UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 June 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal: Statement I: The portal is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Ayush and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Statement II: It exclusively targets foreign institutional investors to channelize 100% FDI into the Ayush sector. Statement III: The portal serves as a unified interface for investors, integrating information on policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Only one statement is correct (b) Only two statements are correct (c) All three statements are correct (d) None of the statements are correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Ayush in partnership with Invest India, which is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency. Invest India works under the aegis of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement II is incorrect. The portal targets both domestic and international stakeholders, not exclusively foreign investors. Its aim is to ease investment and promote private participation in general, which includes FDI as well as domestic investment. Statement III is correct. A key feature of the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal is its function as a one-stop solution for investors. It is a unified digital platform that brings together all relevant information, including central and state government policies, incentives, and a list of projects ready for investment, thereby promoting ease of doing business. About Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal: What is it? A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry) Developed in partnership with Invest India Objective: To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures. To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine. To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal. Key Features: Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support. Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects. Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals. Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders. Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is incorrect. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Ayush in partnership with Invest India, which is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency. Invest India works under the aegis of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement II is incorrect. The portal targets both domestic and international stakeholders, not exclusively foreign investors. Its aim is to ease investment and promote private participation in general, which includes FDI as well as domestic investment. Statement III is correct. A key feature of the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal is its function as a one-stop solution for investors. It is a unified digital platform that brings together all relevant information, including central and state government policies, incentives, and a list of projects ready for investment, thereby promoting ease of doing business. About Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal: What is it? A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry) Developed in partnership with Invest India Objective: To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures. To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine. To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal. Key Features: Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support. Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects. Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals. Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders. Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal:

Statement I: The portal is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Ayush and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement II: It exclusively targets foreign institutional investors to channelize 100% FDI into the Ayush sector.

Statement III: The portal serves as a unified interface for investors, integrating information on policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Only one statement is correct

• (b) Only two statements are correct

• (c) All three statements are correct

• (d) None of the statements are correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Ayush in partnership with Invest India, which is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency. Invest India works under the aegis of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• Statement II is incorrect. The portal targets both domestic and international stakeholders, not exclusively foreign investors. Its aim is to ease investment and promote private participation in general, which includes FDI as well as domestic investment.

• Statement III is correct. A key feature of the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal is its function as a one-stop solution for investors. It is a unified digital platform that brings together all relevant information, including central and state government policies, incentives, and a list of projects ready for investment, thereby promoting ease of doing business.

About Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal:

• What is it? A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector.

• A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector.

• Ministry Involved:

• Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry) Developed in partnership with Invest India

• Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry)

• Developed in partnership with Invest India

• Objective:

• To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures. To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine. To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal.

• To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures.

• To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine.

• To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal.

• Key Features:

• Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support. Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects. Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals. Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders. Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector.

• Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support.

• Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects.

• Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals.

• Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders.

• Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector.

Solution: A

• Statement I is incorrect. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Ayush in partnership with Invest India, which is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency. Invest India works under the aegis of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• Statement II is incorrect. The portal targets both domestic and international stakeholders, not exclusively foreign investors. Its aim is to ease investment and promote private participation in general, which includes FDI as well as domestic investment.

• Statement III is correct. A key feature of the ‘Ayush Nivesh Saarthi’ portal is its function as a one-stop solution for investors. It is a unified digital platform that brings together all relevant information, including central and state government policies, incentives, and a list of projects ready for investment, thereby promoting ease of doing business.

About Ayush Nivesh Saarthi Portal:

• What is it? A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector.

• A dedicated digital platform for investors to explore and invest in India’s Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) sector.

• Ministry Involved:

• Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry) Developed in partnership with Invest India

• Ministry of Ayush (Lead Ministry)

• Developed in partnership with Invest India

• Objective:

• To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures. To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine. To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal.

• To ease investment in Ayush-based ventures.

• To promote FDI and private participation in traditional medicine.

• To integrate policy, incentives, and market access in one portal.

• Key Features:

• Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support. Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects. Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals. Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders. Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector.

• Investor-Centric Design: Simplified navigation and support.

• Unified Interface: Combines policies, incentives, and investment-ready projects.

• Real-time Facilitation: Dynamic dashboard for guidance and approvals.

• Global Outreach: Targets domestic and international stakeholders.

• Ease of Doing Business: Aligned with 100% FDI via automatic route in the Ayush sector.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the Chenab Railway Bridge: Its structural design incorporates the use of blast-proof steel and can withstand earthquakes of up to magnitude 8 on the Richter scale. The bridge is located in a high-altitude desert region, making extreme cold a more significant engineering challenge than high wind speeds. The construction was executed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) as part of its strategic infrastructure development projects. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Chenab Railway Bridge is an engineering marvel designed for extreme resilience. It is constructed using blast-proof steel and is engineered to be earthquake-resistant up to magnitude 8. This makes it one of the safest and most robust structures in a seismically active region (Zone V). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bridge can tolerate temperatures up to –20°C, a more prominent design challenge was its ability to withstand the high wind speeds common in the deep gorge. The bridge is designed to resist winds of up to 266 km/h. The region is not a high-altitude desert; it is a mountainous river gorge. Statement 3 is incorrect. The bridge is a critical component of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which was executed by the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRC), not the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). About Chenab Railway Bridge: What is it? A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir. Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower. Location: Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir. Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project. Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar. Who Built It? Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation. Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India. Key Features of the Bridge: Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch). Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8). Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C. Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT. Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Chenab Railway Bridge is an engineering marvel designed for extreme resilience. It is constructed using blast-proof steel and is engineered to be earthquake-resistant up to magnitude 8. This makes it one of the safest and most robust structures in a seismically active region (Zone V). Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bridge can tolerate temperatures up to –20°C, a more prominent design challenge was its ability to withstand the high wind speeds common in the deep gorge. The bridge is designed to resist winds of up to 266 km/h. The region is not a high-altitude desert; it is a mountainous river gorge. Statement 3 is incorrect. The bridge is a critical component of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which was executed by the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRC), not the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). About Chenab Railway Bridge: What is it? A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir. Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower. Location: Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir. Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project. Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar. Who Built It? Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation. Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India. Key Features of the Bridge: Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch). Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8). Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C. Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT. Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about the Chenab Railway Bridge:

• Its structural design incorporates the use of blast-proof steel and can withstand earthquakes of up to magnitude 8 on the Richter scale.

• The bridge is located in a high-altitude desert region, making extreme cold a more significant engineering challenge than high wind speeds.

• The construction was executed by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) as part of its strategic infrastructure development projects.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Chenab Railway Bridge is an engineering marvel designed for extreme resilience. It is constructed using blast-proof steel and is engineered to be earthquake-resistant up to magnitude 8. This makes it one of the safest and most robust structures in a seismically active region (Zone V).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bridge can tolerate temperatures up to –20°C, a more prominent design challenge was its ability to withstand the high wind speeds common in the deep gorge. The bridge is designed to resist winds of up to 266 km/h. The region is not a high-altitude desert; it is a mountainous river gorge.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The bridge is a critical component of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which was executed by the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRC), not the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).

About Chenab Railway Bridge:

• What is it?

• A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir. Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower.

• A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir.

• Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower.

• Location:

• Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir. Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project. Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar.

• Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir.

• Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.

• Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar.

• Who Built It?

• Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation. Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India.

• Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation.

• Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India.

• Key Features of the Bridge:

• Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch). Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8). Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C. Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT. Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h.

• Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch).

• Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8).

• Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C.

• Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT.

• Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Chenab Railway Bridge is an engineering marvel designed for extreme resilience. It is constructed using blast-proof steel and is engineered to be earthquake-resistant up to magnitude 8. This makes it one of the safest and most robust structures in a seismically active region (Zone V).

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the bridge can tolerate temperatures up to –20°C, a more prominent design challenge was its ability to withstand the high wind speeds common in the deep gorge. The bridge is designed to resist winds of up to 266 km/h. The region is not a high-altitude desert; it is a mountainous river gorge.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The bridge is a critical component of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, which was executed by the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRC), not the Border Roads Organisation (BRO).

About Chenab Railway Bridge:

• What is it?

• A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir. Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower.

• A steel-arch railway bridge built over the Chenab River in Jammu & Kashmir.

• Recognized as the tallest railway bridge globally with a height of 359 meters—35 meters taller than the Eiffel Tower.

• Location:

• Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir. Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project. Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar.

• Situated between Bakkal and Kauri villages in Reasi district, Jammu & Kashmir.

• Forms a critical part of the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.

• Connects Katra to Sangaldan, enabling rail access to Srinagar.

• Who Built It?

• Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation. Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India.

• Executed by Konkan Railway Corporation.

• Constructed by a JV of Afcons Infrastructure, Ultra Construction (South Korea), and VSL India.

• Key Features of the Bridge:

• Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch). Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8). Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C. Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT. Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h.

• Total Length: 1,315 meters (530 m approach + 785 m main arch).

• Wind Resistance: Up to 266 km/h and earthquake-resistant (up to magnitude 8).

• Temperature Tolerance: Up to –20°C.

• Blast-Proof: Designed to resist explosions equivalent to 40 tonnes of TNT.

• Lifespan: 120 years and trains can run up to 100 km/h.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Waste Picker Enumeration App and the NAMASTE Scheme: Statement I: The Waste Picker Enumeration App is launched under the NAMASTE scheme to formally recognize and provide social security to waste pickers. Statement II: The NAMASTE scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented solely by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Statement III: A key objective of the NAMASTE scheme is to eliminate manual scavenging by promoting mechanized sanitation and rehabilitating sanitation workers. Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is the primary assertion. It correctly states that the app is an initiative under the NAMASTE scheme aimed at the formalization and welfare of waste pickers. Statement II is incorrect. The NAMASTE scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. As in a Central Sector Scheme, the funding is entirely from the Union government. Furthermore, it is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in convergence with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Statement III is correct. This statement accurately describes a core aim of the NAMASTE scheme: to ensure the safety and dignity of sanitation workers by eliminating hazardous cleaning practices like manual scavenging and promoting a transition to mechanized solutions. Statement III, by explaining the foundational goal of NAMASTE (dignity and rehabilitation of sanitation workers), provides the context and rationale for including waste pickers under its ambit, as described in Statement I. About the Waste Picker Enumeration App: What is it? A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC) Objective: To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems Key Features: Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition. Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits. Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods. Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas. Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report. About NAMASTE Scheme: What is it? National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management. Launched In: July 2023 Ministries Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner) Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation Aim: To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is the primary assertion. It correctly states that the app is an initiative under the NAMASTE scheme aimed at the formalization and welfare of waste pickers. Statement II is incorrect. The NAMASTE scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. As in a Central Sector Scheme, the funding is entirely from the Union government. Furthermore, it is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in convergence with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Statement III is correct. This statement accurately describes a core aim of the NAMASTE scheme: to ensure the safety and dignity of sanitation workers by eliminating hazardous cleaning practices like manual scavenging and promoting a transition to mechanized solutions. Statement III, by explaining the foundational goal of NAMASTE (dignity and rehabilitation of sanitation workers), provides the context and rationale for including waste pickers under its ambit, as described in Statement I. About the Waste Picker Enumeration App: What is it? A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme. Ministry Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC) Objective: To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems Key Features: Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition. Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits. Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods. Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas. Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report. About NAMASTE Scheme: What is it? National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management. Launched In: July 2023 Ministries Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner) Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation Aim: To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Waste Picker Enumeration App and the NAMASTE Scheme:

Statement I: The Waste Picker Enumeration App is launched under the NAMASTE scheme to formally recognize and provide social security to waste pickers.

Statement II: The NAMASTE scheme is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented solely by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Statement III: A key objective of the NAMASTE scheme is to eliminate manual scavenging by promoting mechanized sanitation and rehabilitating sanitation workers.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is the primary assertion. It correctly states that the app is an initiative under the NAMASTE scheme aimed at the formalization and welfare of waste pickers.

• Statement II is incorrect. The NAMASTE scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. As in a Central Sector Scheme, the funding is entirely from the Union government. Furthermore, it is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in convergence with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

• Statement III is correct. This statement accurately describes a core aim of the NAMASTE scheme: to ensure the safety and dignity of sanitation workers by eliminating hazardous cleaning practices like manual scavenging and promoting a transition to mechanized solutions.

• Statement III, by explaining the foundational goal of NAMASTE (dignity and rehabilitation of sanitation workers), provides the context and rationale for including waste pickers under its ambit, as described in Statement I.

About the Waste Picker Enumeration App:

• What is it? A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme.

• A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme.

• Ministry Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC)

• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE)

• In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)

• Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC)

• Objective: To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems

• To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system

• To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems

• Key Features: Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition. Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits. Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods. Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas. Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report.

• Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition.

• Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits.

• Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods.

• Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas.

• Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report.

About NAMASTE Scheme:

• What is it? National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management.

• National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management.

• Launched In: July 2023

• Ministries Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner) Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation

• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry)

• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner)

• Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation

• Aim: To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services

• To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers

• To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services

Solution: C

• Statement I is the primary assertion. It correctly states that the app is an initiative under the NAMASTE scheme aimed at the formalization and welfare of waste pickers.

• Statement II is incorrect. The NAMASTE scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. As in a Central Sector Scheme, the funding is entirely from the Union government. Furthermore, it is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in convergence with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).

• Statement III is correct. This statement accurately describes a core aim of the NAMASTE scheme: to ensure the safety and dignity of sanitation workers by eliminating hazardous cleaning practices like manual scavenging and promoting a transition to mechanized solutions.

• Statement III, by explaining the foundational goal of NAMASTE (dignity and rehabilitation of sanitation workers), provides the context and rationale for including waste pickers under its ambit, as described in Statement I.

About the Waste Picker Enumeration App:

• What is it? A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme.

• A digital platform to enumerate, identify, and support waste pickers through social security and livelihood-based interventions under the NAMASTE Scheme.

• Ministry Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC)

• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE)

• In collaboration with Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)

• Implemented via National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation (NSKFDC)

• Objective: To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems

• To recognize waste pickers as essential workers in India’s solid waste management system

• To provide them with identity, protection, and integration into formal urban systems

• Key Features: Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition. Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits. Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods. Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas. Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report.

• Large-Scale Profiling: Targets enumeration of 2.5 lakh waste pickers and issue’s occupational identity cards for formal recognition.

• Health and Safety Coverage: Provides health insurance under Ayushman Bharat and distributes personal protective equipment and seasonal safety kits.

• Skill and Livelihood Support: Offers skill development training and capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods.

• Strengthening Waste Management Systems: Supports formation of waste picker collectives to manage 750 dry waste collection centres across urban areas.

• Knowledge-Based Empowerment: Releases key resources like the Mainstreaming Waste Picker Collectives Guide and Charting Change socio-economic insights report.

About NAMASTE Scheme:

• What is it? National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management.

• National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) is a Central Sector Scheme launched to formalize and rehabilitate sanitation workers engaged in hazardous cleaning and solid waste management.

• Launched In: July 2023

• Ministries Involved: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner) Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation

• Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Nodal Ministry)

• Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) (Convergence Partner)

• Implementing agency: National Safai Karamcharis Finance & Development Corporation

• Aim: To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services

• To ensure dignity, safety, and livelihood for sewer workers, septic tank cleaners, and now, waste pickers

• To eliminate manual scavenging and promote mechanized, skilled sanitation services

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points With reference to the World Environment Day 2025 celebrations, consider the following statements: The global host for the event was a city in the Republic of Korea. The theme for the year was focused on combating desertification and restoring land. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) initiated the observance of World Environment Day in the 21st century. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Jeju Province, Republic of Korea, hosted the official global celebrations for World Environment Day on June 5, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect. The theme for World Environment Day 2025 was “Beat Plastic Pollution“. The theme of combating desertification and land restoration has been used in previous years, but it was not the focus for 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect. World Environment Day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, and its first observance was in 1973, which is in the 20th century. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the key agency for it since its inception. About World Environment Day 2025: What is it? World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection. Host Country: The official celebrations were held in Jeju Province, Republic of Korea. Theme for 2025: Beat Plastic Pollution. Objective: To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health. To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025. Significant Global Commitments & Initiatives: UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution. Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries. Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years. Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Jeju Province, Republic of Korea, hosted the official global celebrations for World Environment Day on June 5, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect. The theme for World Environment Day 2025 was “Beat Plastic Pollution“. The theme of combating desertification and land restoration has been used in previous years, but it was not the focus for 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect. World Environment Day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, and its first observance was in 1973, which is in the 20th century. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the key agency for it since its inception. About World Environment Day 2025: What is it? World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection. Host Country: The official celebrations were held in Jeju Province, Republic of Korea. Theme for 2025: Beat Plastic Pollution. Objective: To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health. To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025. Significant Global Commitments & Initiatives: UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution. Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries. Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years. Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the World Environment Day 2025 celebrations, consider the following statements:

• The global host for the event was a city in the Republic of Korea.

• The theme for the year was focused on combating desertification and restoring land.

• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) initiated the observance of World Environment Day in the 21st century.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Jeju Province, Republic of Korea, hosted the official global celebrations for World Environment Day on June 5, 2025.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The theme for World Environment Day 2025 was “Beat Plastic Pollution“. The theme of combating desertification and land restoration has been used in previous years, but it was not the focus for 2025.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. World Environment Day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, and its first observance was in 1973, which is in the 20th century. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the key agency for it since its inception.

About World Environment Day 2025:

• What is it? World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection.

• World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection.

• Host Country: The official celebrations were held in Jeju Province, Republic of Korea.

• Theme for 2025: Beat Plastic Pollution.

• Objective:

• To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health. To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025.

• To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health.

• To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025.

• Significant Global Commitments & Initiatives:

• UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution. Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries. Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years. Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration.

• UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution.

• Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries.

• Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years.

• Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Jeju Province, Republic of Korea, hosted the official global celebrations for World Environment Day on June 5, 2025.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The theme for World Environment Day 2025 was “Beat Plastic Pollution“. The theme of combating desertification and land restoration has been used in previous years, but it was not the focus for 2025.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. World Environment Day was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, and its first observance was in 1973, which is in the 20th century. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the key agency for it since its inception.

About World Environment Day 2025:

• What is it? World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection.

• World Environment Day is the United Nations’ principal platform for global environmental outreach, celebrated annually on June 5 to raise awareness and promote action for environmental protection.

• Host Country: The official celebrations were held in Jeju Province, Republic of Korea.

• Theme for 2025: Beat Plastic Pollution.

• Objective:

• To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health. To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025.

• To highlight the urgency of tackling plastic waste, which affects oceans, biodiversity, and human health.

• To promote global cooperation toward a legally binding Global Plastics Treaty, scheduled for negotiations in August 2025.

• Significant Global Commitments & Initiatives:

• UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution. Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries. Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years. Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration.

• UNEP’s Global Plastics Hub: A new platform offering data, collaboration, and resources on marine litter and plastic pollution.

• Tide Turners Summit in India: Showcased youth-led plastic reduction efforts engaging over 980,000 young leaders across 60+ countries.

• Mexico’s Beach Cleanup Plan (2025–2030): Aims to eliminate plastic waste from all national coasts within five years.

• Global Ecosystem Restoration Murals: SAM and UNEP’s 245-foot mural in Chicago raised awareness on plastic pollution and nature restoration.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent election to the Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS). Statement I: India’s election to the presidency of the IIAS for 2025-2028 was the first time the position was decided through a ballot-based election in the organization’s history. Statement II: The IIAS is an inter-governmental organization established by a United Nations resolution to promote public administration reforms globally. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. India won the presidency in what was the first-ever ballot-based election in the IIAS’s nearly 100-year history. This signifies a shift in the organization’s internal processes and makes India’s victory particularly notable. Statement II is incorrect. The IIAS is a global, non-governmental scientific organization. It is not an inter-governmental body established by a UN resolution, although it collaborates closely with UN bodies like the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN). Its origins are independent of the UN system, having been founded in 1930. About the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): What it is? The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration. Established in: Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance. Headquarters: Located in Brussels, Belgium Objectives: Promote comparative studies in public administration. Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration. Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges. Engage actively with global public administration discourse. Key Functions: Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations. Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin. Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries. Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. India won the presidency in what was the first-ever ballot-based election in the IIAS’s nearly 100-year history. This signifies a shift in the organization’s internal processes and makes India’s victory particularly notable. Statement II is incorrect. The IIAS is a global, non-governmental scientific organization. It is not an inter-governmental body established by a UN resolution, although it collaborates closely with UN bodies like the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN). Its origins are independent of the UN system, having been founded in 1930. About the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): What it is? The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration. Established in: Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance. Headquarters: Located in Brussels, Belgium Objectives: Promote comparative studies in public administration. Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration. Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges. Engage actively with global public administration discourse. Key Functions: Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations. Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin. Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries. Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s recent election to the Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS).

Statement I: India’s election to the presidency of the IIAS for 2025-2028 was the first time the position was decided through a ballot-based election in the organization’s history.

Statement II: The IIAS is an inter-governmental organization established by a United Nations resolution to promote public administration reforms globally.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. India won the presidency in what was the first-ever ballot-based election in the IIAS’s nearly 100-year history. This signifies a shift in the organization’s internal processes and makes India’s victory particularly notable.

• Statement II is incorrect. The IIAS is a global, non-governmental scientific organization. It is not an inter-governmental body established by a UN resolution, although it collaborates closely with UN bodies like the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN). Its origins are independent of the UN system, having been founded in 1930.

About the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS):

• What it is? The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration.

• The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration.

• Established in: Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance.

• Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance.

• Headquarters: Located in Brussels, Belgium

• Objectives:

• Promote comparative studies in public administration. Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration. Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges. Engage actively with global public administration discourse.

• Promote comparative studies in public administration.

• Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration.

• Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges.

• Engage actively with global public administration discourse.

• Key Functions:

• Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations. Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin. Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries. Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA.

• Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations.

• Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin.

• Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries.

• Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. India won the presidency in what was the first-ever ballot-based election in the IIAS’s nearly 100-year history. This signifies a shift in the organization’s internal processes and makes India’s victory particularly notable.

• Statement II is incorrect. The IIAS is a global, non-governmental scientific organization. It is not an inter-governmental body established by a UN resolution, although it collaborates closely with UN bodies like the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN). Its origins are independent of the UN system, having been founded in 1930.

About the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS):

• What it is? The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration.

• The International Institute of Administrative Sciences is a global, non-governmental scientific organization dedicated to advancing public administration research and reform through global collaboration.

• Established in: Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance.

• Founded in 1930, with nearly a century of contributions to administrative theory and comparative governance.

• Headquarters: Located in Brussels, Belgium

• Objectives:

• Promote comparative studies in public administration. Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration. Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges. Engage actively with global public administration discourse.

• Promote comparative studies in public administration.

• Facilitate intercultural dialogue and research collaboration.

• Advance reform models aligned with contemporary governance challenges.

• Engage actively with global public administration discourse.

• Key Functions:

• Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations. Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin. Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries. Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA.

• Organizes three international conferences annually across member nations.

• Publishes the International Review of Administrative Sciences in English, French, and Mandarin.

• Acts as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries.

• Collaborates with the United Nations Public Administration Network (UNPAN) and UN CEPA.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Regarding SEBI’s operational framework for Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Debt Securities, consider the following statements: The framework mandates that funds raised through Sustainability-Linked Bonds must be exclusively used for pre-defined green or social projects. Issuers are required to appoint an independent third-party reviewer to validate the ESG alignment of the bond. The framework applies only to public issues of ESG debt securities and not to private placements. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. For Sustainability-Linked Bonds (SLBs), the proceeds can be used for general corporate purposes. The key feature of an SLB is that its financial characteristics (like the coupon rate) are tied to the issuer achieving pre-defined ESG performance targets. Statement 2 is correct. A cornerstone of the SEBI framework is to enhance credibility and prevent ‘greenwashing’. To achieve this, it is mandatory for issuers to appoint an independent third-party reviewer or certifier. This entity’s role is to provide an objective assessment of the bond’s ESG credentials, including the selection of projects and the tracking of impact. Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework is comprehensive and applies to both public issues and private placements of ESG debt securities. This ensures that the standards of transparency and accountability are maintained across different methods of raising capital. What are ESG Debt Securities? ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance) Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements. About SEBI’s Operational Framework for ESG Debt Securities: Classification Criteria: Issuers must classify bonds as green, social, or sustainability based on the primary objective of the underlying projects, ensuring clear demarcation of impact. Disclosure Requirements: Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing. Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization. Independent Review Mechanism: Issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate ESG alignment, increasing investor trust and transparency. Monitoring and Impact Tracking: Issuers are responsible for continuous impact assessment to ensure that the funded operations effectively reduce environmental or social harm. Applicability and Implementation: The framework applies to all issuances of ESG debt securities from June 5, 2025, and aligns with global ESG benchmarks to attract responsible capital. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. For Sustainability-Linked Bonds (SLBs), the proceeds can be used for general corporate purposes. The key feature of an SLB is that its financial characteristics (like the coupon rate) are tied to the issuer achieving pre-defined ESG performance targets. Statement 2 is correct. A cornerstone of the SEBI framework is to enhance credibility and prevent ‘greenwashing’. To achieve this, it is mandatory for issuers to appoint an independent third-party reviewer or certifier. This entity’s role is to provide an objective assessment of the bond’s ESG credentials, including the selection of projects and the tracking of impact. Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework is comprehensive and applies to both public issues and private placements of ESG debt securities. This ensures that the standards of transparency and accountability are maintained across different methods of raising capital. What are ESG Debt Securities? ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance) Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements. About SEBI’s Operational Framework for ESG Debt Securities: Classification Criteria: Issuers must classify bonds as green, social, or sustainability based on the primary objective of the underlying projects, ensuring clear demarcation of impact. Disclosure Requirements: Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing. Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization. Independent Review Mechanism: Issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate ESG alignment, increasing investor trust and transparency. Monitoring and Impact Tracking: Issuers are responsible for continuous impact assessment to ensure that the funded operations effectively reduce environmental or social harm. Applicability and Implementation: The framework applies to all issuances of ESG debt securities from June 5, 2025, and aligns with global ESG benchmarks to attract responsible capital.

#### 6. Question

Regarding SEBI’s operational framework for Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Debt Securities, consider the following statements:

• The framework mandates that funds raised through Sustainability-Linked Bonds must be exclusively used for pre-defined green or social projects.

• Issuers are required to appoint an independent third-party reviewer to validate the ESG alignment of the bond.

• The framework applies only to public issues of ESG debt securities and not to private placements.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. For Sustainability-Linked Bonds (SLBs), the proceeds can be used for general corporate purposes. The key feature of an SLB is that its financial characteristics (like the coupon rate) are tied to the issuer achieving pre-defined ESG performance targets.

• Statement 2 is correct. A cornerstone of the SEBI framework is to enhance credibility and prevent ‘greenwashing’. To achieve this, it is mandatory for issuers to appoint an independent third-party reviewer or certifier. This entity’s role is to provide an objective assessment of the bond’s ESG credentials, including the selection of projects and the tracking of impact.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework is comprehensive and applies to both public issues and private placements of ESG debt securities. This ensures that the standards of transparency and accountability are maintained across different methods of raising capital.

• What are ESG Debt Securities? ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance) Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

• ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance)

• Social Bonds (for social impact projects)

• Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals)

• Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance)

• Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

• Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects.

• Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective.

• Must comply with recognized international ESG standards.

• Require third-party verification or certification.

• Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

About SEBI’s Operational Framework for ESG Debt Securities:

• Classification Criteria: Issuers must classify bonds as green, social, or sustainability based on the primary objective of the underlying projects, ensuring clear demarcation of impact.

• Disclosure Requirements: Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing. Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization.

• Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing.

• Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization.

• Independent Review Mechanism: Issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate ESG alignment, increasing investor trust and transparency.

• Monitoring and Impact Tracking: Issuers are responsible for continuous impact assessment to ensure that the funded operations effectively reduce environmental or social harm.

• Applicability and Implementation: The framework applies to all issuances of ESG debt securities from June 5, 2025, and aligns with global ESG benchmarks to attract responsible capital.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. For Sustainability-Linked Bonds (SLBs), the proceeds can be used for general corporate purposes. The key feature of an SLB is that its financial characteristics (like the coupon rate) are tied to the issuer achieving pre-defined ESG performance targets.

• Statement 2 is correct. A cornerstone of the SEBI framework is to enhance credibility and prevent ‘greenwashing’. To achieve this, it is mandatory for issuers to appoint an independent third-party reviewer or certifier. This entity’s role is to provide an objective assessment of the bond’s ESG credentials, including the selection of projects and the tracking of impact.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework is comprehensive and applies to both public issues and private placements of ESG debt securities. This ensures that the standards of transparency and accountability are maintained across different methods of raising capital.

• What are ESG Debt Securities? ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance) Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

• ESG debt securities are financial instruments used to raise funds exclusively for projects with environmental, social, or governance benefits. These include: Social Bonds (for social impact projects) Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals) Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance)

• Social Bonds (for social impact projects)

• Sustainability Bonds (for combined environmental and social goals)

• Sustainability-Linked Bonds (with targets linked to ESG performance)

• Key Features of ESG Debt Securities: Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects. Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective. Must comply with recognized international ESG standards. Require third-party verification or certification. Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

• Funds must be utilized for eligible sustainable or social projects.

• Bonds must be labelled accurately based on primary project objective.

• Must comply with recognized international ESG standards.

• Require third-party verification or certification.

• Applicable to both public issues and private placements.

About SEBI’s Operational Framework for ESG Debt Securities:

• Classification Criteria: Issuers must classify bonds as green, social, or sustainability based on the primary objective of the underlying projects, ensuring clear demarcation of impact.

• Disclosure Requirements: Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing. Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization.

• Initial disclosures in the offer document must include project eligibility, selection process, and indicative fund distribution between financing and refinancing.

• Continuous disclosures to be made annually, detailing impact metrics and fund utilization.

• Independent Review Mechanism: Issuers must appoint independent third-party reviewers or certifiers to validate ESG alignment, increasing investor trust and transparency.

• Monitoring and Impact Tracking: Issuers are responsible for continuous impact assessment to ensure that the funded operations effectively reduce environmental or social harm.

• Applicability and Implementation: The framework applies to all issuances of ESG debt securities from June 5, 2025, and aligns with global ESG benchmarks to attract responsible capital.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the newly notified Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi: It is located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, a region known for its rich marine biodiversity. The sanctuary’s primary purpose is to protect the breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingo along the East Asian-Australasian Flyway. The sanctuary exclusively comprises wetland habitats and does not include terrestrial ecosystems like sand dunes. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is part of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu. Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary is a vital stopover and feeding site for migratory birds along the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), not the East Asian-Australasian Flyway. While Greater Flamingos do breed in India (e.g., Rann of Kutch), this sanctuary is primarily noted as a crucial stopover habitat, not necessarily a primary breeding ground. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s ecosystem is diverse. It hosts mangroves, mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. The presence of sand dunes indicates a significant terrestrial component in addition to the wetland habitats, which is crucial for the overall ecological balance and for species like nesting sea turtles. About Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi: What it is? A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat. Location: Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu. Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk. Key Ecological Features: Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems. Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets. Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey. Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity. Significance: Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds. Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation. Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is part of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu. Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary is a vital stopover and feeding site for migratory birds along the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), not the East Asian-Australasian Flyway. While Greater Flamingos do breed in India (e.g., Rann of Kutch), this sanctuary is primarily noted as a crucial stopover habitat, not necessarily a primary breeding ground. Statement 3 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s ecosystem is diverse. It hosts mangroves, mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. The presence of sand dunes indicates a significant terrestrial component in addition to the wetland habitats, which is crucial for the overall ecological balance and for species like nesting sea turtles. About Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi: What it is? A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat. Location: Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu. Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk. Key Ecological Features: Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems. Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets. Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey. Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity. Significance: Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds. Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation. Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the newly notified Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi:

• It is located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, a region known for its rich marine biodiversity.

• The sanctuary’s primary purpose is to protect the breeding grounds of the Greater Flamingo along the East Asian-Australasian Flyway.

• The sanctuary exclusively comprises wetland habitats and does not include terrestrial ecosystems like sand dunes.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is part of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary is a vital stopover and feeding site for migratory birds along the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), not the East Asian-Australasian Flyway. While Greater Flamingos do breed in India (e.g., Rann of Kutch), this sanctuary is primarily noted as a crucial stopover habitat, not necessarily a primary breeding ground.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s ecosystem is diverse. It hosts mangroves, mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. The presence of sand dunes indicates a significant terrestrial component in addition to the wetland habitats, which is crucial for the overall ecological balance and for species like nesting sea turtles.

About Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi:

• What it is? A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat.

• A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat.

• Location: Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu. Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk.

• Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu.

• Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk.

• Key Ecological Features: Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems. Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets. Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey. Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity.

• Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems.

• Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets.

• Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes.

• Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey.

• Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity.

• Significance: Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds. Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation. Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts.

• Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds.

• Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation.

• Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The sanctuary is part of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve in Tamil Nadu.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The sanctuary is a vital stopover and feeding site for migratory birds along the Central Asian Flyway (CAF), not the East Asian-Australasian Flyway. While Greater Flamingos do breed in India (e.g., Rann of Kutch), this sanctuary is primarily noted as a crucial stopover habitat, not necessarily a primary breeding ground.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The sanctuary’s ecosystem is diverse. It hosts mangroves, mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. The presence of sand dunes indicates a significant terrestrial component in addition to the wetland habitats, which is crucial for the overall ecological balance and for species like nesting sea turtles.

About Greater Flamingo Sanctuary in Dhanushkodi:

• What it is? A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat.

• A newly notified wildlife sanctuary aimed at protecting migratory wetland birds, especially greater flamingos, in their natural stopover habitat.

• Location: Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu. Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk.

• Situated in Ramanathapuram district, Tamil Nadu.

• Spans 7 hectares of revenue and forest land within Rameshwaram taluk.

• Key Ecological Features: Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems. Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets. Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes. Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey. Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity.

• Located within the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, one of India’s richest marine ecosystems.

• Home to 128 bird species including flamingos, herons, sandpipers, and egrets.

• Hosts mangroves (Avicennia and Rhizophora), mudflats, marshes, and sand dunes.

• Recorded over 10,700 wetland birds in the 2023–24 bird survey.

• Supports sea turtle nesting and other marine biodiversity.

• Significance: Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds. Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation. Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts.

• Serves as a vital node on the Central Asian Flyway for migratory birds.

• Enhances ecotourism, biodiversity conservation, and local livelihood generation.

• Provides natural protection against coastal erosion and climate impacts.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Flamingo (Phoenicopterus roseus): The characteristic pink or reddish color of its plumage is derived from carotenoid pigments present in its diet of algae and crustaceans. It is a solitary bird, building its nest and raising its chick in isolation to avoid predation. Its conservation status according to the IUCN Red List is ‘Endangered’ due to widespread wetland degradation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The vibrant pink coloration of flamingos is not innate. It is a direct result of their diet, which is rich in beta-carotene (a type of carotenoid pigment). They obtain these pigments from consuming organisms like brine shrimp and blue-green algae. In captivity, their diet must be supplemented with canthaxanthin or other carotenoids to maintain their color. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo is a highly gregarious (social) species. They live, migrate, and breed in large colonies that can number in the thousands. This colonial behavior is a key trait and helps in collective defense against predators and in locating suitable feeding sites. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo has a very large population and a vast range. According to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’. It is not listed as ‘Endangered’. About the Greater Flamingo: Scientific Name: Phoenicopterus roseus Physical Features: Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs. Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water. Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet. Biological Traits: Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons. Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation. Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation. Social Behaviour: Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding. Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks. Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The vibrant pink coloration of flamingos is not innate. It is a direct result of their diet, which is rich in beta-carotene (a type of carotenoid pigment). They obtain these pigments from consuming organisms like brine shrimp and blue-green algae. In captivity, their diet must be supplemented with canthaxanthin or other carotenoids to maintain their color. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo is a highly gregarious (social) species. They live, migrate, and breed in large colonies that can number in the thousands. This colonial behavior is a key trait and helps in collective defense against predators and in locating suitable feeding sites. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo has a very large population and a vast range. According to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’. It is not listed as ‘Endangered’. About the Greater Flamingo: Scientific Name: Phoenicopterus roseus Physical Features: Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs. Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water. Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet. Biological Traits: Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons. Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation. Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation. Social Behaviour: Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding. Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks. Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Flamingo (Phoenicopterus roseus):

• The characteristic pink or reddish color of its plumage is derived from carotenoid pigments present in its diet of algae and crustaceans.

• It is a solitary bird, building its nest and raising its chick in isolation to avoid predation.

• Its conservation status according to the IUCN Red List is ‘Endangered’ due to widespread wetland degradation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3

• (d) 1 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The vibrant pink coloration of flamingos is not innate. It is a direct result of their diet, which is rich in beta-carotene (a type of carotenoid pigment). They obtain these pigments from consuming organisms like brine shrimp and blue-green algae. In captivity, their diet must be supplemented with canthaxanthin or other carotenoids to maintain their color.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo is a highly gregarious (social) species. They live, migrate, and breed in large colonies that can number in the thousands. This colonial behavior is a key trait and helps in collective defense against predators and in locating suitable feeding sites.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo has a very large population and a vast range. According to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’. It is not listed as ‘Endangered’.

About the Greater Flamingo:

• Scientific Name: Phoenicopterus roseus

• Physical Features: Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs. Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water. Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet.

• Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs.

• Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water.

• Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet.

• Biological Traits: Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons. Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation. Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation.

• Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons.

• Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation.

• Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation.

• Social Behaviour: Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding. Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks. Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy.

• Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding.

• Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks.

• Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The vibrant pink coloration of flamingos is not innate. It is a direct result of their diet, which is rich in beta-carotene (a type of carotenoid pigment). They obtain these pigments from consuming organisms like brine shrimp and blue-green algae. In captivity, their diet must be supplemented with canthaxanthin or other carotenoids to maintain their color.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo is a highly gregarious (social) species. They live, migrate, and breed in large colonies that can number in the thousands. This colonial behavior is a key trait and helps in collective defense against predators and in locating suitable feeding sites.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Greater Flamingo has a very large population and a vast range. According to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, its conservation status is ‘Least Concern’. It is not listed as ‘Endangered’.

About the Greater Flamingo:

• Scientific Name: Phoenicopterus roseus

• Physical Features: Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs. Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water. Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet.

• Height: 90 to 150 cm and tall, pink wading birds with long necks and legs.

• Distinctive downturned bills used for filter feeding in shallow water.

• Coloration comes from carotenoids in their diet.

• Biological Traits: Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons. Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation. Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation.

• Builds cone-shaped mud nests in lagoons.

• Lays 1–2 eggs and both parents participate in incubation.

• Chicks are downy white and are fed by regurgitation.

• Social Behaviour: Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding. Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks. Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy.

• Highly gregarious, forming large colonies during breeding.

• Fly in coordinated V-shaped flocks.

• Known to stand on one leg—possibly to conserve body heat or energy.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): Statement I: It is a Brussels-based global forum that publishes the ‘International Review of Administrative Sciences’. Statement II: The institute primarily focuses on facilitating dialogue between policymakers and scholars from its member nations. Statement III: It holds three major international conferences annually. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) All three statements are correct (b) Only two statements are correct (c) Only one statement is correct (d) None of the statements are correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The IIAS is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, and one of its key functions is the publication of the International Review of Administrative Sciences, a significant journal in its field. Statement II is correct. The core purpose of the IIAS is to advance public administration. It achieves this by acting as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries, promoting dialogue, research, and collaboration. Statement III is correct. The institute organizes three international conferences annually across its member nations, which serves as a primary platform for intercultural dialogue and knowledge exchange. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The IIAS is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, and one of its key functions is the publication of the International Review of Administrative Sciences, a significant journal in its field. Statement II is correct. The core purpose of the IIAS is to advance public administration. It achieves this by acting as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries, promoting dialogue, research, and collaboration. Statement III is correct. The institute organizes three international conferences annually across its member nations, which serves as a primary platform for intercultural dialogue and knowledge exchange.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS):

Statement I: It is a Brussels-based global forum that publishes the ‘International Review of Administrative Sciences’.

Statement II: The institute primarily focuses on facilitating dialogue between policymakers and scholars from its member nations.

Statement III: It holds three major international conferences annually.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) All three statements are correct

• (b) Only two statements are correct

• (c) Only one statement is correct

• (d) None of the statements are correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The IIAS is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, and one of its key functions is the publication of the International Review of Administrative Sciences, a significant journal in its field.

• Statement II is correct. The core purpose of the IIAS is to advance public administration. It achieves this by acting as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries, promoting dialogue, research, and collaboration.

• Statement III is correct. The institute organizes three international conferences annually across its member nations, which serves as a primary platform for intercultural dialogue and knowledge exchange.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The IIAS is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium, and one of its key functions is the publication of the International Review of Administrative Sciences, a significant journal in its field.

• Statement II is correct. The core purpose of the IIAS is to advance public administration. It achieves this by acting as a forum for policy practitioners and scholars from over 90 countries, promoting dialogue, research, and collaboration.

• Statement III is correct. The institute organizes three international conferences annually across its member nations, which serves as a primary platform for intercultural dialogue and knowledge exchange.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following actions: Providing capital subsidies for the purchase of waste collection vehicles. Issuing occupational identity cards for formal recognition. Ensuring coverage under the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme. Forming waste picker collectives to manage dry waste collection centres. How many of the above are key features or interventions under the Waste Picker Enumeration App and its parent NAMASTE scheme? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is Correct: The scheme offers capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods and help waste pickers transition into entrepreneurs. Statement 2 is Correct: A primary goal of the enumeration is to provide formal recognition through occupational identity cards, which helps in accessing various government benefits. Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme aims to provide a social safety net, which includes providing health insurance coverage under Ayushman Bharat. Statement 4 is Correct: The scheme supports the formation of waste picker collectives and aims to integrate them into the formal waste management chain by enabling them to manage facilities like dry waste collection centres. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is Correct: The scheme offers capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods and help waste pickers transition into entrepreneurs. Statement 2 is Correct: A primary goal of the enumeration is to provide formal recognition through occupational identity cards, which helps in accessing various government benefits. Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme aims to provide a social safety net, which includes providing health insurance coverage under Ayushman Bharat. Statement 4 is Correct: The scheme supports the formation of waste picker collectives and aims to integrate them into the formal waste management chain by enabling them to manage facilities like dry waste collection centres.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following actions:

• Providing capital subsidies for the purchase of waste collection vehicles.

• Issuing occupational identity cards for formal recognition.

• Ensuring coverage under the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme.

• Forming waste picker collectives to manage dry waste collection centres.

How many of the above are key features or interventions under the Waste Picker Enumeration App and its parent NAMASTE scheme?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is Correct: The scheme offers capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods and help waste pickers transition into entrepreneurs.

• Statement 2 is Correct: A primary goal of the enumeration is to provide formal recognition through occupational identity cards, which helps in accessing various government benefits.

• Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme aims to provide a social safety net, which includes providing health insurance coverage under Ayushman Bharat.

• Statement 4 is Correct: The scheme supports the formation of waste picker collectives and aims to integrate them into the formal waste management chain by enabling them to manage facilities like dry waste collection centres.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is Correct: The scheme offers capital subsidy for waste collection vehicles to promote sustainable livelihoods and help waste pickers transition into entrepreneurs.

• Statement 2 is Correct: A primary goal of the enumeration is to provide formal recognition through occupational identity cards, which helps in accessing various government benefits.

• Statement 3 is Correct: The scheme aims to provide a social safety net, which includes providing health insurance coverage under Ayushman Bharat.

• Statement 4 is Correct: The scheme supports the formation of waste picker collectives and aims to integrate them into the formal waste management chain by enabling them to manage facilities like dry waste collection centres.

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