UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Pension Yojana (APY): The scheme is available to all Indian citizens within the age bracket of 18 to 50 years. It is administratively managed by the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India. The central government ensures a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 upon reaching the age of 60. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched in 2015, is a flagship social security program primarily targeting the unorganised sector. Statement 1 is incorrect because the eligibility age is 18 to 40 years, not up to 50. This ensures a long contribution period (at least 20 years) to build a sustainable corpus. Statement 2 is incorrect as the scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the statutory regulator for pensions in India, not LIC. While banks and post offices act as points of presence for implementation, the regulatory oversight remains with PFRDA. Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The scheme guarantees a fixed pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 based on the contribution amount and age of entry. A critical update to the scheme is the exclusion of income-tax payers from enrollment starting October 2022, aimed at better targeting the “poor and underprivileged.” The scheme also provides a safety net for the family; if the subscriber dies, the spouse continues to receive the same pension amount, and after both pass away, the accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee, ensuring long-term financial security for the household. Incorrect Solution: A The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched in 2015, is a flagship social security program primarily targeting the unorganised sector. Statement 1 is incorrect because the eligibility age is 18 to 40 years, not up to 50. This ensures a long contribution period (at least 20 years) to build a sustainable corpus. Statement 2 is incorrect as the scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the statutory regulator for pensions in India, not LIC. While banks and post offices act as points of presence for implementation, the regulatory oversight remains with PFRDA. Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The scheme guarantees a fixed pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 based on the contribution amount and age of entry. A critical update to the scheme is the exclusion of income-tax payers from enrollment starting October 2022, aimed at better targeting the “poor and underprivileged.” The scheme also provides a safety net for the family; if the subscriber dies, the spouse continues to receive the same pension amount, and after both pass away, the accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee, ensuring long-term financial security for the household.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Pension Yojana (APY):

• The scheme is available to all Indian citizens within the age bracket of 18 to 50 years.

• It is administratively managed by the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India.

• The central government ensures a guaranteed minimum monthly pension ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 upon reaching the age of 60.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched in 2015, is a flagship social security program primarily targeting the unorganised sector.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the eligibility age is 18 to 40 years, not up to 50. This ensures a long contribution period (at least 20 years) to build a sustainable corpus.

• Statement 2 is incorrect as the scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), the statutory regulator for pensions in India, not LIC. While banks and post offices act as points of presence for implementation, the regulatory oversight remains with PFRDA.

• Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The scheme guarantees a fixed pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 based on the contribution amount and age of entry.

A critical update to the scheme is the exclusion of income-tax payers from enrollment starting October 2022, aimed at better targeting the “poor and underprivileged.” The scheme also provides a safety net for the family; if the subscriber dies, the spouse continues to receive the same pension amount, and after both pass away, the accumulated pension corpus is returned to the nominee, ensuring long-term financial security for the household.

Solution: A

• The Atal Pension Yojana (APY), launched in 2015, is a flagship social security program primarily targeting the unorganised sector.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the eligibility age is 18 to 40 years, not up to 50. This ensures a long contribution period (at least 20 years) to build a sustainable corpus.

• Statement 3 is the only correct statement. The scheme guarantees a fixed pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 based on the contribution amount and age of entry.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): It was established as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India. It provides direct lending to MSMEs only when bank credit is unavailable or inadequate. SIDBI is headquartered in Mumbai to maintain proximity to the financial capital’s regulators. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SIDBI was established in 1990 as a wholly owned subsidiary of IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India), not the RBI. It was subsequently delinked from IDBI in March 2000 to function as an independent statutory body. Statement 3 is also incorrect; unlike most major financial institutions, SIDBI is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. Statement 2 is the only correct statement. While SIDBI’s primary role is refinancing, it also engages in direct lending to MSMEs. This is usually targeted at filling credit gaps where traditional commercial banks might be hesitant to lend due to perceived risks or lack of collateral. SIDBI has pioneered collateral-free and digital credit products, using alternative data to assess the creditworthiness of small firms. Additionally, it supports Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) to ensure credit reaches the grassroots level. By acting as the “backbone of MSME credit architecture,” SIDBI promotes formalization and employment. The institution also provides venture debt and startup financing, supporting innovation-led growth in the small-scale sector. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. SIDBI was established in 1990 as a wholly owned subsidiary of IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India), not the RBI. It was subsequently delinked from IDBI in March 2000 to function as an independent statutory body. Statement 3 is also incorrect; unlike most major financial institutions, SIDBI is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. Statement 2 is the only correct statement. While SIDBI’s primary role is refinancing, it also engages in direct lending to MSMEs. This is usually targeted at filling credit gaps where traditional commercial banks might be hesitant to lend due to perceived risks or lack of collateral. SIDBI has pioneered collateral-free and digital credit products, using alternative data to assess the creditworthiness of small firms. Additionally, it supports Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) to ensure credit reaches the grassroots level. By acting as the “backbone of MSME credit architecture,” SIDBI promotes formalization and employment. The institution also provides venture debt and startup financing, supporting innovation-led growth in the small-scale sector.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):

• It was established as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.

• It provides direct lending to MSMEs only when bank credit is unavailable or inadequate.

• SIDBI is headquartered in Mumbai to maintain proximity to the financial capital’s regulators.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. SIDBI was established in 1990 as a wholly owned subsidiary of IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India), not the RBI. It was subsequently delinked from IDBI in March 2000 to function as an independent statutory body.

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; unlike most major financial institutions, SIDBI is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.

• Statement 2 is the only correct statement. While SIDBI’s primary role is refinancing, it also engages in direct lending to MSMEs. This is usually targeted at filling credit gaps where traditional commercial banks might be hesitant to lend due to perceived risks or lack of collateral.

SIDBI has pioneered collateral-free and digital credit products, using alternative data to assess the creditworthiness of small firms. Additionally, it supports Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) to ensure credit reaches the grassroots level. By acting as the “backbone of MSME credit architecture,” SIDBI promotes formalization and employment. The institution also provides venture debt and startup financing, supporting innovation-led growth in the small-scale sector.

Solution: A

• Statement 3 is also incorrect; unlike most major financial institutions, SIDBI is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Which one of the following best describes the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)? (a) A military alliance led by India to counter naval expansion in the South China Sea. (b) A legally binding treaty that mandates joint naval patrols among member nations. (c) A voluntary, non-treaty cooperative framework for practical maritime collaboration. (d) An exclusive trade bloc comprising only Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) members. Correct Solution: C The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is a non-military, voluntary framework launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the East Asia Summit in Bangkok in 2019. It is rooted in India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) Unlike military alliances (like AUKUS) or formal treaties, the IPOI focuses on practical cooperation in the maritime domain. The initiative is built on seven pillars: Maritime Security, Maritime Ecology, Maritime Resources, Capacity Building, Disaster Risk Reduction, Science & Technology, and Trade & Connectivity. Any country can choose to voluntarily lead or participate in specific pillars based on its interest and expertise. For instance, Spain’s recent accession is significant as it demonstrates the growing global legitimacy of the IPOI beyond the immediate region, involving European powers in the Indo-Pacific discourse. The IPOI seeks to promote a “free, open, and inclusive” Indo-Pacific, emphasizing a rules-based order and sustainable management of maritime resources. It specifically avoids a “bloc-based” approach, aiming instead for multilateralism that counters great-power rivalry through developmental and ecological cooperation. Incorrect Solution: C The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is a non-military, voluntary framework launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the East Asia Summit in Bangkok in 2019. It is rooted in India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) Unlike military alliances (like AUKUS) or formal treaties, the IPOI focuses on practical cooperation in the maritime domain. The initiative is built on seven pillars: Maritime Security, Maritime Ecology, Maritime Resources, Capacity Building, Disaster Risk Reduction, Science & Technology, and Trade & Connectivity. Any country can choose to voluntarily lead or participate in specific pillars based on its interest and expertise. For instance, Spain’s recent accession is significant as it demonstrates the growing global legitimacy of the IPOI beyond the immediate region, involving European powers in the Indo-Pacific discourse. The IPOI seeks to promote a “free, open, and inclusive” Indo-Pacific, emphasizing a rules-based order and sustainable management of maritime resources. It specifically avoids a “bloc-based” approach, aiming instead for multilateralism that counters great-power rivalry through developmental and ecological cooperation.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following best describes the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)?

• (a) A military alliance led by India to counter naval expansion in the South China Sea.

• (b) A legally binding treaty that mandates joint naval patrols among member nations.

• (c) A voluntary, non-treaty cooperative framework for practical maritime collaboration.

• (d) An exclusive trade bloc comprising only Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) members.

Solution: C

• The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is a non-military, voluntary framework launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the East Asia Summit in Bangkok in 2019. It is rooted in India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) Unlike military alliances (like AUKUS) or formal treaties, the IPOI focuses on practical cooperation in the maritime domain.

• The initiative is built on seven pillars: Maritime Security, Maritime Ecology, Maritime Resources, Capacity Building, Disaster Risk Reduction, Science & Technology, and Trade & Connectivity. Any country can choose to voluntarily lead or participate in specific pillars based on its interest and expertise. For instance, Spain’s recent accession is significant as it demonstrates the growing global legitimacy of the IPOI beyond the immediate region, involving European powers in the Indo-Pacific discourse.

• The IPOI seeks to promote a “free, open, and inclusive” Indo-Pacific, emphasizing a rules-based order and sustainable management of maritime resources. It specifically avoids a “bloc-based” approach, aiming instead for multilateralism that counters great-power rivalry through developmental and ecological cooperation.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Solar radiation storms: Statement-I: Solar radiation storms can cause significant disruptions to high-frequency (HF) radio communications and aviation navigation systems. Statement-II: High-energy protons during such storms can ionize the upper layers of Earth’s atmosphere, leading to the absorption of radio waves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement-II provides the scientific mechanism behind Statement-I. When the Sun ejects high-energy protons (a solar radiation storm), they reach Earth and are guided by the magnetic field toward the polar regions. As they enter the atmosphere, they collide with atoms and molecules, causing ionization in the D-region of the ionosphere (Statement-II). This increased ionization causes the atmosphere to absorb high-frequency (HF) radio waves rather than reflecting them back to Earth. This leads to “radio blackouts,” particularly affecting polar flights that rely on HF radio for communication where satellite coverage is sparse. Additionally, the turbulence in the ionosphere causes scintillation of GPS signals, leading to navigation errors (Statement-I). Therefore, the physical change in the atmosphere (ionization) is the direct cause of the technological disruption (radio/GPS failure). These storms also necessitate astronauts on the ISS to seek shelter in shielded modules to avoid radiation sickness. Incorrect Solution: A Both statements are correct and Statement-II provides the scientific mechanism behind Statement-I. When the Sun ejects high-energy protons (a solar radiation storm), they reach Earth and are guided by the magnetic field toward the polar regions. As they enter the atmosphere, they collide with atoms and molecules, causing ionization in the D-region of the ionosphere (Statement-II). This increased ionization causes the atmosphere to absorb high-frequency (HF) radio waves rather than reflecting them back to Earth. This leads to “radio blackouts,” particularly affecting polar flights that rely on HF radio for communication where satellite coverage is sparse. Additionally, the turbulence in the ionosphere causes scintillation of GPS signals, leading to navigation errors (Statement-I). Therefore, the physical change in the atmosphere (ionization) is the direct cause of the technological disruption (radio/GPS failure). These storms also necessitate astronauts on the ISS to seek shelter in shielded modules to avoid radiation sickness.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Solar radiation storms:

Statement-I: Solar radiation storms can cause significant disruptions to high-frequency (HF) radio communications and aviation navigation systems.

Statement-II: High-energy protons during such storms can ionize the upper layers of Earth’s atmosphere, leading to the absorption of radio waves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement-II provides the scientific mechanism behind Statement-I.

• When the Sun ejects high-energy protons (a solar radiation storm), they reach Earth and are guided by the magnetic field toward the polar regions. As they enter the atmosphere, they collide with atoms and molecules, causing ionization in the D-region of the ionosphere (Statement-II). This increased ionization causes the atmosphere to absorb high-frequency (HF) radio waves rather than reflecting them back to Earth.

• This leads to “radio blackouts,” particularly affecting polar flights that rely on HF radio for communication where satellite coverage is sparse. Additionally, the turbulence in the ionosphere causes scintillation of GPS signals, leading to navigation errors (Statement-I). Therefore, the physical change in the atmosphere (ionization) is the direct cause of the technological disruption (radio/GPS failure). These storms also necessitate astronauts on the ISS to seek shelter in shielded modules to avoid radiation sickness.

Solution: A

• Both statements are correct and Statement-II provides the scientific mechanism behind Statement-I.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Match the following geographical features of the Arabian Sea with their descriptions: Feature (Col A) Description (Col B) 1. Carlsberg Ridge i. A seismically active submarine ridge in the northwestern Arabian Sea. 2. Bab-el-Mandeb ii. The strait connecting the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea. 3. Murray Ridge iii. A major mid-ocean ridge that is part of the Indian Ocean’s tectonic boundary. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii (b) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i (c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii (d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i Correct Solution: D The Arabian Sea is a geologically complex region. The Carlsberg Ridge (1-iii) is a slow-spreading mid-ocean ridge that separates the African Plate from the Indo-Australian Plate. It is a major source of seismic activity in the Indian Ocean. The Bab-el-Mandeb (2-ii) is a strategic “chokepoint” that links the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea and eventually to the Mediterranean via the Suez Canal. The Murray Ridge (3-i) is another significant tectonic feature in the north, near the coast of Pakistan and Oman, which helps define the deep basins of the sea. The sea is bordered by India, Pakistan, Iran, Oman, Yemen, and Somalia. It was formed approximately 50 million years ago when the Indian plate collided with Eurasia. Recently, the “boiling” phenomenon off the Gujarat coast has brought focus back to these geological features. Potential causes include methane seepage from the seabed or underwater tectonic activity along these ridges. The upwelling zones along the Somali and Arabian coasts during the monsoon are also critical for the region’s rich fisheries. Incorrect Solution: D The Arabian Sea is a geologically complex region. The Carlsberg Ridge (1-iii) is a slow-spreading mid-ocean ridge that separates the African Plate from the Indo-Australian Plate. It is a major source of seismic activity in the Indian Ocean. The Bab-el-Mandeb (2-ii) is a strategic “chokepoint” that links the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea and eventually to the Mediterranean via the Suez Canal. The Murray Ridge (3-i) is another significant tectonic feature in the north, near the coast of Pakistan and Oman, which helps define the deep basins of the sea. The sea is bordered by India, Pakistan, Iran, Oman, Yemen, and Somalia. It was formed approximately 50 million years ago when the Indian plate collided with Eurasia. Recently, the “boiling” phenomenon off the Gujarat coast has brought focus back to these geological features. Potential causes include methane seepage from the seabed or underwater tectonic activity along these ridges. The upwelling zones along the Somali and Arabian coasts during the monsoon are also critical for the region’s rich fisheries.

#### 5. Question

Match the following geographical features of the Arabian Sea with their descriptions:

Feature (Col A) | Description (Col B)

1.Carlsberg Ridge | i. A seismically active submarine ridge in the northwestern Arabian Sea.
2.Bab-el-Mandeb | ii. The strait connecting the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea.
3.Murray Ridge | iii. A major mid-ocean ridge that is part of the Indian Ocean’s tectonic boundary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii

• (b) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i

• (c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii

• (d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i

Solution: D

• The Arabian Sea is a geologically complex region. The Carlsberg Ridge (1-iii) is a slow-spreading mid-ocean ridge that separates the African Plate from the Indo-Australian Plate. It is a major source of seismic activity in the Indian Ocean.

• The Bab-el-Mandeb (2-ii) is a strategic “chokepoint” that links the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea and eventually to the Mediterranean via the Suez Canal.

• The Murray Ridge (3-i) is another significant tectonic feature in the north, near the coast of Pakistan and Oman, which helps define the deep basins of the sea.

• The sea is bordered by India, Pakistan, Iran, Oman, Yemen, and Somalia. It was formed approximately 50 million years ago when the Indian plate collided with Eurasia. Recently, the “boiling” phenomenon off the Gujarat coast has brought focus back to these geological features. Potential causes include methane seepage from the seabed or underwater tectonic activity along these ridges. The upwelling zones along the Somali and Arabian coasts during the monsoon are also critical for the region’s rich fisheries.

Solution: D

• The Bab-el-Mandeb (2-ii) is a strategic “chokepoint” that links the Arabian Sea to the Red Sea and eventually to the Mediterranean via the Suez Canal.

• The Murray Ridge (3-i) is another significant tectonic feature in the north, near the coast of Pakistan and Oman, which helps define the deep basins of the sea.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), which of the following is NOT correct? (a) It was given statutory status in 2003. (b) The Vigilance Commissioners hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years. (c) It has the power of a civil court while conducting an inquiry. (d) It exercises superintendence over the functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) insofar as it relates to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act. Correct Solution: B Option (b) is incorrect because the tenure for the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners is four years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. In contrast, the Lokpal members have a tenure of five years or up to 70 years of age. Option (a) is correct (CVC Act, 2003). Option (c) is correct; to effectively inquire into complaints, the CVC is vested with the powers of a civil court (summoning persons, receiving evidence on affidavits, etc.). Option (d) is correct and is one of the most significant powers of the CVC, ensuring that the CBI remains accountable in corruption-related cases. The CVC also handles Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informer Resolution (PIDPI) complaints (Whistle-blower protection) and advises the government on vigilance policy. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is incorrect because the tenure for the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners is four years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. In contrast, the Lokpal members have a tenure of five years or up to 70 years of age. Option (a) is correct (CVC Act, 2003). Option (c) is correct; to effectively inquire into complaints, the CVC is vested with the powers of a civil court (summoning persons, receiving evidence on affidavits, etc.). Option (d) is correct and is one of the most significant powers of the CVC, ensuring that the CBI remains accountable in corruption-related cases. The CVC also handles Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informer Resolution (PIDPI) complaints (Whistle-blower protection) and advises the government on vigilance policy.

#### 6. Question

With reference to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), which of the following is NOT correct?

• (a) It was given statutory status in 2003.

• (b) The Vigilance Commissioners hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years.

• (c) It has the power of a civil court while conducting an inquiry.

• (d) It exercises superintendence over the functioning of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (CBI) insofar as it relates to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

Solution: B

• Option (b) is incorrect because the tenure for the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners is four years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. In contrast, the Lokpal members have a tenure of five years or up to 70 years of age.

• Option (a) is correct (CVC Act, 2003).

• Option (c) is correct; to effectively inquire into complaints, the CVC is vested with the powers of a civil court (summoning persons, receiving evidence on affidavits, etc.).

• Option (d) is correct and is one of the most significant powers of the CVC, ensuring that the CBI remains accountable in corruption-related cases. The CVC also handles Public Interest Disclosure and Protection of Informer Resolution (PIDPI) complaints (Whistle-blower protection) and advises the government on vigilance policy.

Solution: B

• Option (a) is correct (CVC Act, 2003).

• Option (c) is correct; to effectively inquire into complaints, the CVC is vested with the powers of a civil court (summoning persons, receiving evidence on affidavits, etc.).

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Dugongs: They are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Their primary diet consists of marine algae and small crustaceans. They are often called “ecosystem engineers” because they help in the regeneration of seagrass. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; they have the highest level of protection in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because Dugongs are exclusively herbivorous and feed almost entirely on seagrass, not algae or crustaceans. Statement 3 is correct; as they graze, they clear areas of the seabed and their feeding action (which involves “tilling” the sediment) actually encourages the growth of more nutritious seagrass species, thus acting as ecosystem engineers. Their decline is often an indicator of the poor health of the seagrass ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct; they have the highest level of protection in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because Dugongs are exclusively herbivorous and feed almost entirely on seagrass, not algae or crustaceans. Statement 3 is correct; as they graze, they clear areas of the seabed and their feeding action (which involves “tilling” the sediment) actually encourages the growth of more nutritious seagrass species, thus acting as ecosystem engineers. Their decline is often an indicator of the poor health of the seagrass ecosystem.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Dugongs:

• They are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Their primary diet consists of marine algae and small crustaceans.

• They are often called “ecosystem engineers” because they help in the regeneration of seagrass.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; they have the highest level of protection in India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because Dugongs are exclusively herbivorous and feed almost entirely on seagrass, not algae or crustaceans.

• Statement 3 is correct; as they graze, they clear areas of the seabed and their feeding action (which involves “tilling” the sediment) actually encourages the growth of more nutritious seagrass species, thus acting as ecosystem engineers. Their decline is often an indicator of the poor health of the seagrass ecosystem.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct; they have the highest level of protection in India.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because Dugongs are exclusively herbivorous and feed almost entirely on seagrass, not algae or crustaceans.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following bodies is not overseen or coordinated by Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)? (a) UNICEF (b) Functional Commissions (e.g., Commission on the Status of Women) (c) Regional Commissions (e.g., ESCAP) (d) International Court of Justice (ICJ) Correct Solution: D ECOSOC has a vast mandate, but it does not oversee the International Court of Justice (ICJ). The ICJ is another one of the six principal organs of the UN, but it operates independently as the primary judicial branch. ECOSOC’s strength lies in its coordinating role within the UN development system. Specialized Agencies/Programmes: It elects the executive boards and oversees the work of bodies like UNICEF, UNDP, and UNHCR (Statement (a) is correct). Regional Commissions: It oversees five regional commissions, such as the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), which tackle development at the regional level (Statement (c) is correct). Functional Commissions: It manages expert bodies like the Commission on the Status of Women or the Statistical Commission, which develop global standards and policies (Statement (b) is correct). On its 80th anniversary in 2026, ECOSOC continues to be the primary link between the UN’s high-level policy goals and the specialized technical agencies that implement them on the ground. Incorrect Solution: D ECOSOC has a vast mandate, but it does not oversee the International Court of Justice (ICJ). The ICJ is another one of the six principal organs of the UN, but it operates independently as the primary judicial branch. ECOSOC’s strength lies in its coordinating role within the UN development system. Specialized Agencies/Programmes: It elects the executive boards and oversees the work of bodies like UNICEF, UNDP, and UNHCR (Statement (a) is correct). Regional Commissions: It oversees five regional commissions, such as the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), which tackle development at the regional level (Statement (c) is correct). Functional Commissions: It manages expert bodies like the Commission on the Status of Women or the Statistical Commission, which develop global standards and policies (Statement (b) is correct). On its 80th anniversary in 2026, ECOSOC continues to be the primary link between the UN’s high-level policy goals and the specialized technical agencies that implement them on the ground.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following bodies is not overseen or coordinated by Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)?

• (a) UNICEF

• (b) Functional Commissions (e.g., Commission on the Status of Women)

• (c) Regional Commissions (e.g., ESCAP)

• (d) International Court of Justice (ICJ)

Solution: D

ECOSOC has a vast mandate, but it does not oversee the International Court of Justice (ICJ). The ICJ is another one of the six principal organs of the UN, but it operates independently as the primary judicial branch.

ECOSOC’s strength lies in its coordinating role within the UN development system.

• Specialized Agencies/Programmes: It elects the executive boards and oversees the work of bodies like UNICEF, UNDP, and UNHCR (Statement (a) is correct).

• Regional Commissions: It oversees five regional commissions, such as the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), which tackle development at the regional level (Statement (c) is correct).

• Functional Commissions: It manages expert bodies like the Commission on the Status of Women or the Statistical Commission, which develop global standards and policies (Statement (b) is correct). On its 80th anniversary in 2026, ECOSOC continues to be the primary link between the UN’s high-level policy goals and the specialized technical agencies that implement them on the ground.

Solution: D

ECOSOC’s strength lies in its coordinating role within the UN development system.

• Specialized Agencies/Programmes: It elects the executive boards and oversees the work of bodies like UNICEF, UNDP, and UNHCR (Statement (a) is correct).

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Silver metal production and resources in India: Silver in India is primarily recovered as a by-product of lead, zinc, copper, and gold ores rather than from standalone silver mines. Rajasthan is the leading producer of silver in India, accounting for nearly the entire national output. Karnataka contributes to silver production through gold refining at the Hutti Gold Mines. India holds approximately 10% of the global silver reserves, making it a major global resource hub. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: India does not have major native silver deposits; it is recovered as a by-product. Rajasthan dominates production (approx. 99%) through the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter. Karnataka provides minor production as a byproduct of gold refining at Hutti Gold Mines. Statement 4 is incorrect: While India is a significant consumer and has integrated refining capacity, it holds only about 1% of global silver reserves. This makes India resource-constrained regarding the raw ore, despite being production-relevant. Globally, Mexico is the largest producer (~26% share). Silver is classified as a noble metal and is indispensable in electronics and photovoltaics due to having the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all metals. Incorrect Solution: C Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: India does not have major native silver deposits; it is recovered as a by-product. Rajasthan dominates production (approx. 99%) through the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter. Karnataka provides minor production as a byproduct of gold refining at Hutti Gold Mines. Statement 4 is incorrect: While India is a significant consumer and has integrated refining capacity, it holds only about 1% of global silver reserves. This makes India resource-constrained regarding the raw ore, despite being production-relevant. Globally, Mexico is the largest producer (~26% share). Silver is classified as a noble metal and is indispensable in electronics and photovoltaics due to having the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all metals.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Silver metal production and resources in India:

• Silver in India is primarily recovered as a by-product of lead, zinc, copper, and gold ores rather than from standalone silver mines.

• Rajasthan is the leading producer of silver in India, accounting for nearly the entire national output.

• Karnataka contributes to silver production through gold refining at the Hutti Gold Mines.

• India holds approximately 10% of the global silver reserves, making it a major global resource hub.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: India does not have major native silver deposits; it is recovered as a by-product. Rajasthan dominates production (approx. 99%) through the Chanderiya lead-zinc smelter. Karnataka provides minor production as a byproduct of gold refining at Hutti Gold Mines.

• Statement 4 is incorrect: While India is a significant consumer and has integrated refining capacity, it holds only about 1% of global silver reserves. This makes India resource-constrained regarding the raw ore, despite being production-relevant.

• Globally, Mexico is the largest producer (~26% share). Silver is classified as a noble metal and is indispensable in electronics and photovoltaics due to having the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all metals.

Solution: C

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the ‘Free-return trajectory’ mentioned in the context of the Artemis II Mission? (a) A path that allows a spacecraft to return to Earth using only solar sail propulsion. (b) A trajectory that uses the gravity of the Earth and the Moon to return a spacecraft to Earth without major propulsion burns. (c) A method of returning to Earth's atmosphere by utilizing the gravitational pull of Mars. (d) An emergency maneuver where the crewed capsule detaches from the Service Module during launch. Correct Solution: B The Artemis II mission will utilize a free-return trajectory. This is a specific orbital path where the spacecraft uses the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon to set itself on a course that naturally returns to Earth. This is a critical safety feature for deep-space missions; if the propulsion system fails after the initial burn toward the Moon, the spacecraft will still swing around the Moon and head back to Earth’s atmosphere for a Pacific Ocean splashdown. This mission marks the first crewed flight of the Artemis programme and will send four astronauts around the Moon’s far side, traveling farther from Earth than any human in history, validating human-rated systems for future Artemis III lunar landings. Incorrect Solution: B The Artemis II mission will utilize a free-return trajectory. This is a specific orbital path where the spacecraft uses the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon to set itself on a course that naturally returns to Earth. This is a critical safety feature for deep-space missions; if the propulsion system fails after the initial burn toward the Moon, the spacecraft will still swing around the Moon and head back to Earth’s atmosphere for a Pacific Ocean splashdown. This mission marks the first crewed flight of the Artemis programme and will send four astronauts around the Moon’s far side, traveling farther from Earth than any human in history, validating human-rated systems for future Artemis III lunar landings.

#### 10. Question

Which of the following best describes the ‘Free-return trajectory’ mentioned in the context of the Artemis II Mission?

• (a) A path that allows a spacecraft to return to Earth using only solar sail propulsion.

• (b) A trajectory that uses the gravity of the Earth and the Moon to return a spacecraft to Earth without major propulsion burns.

• (c) A method of returning to Earth's atmosphere by utilizing the gravitational pull of Mars.

• (d) An emergency maneuver where the crewed capsule detaches from the Service Module during launch.

Solution: B

• The Artemis II mission will utilize a free-return trajectory. This is a specific orbital path where the spacecraft uses the gravitational interaction between the Earth and the Moon to set itself on a course that naturally returns to Earth.

• This is a critical safety feature for deep-space missions; if the propulsion system fails after the initial burn toward the Moon, the spacecraft will still swing around the Moon and head back to Earth’s atmosphere for a Pacific Ocean splashdown.

• This mission marks the first crewed flight of the Artemis programme and will send four astronauts around the Moon’s far side, traveling farther from Earth than any human in history, validating human-rated systems for future Artemis III lunar landings.

Solution: B

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