systems, reducing inflation, or curbing unsustainable fiscal deficits. Option (d) is incorrect. The IMF, through facilities like the EFF, provides balance of payments support and policy advice; it does not typically fund specific infrastructure projects in the manner of development banks like the World Bank.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) Extended Fund Facility (EFF)?

• (a) To provide short-term liquidity support to countries facing temporary balance of payments difficulties.

• (b) To offer grants for poverty reduction and social development programs in low-income countries.

• (c) To facilitate medium-term structural reforms in countries experiencing prolonged balance of payments problems due to deep economic weaknesses.

• (d) To fund specific infrastructure development projects in member countries.

Solution: c)

• The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a specific lending mechanism of the IMF designed with a distinct purpose.

• Option (a) is incorrect because short-term liquidity support for temporary balance of payments issues is typically addressed by other IMF facilities like Stand-By Arrangements (SBAs), not primarily the EFF. The EFF is for prolonged issues.

• Option (b) is incorrect. EFF provides repayable loans, not grants. While the IMF has facilities that support poverty reduction (like the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust), the EFF’s core function is different and loan-based.

• Option (c) is correct. The EFF is specifically designed to help countries that are facing prolonged balance of payments problems stemming from deep-rooted structural economic weaknesses. Its primary purpose is to support comprehensive programs that include medium-term structural reforms aimed at correcting these underlying issues, such as improving tax systems, reducing inflation, or curbing unsustainable fiscal deficits.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The IMF, through facilities like the EFF, provides balance of payments support and policy advice; it does not typically fund specific infrastructure projects in the manner of development banks like the World Bank.

Solution: c)

• The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is a specific lending mechanism of the IMF designed with a distinct purpose.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Territorial Army (TA) of India: The Territorial Army is a full-time professional military force, similar to the regular Indian Army. The Chief of the Army Staff has always possessed the inherent power to fully mobilise the Territorial Army without any specific legal provision. The Territorial Army primarily recruits individuals who are already serving in paramilitary forces. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Territorial Army is not a full-time professional military force. It is a volunteer reserve force comprising part-time “citizen soldiers” who are gainfully employed in civilian professions. They undergo military training for a short duration each year and are called upon for service only when required, such as during national emergencies or conflicts. Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of the Army Chief to mobilise the Territorial Army is not merely inherent but is governed by legal provisions. Specifically, Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Act, 1948, permits full mobilisation during national exigencies. The recent context mentions the Ministry of Defence empowering the Army Chief under this specific rule. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Territorial Army primarily recruits Indian citizens from various civilian backgrounds, including businessmen, professionals, and other employed individuals, aged 18–42, who are medically fit. It does not primarily recruit from paramilitary forces, though individuals from various backgrounds can apply if they meet the eligibility criteria. The aim is to engage citizens in nation-building through defence service. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Territorial Army is not a full-time professional military force. It is a volunteer reserve force comprising part-time “citizen soldiers” who are gainfully employed in civilian professions. They undergo military training for a short duration each year and are called upon for service only when required, such as during national emergencies or conflicts. Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of the Army Chief to mobilise the Territorial Army is not merely inherent but is governed by legal provisions. Specifically, Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Act, 1948, permits full mobilisation during national exigencies. The recent context mentions the Ministry of Defence empowering the Army Chief under this specific rule. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Territorial Army primarily recruits Indian citizens from various civilian backgrounds, including businessmen, professionals, and other employed individuals, aged 18–42, who are medically fit. It does not primarily recruit from paramilitary forces, though individuals from various backgrounds can apply if they meet the eligibility criteria. The aim is to engage citizens in nation-building through defence service.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Territorial Army (TA) of India:

• The Territorial Army is a full-time professional military force, similar to the regular Indian Army.

• The Chief of the Army Staff has always possessed the inherent power to fully mobilise the Territorial Army without any specific legal provision.

• The Territorial Army primarily recruits individuals who are already serving in paramilitary forces.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Territorial Army is not a full-time professional military force. It is a volunteer reserve force comprising part-time “citizen soldiers” who are gainfully employed in civilian professions. They undergo military training for a short duration each year and are called upon for service only when required, such as during national emergencies or conflicts.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The power of the Army Chief to mobilise the Territorial Army is not merely inherent but is governed by legal provisions. Specifically, Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Act, 1948, permits full mobilisation during national exigencies. The recent context mentions the Ministry of Defence empowering the Army Chief under this specific rule.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Territorial Army primarily recruits Indian citizens from various civilian backgrounds, including businessmen, professionals, and other employed individuals, aged 18–42, who are medically fit. It does not primarily recruit from paramilitary forces, though individuals from various backgrounds can apply if they meet the eligibility criteria. The aim is to engage citizens in nation-building through defence service.

Solution: d)

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Operation Keller, recently in the news, was primarily aimed at: (a) Conducting a large-scale flood relief and rescue mission in the Kashmir Valley. (b) Initiating a dialogue process with local community leaders in South Kashmir. (c) Establishing new Army posts along the Line of Control in Jammu & Kashmir. (d) Neutralising specific terrorist leadership and cadres in the Shopian district. Correct Solution: d) Operation Keller was a search and destroy mission initiated based on specific intelligence. Option (a) is incorrect as Operation Keller was a counter-terrorism operation, not a disaster relief mission. Option (b) is incorrect. Operation Keller was a kinetic military operation focused on counter-terrorism. While community engagement might be part of a broader strategy, it was not the primary aim of this specific operation. The operation was conducted by the Indian Army in coordination with J&K Police and CRPF. Option (c) is incorrect. While maintaining security along the LoC is an ongoing Army task, Operation Keller was a targeted internal security operation within Shopian, not primarily about establishing new LoC posts. Option (d) is correct. The stated objectives of Operation Keller included neutralising The Resistance Front (TRF) terrorists responsible for the Pahalgam attack and specifically eliminating Shahid Kuttay, a top TRF commander. This clearly indicates its focus on targeting specific terrorist leadership and cadres in the Shopian district. Incorrect Solution: d) Operation Keller was a search and destroy mission initiated based on specific intelligence. Option (a) is incorrect as Operation Keller was a counter-terrorism operation, not a disaster relief mission. Option (b) is incorrect. Operation Keller was a kinetic military operation focused on counter-terrorism. While community engagement might be part of a broader strategy, it was not the primary aim of this specific operation. The operation was conducted by the Indian Army in coordination with J&K Police and CRPF. Option (c) is incorrect. While maintaining security along the LoC is an ongoing Army task, Operation Keller was a targeted internal security operation within Shopian, not primarily about establishing new LoC posts. Option (d) is correct. The stated objectives of Operation Keller included neutralising The Resistance Front (TRF) terrorists responsible for the Pahalgam attack and specifically eliminating Shahid Kuttay, a top TRF commander. This clearly indicates its focus on targeting specific terrorist leadership and cadres in the Shopian district.

#### 10. Question

Operation Keller, recently in the news, was primarily aimed at:

• (a) Conducting a large-scale flood relief and rescue mission in the Kashmir Valley.

• (b) Initiating a dialogue process with local community leaders in South Kashmir.

• (c) Establishing new Army posts along the Line of Control in Jammu & Kashmir.

• (d) Neutralising specific terrorist leadership and cadres in the Shopian district.

Solution: d)

• Operation Keller was a search and destroy mission initiated based on specific intelligence.

• Option (a) is incorrect as Operation Keller was a counter-terrorism operation, not a disaster relief mission.

• Option (b) is incorrect. Operation Keller was a kinetic military operation focused on counter-terrorism. While community engagement might be part of a broader strategy, it was not the primary aim of this specific operation. The operation was conducted by the Indian Army in coordination with J&K Police and CRPF.

• Option (c) is incorrect. While maintaining security along the LoC is an ongoing Army task, Operation Keller was a targeted internal security operation within Shopian, not primarily about establishing new LoC posts.

• Option (d) is correct. The stated objectives of Operation Keller included neutralising The Resistance Front (TRF) terrorists responsible for the Pahalgam attack and specifically eliminating Shahid Kuttay, a top TRF commander. This clearly indicates its focus on targeting specific terrorist leadership and cadres in the Shopian district.

Solution: d)

• Operation Keller was a search and destroy mission initiated based on specific intelligence.

• Option (a) is incorrect as Operation Keller was a counter-terrorism operation, not a disaster relief mission.

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