UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 February 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Export Promotion Mission (EPM), consider the following statements: It is a flagship initiative implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. The mission adopts a dual framework consisting of ‘Niryat Protsahan’ and ‘Niryat Disha’. It provides financial assistance for the establishment of overseas warehousing and e-commerce export hubs. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is implemented by the Department of Commerce, which falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME. Although its primary beneficiaries are MSMEs, the administrative control lies with the commerce department to align with global trade policies. Statement 2 is correct as the mission utilizes a dual framework—Niryat Protsahan (financial enablers) and Niryat Disha (ecosystem support)—monitored through digital systems. Statement 3 is correct because the EPM includes specific logistics support components like FLOW and LIFT, which facilitate overseas warehousing and the development of e-commerce export hubs to help Indian goods reach international markets more efficiently. The mission aims to reduce structural barriers such as high logistics costs and compliance challenges (via the TRACE component), ensuring that Indian MSMEs become globally competitive. By offering interest subventions and credit guarantees, it addresses the “cost of capital” issue that frequently hinders small-scale exporters. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is implemented by the Department of Commerce, which falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME. Although its primary beneficiaries are MSMEs, the administrative control lies with the commerce department to align with global trade policies. Statement 2 is correct as the mission utilizes a dual framework—Niryat Protsahan (financial enablers) and Niryat Disha (ecosystem support)—monitored through digital systems. Statement 3 is correct because the EPM includes specific logistics support components like FLOW and LIFT, which facilitate overseas warehousing and the development of e-commerce export hubs to help Indian goods reach international markets more efficiently. The mission aims to reduce structural barriers such as high logistics costs and compliance challenges (via the TRACE component), ensuring that Indian MSMEs become globally competitive. By offering interest subventions and credit guarantees, it addresses the “cost of capital” issue that frequently hinders small-scale exporters.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Export Promotion Mission (EPM), consider the following statements:

• It is a flagship initiative implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

• The mission adopts a dual framework consisting of ‘Niryat Protsahan’ and ‘Niryat Disha’.

• It provides financial assistance for the establishment of overseas warehousing and e-commerce export hubs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Export Promotion Mission (EPM) is implemented by the Department of Commerce, which falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME. Although its primary beneficiaries are MSMEs, the administrative control lies with the commerce department to align with global trade policies.

• Statement 2 is correct as the mission utilizes a dual framework—Niryat Protsahan (financial enablers) and Niryat Disha (ecosystem support)—monitored through digital systems.

• Statement 3 is correct because the EPM includes specific logistics support components like FLOW and LIFT, which facilitate overseas warehousing and the development of e-commerce export hubs to help Indian goods reach international markets more efficiently.

• The mission aims to reduce structural barriers such as high logistics costs and compliance challenges (via the TRACE component), ensuring that Indian MSMEs become globally competitive. By offering interest subventions and credit guarantees, it addresses the “cost of capital” issue that frequently hinders small-scale exporters.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct as the mission utilizes a dual framework—Niryat Protsahan (financial enablers) and Niryat Disha (ecosystem support)—monitored through digital systems.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the SANKALP scheme: It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched to improve the quality of long-term vocational training provided by Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs). The scheme is implemented with loan assistance from the World Bank. It utilizes Disbursement Linked Indicators (DLIs) to link funding with performance outcomes. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because SANKALP (Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion) focuses specifically on short-term skill training rather than long-term vocational training at ITIs (which is often covered under the STRIVE project). Its goal is to strengthen the institutional mechanism for skill development at the state and district levels. Statement 2 is correct; the scheme is a World Bank loan-assisted project under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Statement 3 is correct as SANKALP introduces a result-oriented approach using Disbursement Linked Indicators (DLIs) and a Results Framework. This ensures that funds are released only when specific, verifiable milestones in institutional strengthening and inclusion are met. The scheme emphasizes the inclusion of marginalized groups and seeks to build a demand-driven skill ecosystem by fostering stronger industry linkages. By decentralizing planning to the district level, it attempts to bridge the gap between local skill requirements and the available workforce. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because SANKALP (Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion) focuses specifically on short-term skill training rather than long-term vocational training at ITIs (which is often covered under the STRIVE project). Its goal is to strengthen the institutional mechanism for skill development at the state and district levels. Statement 2 is correct; the scheme is a World Bank loan-assisted project under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Statement 3 is correct as SANKALP introduces a result-oriented approach using Disbursement Linked Indicators (DLIs) and a Results Framework. This ensures that funds are released only when specific, verifiable milestones in institutional strengthening and inclusion are met. The scheme emphasizes the inclusion of marginalized groups and seeks to build a demand-driven skill ecosystem by fostering stronger industry linkages. By decentralizing planning to the district level, it attempts to bridge the gap between local skill requirements and the available workforce.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the SANKALP scheme:

• It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched to improve the quality of long-term vocational training provided by Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs).

• The scheme is implemented with loan assistance from the World Bank.

• It utilizes Disbursement Linked Indicators (DLIs) to link funding with performance outcomes.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because SANKALP (Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion) focuses specifically on short-term skill training rather than long-term vocational training at ITIs (which is often covered under the STRIVE project). Its goal is to strengthen the institutional mechanism for skill development at the state and district levels.

• Statement 2 is correct; the scheme is a World Bank loan-assisted project under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

• Statement 3 is correct as SANKALP introduces a result-oriented approach using Disbursement Linked Indicators (DLIs) and a Results Framework. This ensures that funds are released only when specific, verifiable milestones in institutional strengthening and inclusion are met.

The scheme emphasizes the inclusion of marginalized groups and seeks to build a demand-driven skill ecosystem by fostering stronger industry linkages. By decentralizing planning to the district level, it attempts to bridge the gap between local skill requirements and the available workforce.

Solution: A

• Statement 2 is correct; the scheme is a World Bank loan-assisted project under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Tetanus and Diphtheria (Td) vaccine: It is a primary vaccine administered only to infants below the age of one year. It acts as a booster dose to maintain long-term immunity as protection from childhood vaccination declines. The Tdap variant of the vaccine provides additional protection against pertussis. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the Td vaccine is primarily a booster immunization administered to adolescents and adults (usually every 10 years) rather than being a primary infant-only vaccine. Primary immunization in infancy usually involves the DPT or pentavalent vaccine. Statement 2 is correct; the purpose of Td is to reinforce immunity against tetanus and diphtheria because the protection acquired through childhood shots fades over time. Statement 3 is correct; Tdap is a variant that includes protection against pertussis (whooping cough) in addition to tetanus and diphtheria. It is specifically recommended for pregnant women to provide passive immunity to the newborn. The recent launch of the Td vaccine at Kasauli highlights the government’s focus on strengthening the national immunization program beyond early childhood, ensuring that the adult population remains protected against these toxin-mediated bacterial diseases. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the Td vaccine is primarily a booster immunization administered to adolescents and adults (usually every 10 years) rather than being a primary infant-only vaccine. Primary immunization in infancy usually involves the DPT or pentavalent vaccine. Statement 2 is correct; the purpose of Td is to reinforce immunity against tetanus and diphtheria because the protection acquired through childhood shots fades over time. Statement 3 is correct; Tdap is a variant that includes protection against pertussis (whooping cough) in addition to tetanus and diphtheria. It is specifically recommended for pregnant women to provide passive immunity to the newborn. The recent launch of the Td vaccine at Kasauli highlights the government’s focus on strengthening the national immunization program beyond early childhood, ensuring that the adult population remains protected against these toxin-mediated bacterial diseases.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Tetanus and Diphtheria (Td) vaccine:

• It is a primary vaccine administered only to infants below the age of one year.

• It acts as a booster dose to maintain long-term immunity as protection from childhood vaccination declines.

• The Tdap variant of the vaccine provides additional protection against pertussis.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Td vaccine is primarily a booster immunization administered to adolescents and adults (usually every 10 years) rather than being a primary infant-only vaccine. Primary immunization in infancy usually involves the DPT or pentavalent vaccine.

• Statement 2 is correct; the purpose of Td is to reinforce immunity against tetanus and diphtheria because the protection acquired through childhood shots fades over time.

• Statement 3 is correct; Tdap is a variant that includes protection against pertussis (whooping cough) in addition to tetanus and diphtheria. It is specifically recommended for pregnant women to provide passive immunity to the newborn.

The recent launch of the Td vaccine at Kasauli highlights the government’s focus on strengthening the national immunization program beyond early childhood, ensuring that the adult population remains protected against these toxin-mediated bacterial diseases.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct; the purpose of Td is to reinforce immunity against tetanus and diphtheria because the protection acquired through childhood shots fades over time.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: Diphtheria is a highly contagious bacterial infection that can cause a thick grey coating in the throat. Statement II: Diphtheria spreads primarily through contaminated soil and animal waste entering through open wounds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which produces a toxin that leads to a characteristic thick grey pseudomembrane in the throat, potentially blocking the airway. Statement II is incorrect because it describes the transmission mode of Tetanus, not Diphtheria. Diphtheria spreads mainly through respiratory droplets (coughing or sneezing) from an infected person. In contrast, Tetanus (Clostridium tetani) is not contagious from person to person; its spores are found in soil, dust, and animal waste and enter the human body through cuts or puncture wounds. This distinction is critical for public health strategies: while Diphtheria requires respiratory precautions and community-wide vaccination to prevent outbreaks, Tetanus requires individual wound management and booster shots as it is an environmental pathogen. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which produces a toxin that leads to a characteristic thick grey pseudomembrane in the throat, potentially blocking the airway. Statement II is incorrect because it describes the transmission mode of Tetanus, not Diphtheria. Diphtheria spreads mainly through respiratory droplets (coughing or sneezing) from an infected person. In contrast, Tetanus (Clostridium tetani) is not contagious from person to person; its spores are found in soil, dust, and animal waste and enter the human body through cuts or puncture wounds. This distinction is critical for public health strategies: while Diphtheria requires respiratory precautions and community-wide vaccination to prevent outbreaks, Tetanus requires individual wound management and booster shots as it is an environmental pathogen.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Diphtheria is a highly contagious bacterial infection that can cause a thick grey coating in the throat.

Statement II: Diphtheria spreads primarily through contaminated soil and animal waste entering through open wounds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Diphtheria is caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which produces a toxin that leads to a characteristic thick grey pseudomembrane in the throat, potentially blocking the airway.

• Statement II is incorrect because it describes the transmission mode of Tetanus, not Diphtheria. Diphtheria spreads mainly through respiratory droplets (coughing or sneezing) from an infected person.

In contrast, Tetanus (Clostridium tetani) is not contagious from person to person; its spores are found in soil, dust, and animal waste and enter the human body through cuts or puncture wounds. This distinction is critical for public health strategies: while Diphtheria requires respiratory precautions and community-wide vaccination to prevent outbreaks, Tetanus requires individual wound management and booster shots as it is an environmental pathogen.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to Tetanus, consider the following statements: It is caused by a virus that thrives in anaerobic conditions. The disease is characterized by severe muscle stiffness and spasms, often referred to as “lockjaw.” Tetanus can be effectively prevented through timely vaccination as it cannot be cured once the toxins bind to nerve endings. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because Tetanus is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium tetani, not a virus. However, it does thrive in anaerobic (oxygen-poor) conditions, such as deep puncture wounds. Statement 2 is correct; the toxins produced by the bacteria affect the nervous system, leading to painful muscle contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck (hence “lockjaw”). Statement 3 is correct. While medical treatment exists to manage symptoms and neutralize unbound toxins, the damage caused by toxins already bound to nerve endings is difficult to reverse, making preventive vaccination the most effective strategy. This highlights the importance of the Td booster shots every 10 years to maintain a high level of circulating antibodies that can neutralize the toxin immediately upon infection. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because Tetanus is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium tetani, not a virus. However, it does thrive in anaerobic (oxygen-poor) conditions, such as deep puncture wounds. Statement 2 is correct; the toxins produced by the bacteria affect the nervous system, leading to painful muscle contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck (hence “lockjaw”). Statement 3 is correct. While medical treatment exists to manage symptoms and neutralize unbound toxins, the damage caused by toxins already bound to nerve endings is difficult to reverse, making preventive vaccination the most effective strategy. This highlights the importance of the Td booster shots every 10 years to maintain a high level of circulating antibodies that can neutralize the toxin immediately upon infection.

#### 5. Question

With reference to Tetanus, consider the following statements:

• It is caused by a virus that thrives in anaerobic conditions.

• The disease is characterized by severe muscle stiffness and spasms, often referred to as “lockjaw.”

• Tetanus can be effectively prevented through timely vaccination as it cannot be cured once the toxins bind to nerve endings.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because Tetanus is a bacterial disease caused by Clostridium tetani, not a virus. However, it does thrive in anaerobic (oxygen-poor) conditions, such as deep puncture wounds.

• Statement 2 is correct; the toxins produced by the bacteria affect the nervous system, leading to painful muscle contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck (hence “lockjaw”).

• Statement 3 is correct. While medical treatment exists to manage symptoms and neutralize unbound toxins, the damage caused by toxins already bound to nerve endings is difficult to reverse, making preventive vaccination the most effective strategy.

This highlights the importance of the Td booster shots every 10 years to maintain a high level of circulating antibodies that can neutralize the toxin immediately upon infection.

Solution: B

• Statement 2 is correct; the toxins produced by the bacteria affect the nervous system, leading to painful muscle contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck (hence “lockjaw”).

This highlights the importance of the Td booster shots every 10 years to maintain a high level of circulating antibodies that can neutralize the toxin immediately upon infection.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Pax Silica’ initiative: It aims to reduce risks from coercive or monopolistic supply chains in the semiconductor and AI sectors. It was conceptualized as a response to the concentration of rare-earth processing in certain geographies. The initiative specifically excludes private sector participation to maintain inter-governmental security protocols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct; the primary objective of Pax Silica is to build resilient and diversified global supply chains for critical minerals and semiconductors, protecting against economic coercion. Statement 2 is correct as it was conceptualized to address the concentration of rare-earth processing, which is currently dominated by a few countries, posing a strategic risk to global technology manufacturing. Statement 3 is incorrect because the initiative actively mobilizes private sector participation. It recognizes that innovation and scaling in AI and semiconductors are driven by entrepreneurship and industry capabilities, and thus seeks to align private investment with the strategic economic security goals of the partner nations. By building a “trusted innovation ecosystem,” Pax Silica encourages collaboration among governments, industries, and innovators to create secure technology stacks. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct; the primary objective of Pax Silica is to build resilient and diversified global supply chains for critical minerals and semiconductors, protecting against economic coercion. Statement 2 is correct as it was conceptualized to address the concentration of rare-earth processing, which is currently dominated by a few countries, posing a strategic risk to global technology manufacturing. Statement 3 is incorrect because the initiative actively mobilizes private sector participation. It recognizes that innovation and scaling in AI and semiconductors are driven by entrepreneurship and industry capabilities, and thus seeks to align private investment with the strategic economic security goals of the partner nations. By building a “trusted innovation ecosystem,” Pax Silica encourages collaboration among governments, industries, and innovators to create secure technology stacks.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Pax Silica’ initiative:

• It aims to reduce risks from coercive or monopolistic supply chains in the semiconductor and AI sectors.

• It was conceptualized as a response to the concentration of rare-earth processing in certain geographies.

• The initiative specifically excludes private sector participation to maintain inter-governmental security protocols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) 1 and 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct; the primary objective of Pax Silica is to build resilient and diversified global supply chains for critical minerals and semiconductors, protecting against economic coercion.

• Statement 2 is correct as it was conceptualized to address the concentration of rare-earth processing, which is currently dominated by a few countries, posing a strategic risk to global technology manufacturing.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the initiative actively mobilizes private sector participation. It recognizes that innovation and scaling in AI and semiconductors are driven by entrepreneurship and industry capabilities, and thus seeks to align private investment with the strategic economic security goals of the partner nations. By building a “trusted innovation ecosystem,” Pax Silica encourages collaboration among governments, industries, and innovators to create secure technology stacks.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points With reference to the Ravi River, consider the following statements: It originates near the Rohtang Pass in the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas. Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), the waters of the Ravi are allocated exclusively to India. The river forms a part of the international boundary between India and Pakistan before joining the Chenab River. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A The Ravi River is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region. Statement 1 is incorrect because while it does originate near the Rohtang Pass, this pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range, not the Zanskar Range. The river rises at an elevation of 4,400 meters and is formed by the confluence of the Budhil and Tantgari Statement 2 is correct; under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the three “Eastern Rivers” (Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej) were allocated to India for exclusive use, while the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) were allocated to Pakistan. Statement 3 is correct as the Ravi flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, forming the international border between India and Pakistan for a certain stretch before entering Pakistan to flow past Lahore and eventually merge with the Chenab River. India is currently working on projects like the Shahpur Kandi Dam to fully utilize its share of the Ravi’s water, which otherwise flows unutilized into Pakistan during the monsoon season. Incorrect Solution: A The Ravi River is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region. Statement 1 is incorrect because while it does originate near the Rohtang Pass, this pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range, not the Zanskar Range. The river rises at an elevation of 4,400 meters and is formed by the confluence of the Budhil and Tantgari Statement 2 is correct; under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the three “Eastern Rivers” (Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej) were allocated to India for exclusive use, while the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) were allocated to Pakistan. Statement 3 is correct as the Ravi flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, forming the international border between India and Pakistan for a certain stretch before entering Pakistan to flow past Lahore and eventually merge with the Chenab River. India is currently working on projects like the Shahpur Kandi Dam to fully utilize its share of the Ravi’s water, which otherwise flows unutilized into Pakistan during the monsoon season.

#### 7. Question

With reference to the Ravi River, consider the following statements:

• It originates near the Rohtang Pass in the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas.

• Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), the waters of the Ravi are allocated exclusively to India.

• The river forms a part of the international boundary between India and Pakistan before joining the Chenab River.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• The Ravi River is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because while it does originate near the Rohtang Pass, this pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range, not the Zanskar Range. The river rises at an elevation of 4,400 meters and is formed by the confluence of the Budhil and Tantgari

• Statement 2 is correct; under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the three “Eastern Rivers” (Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej) were allocated to India for exclusive use, while the “Western Rivers” (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab) were allocated to Pakistan.

• Statement 3 is correct as the Ravi flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, forming the international border between India and Pakistan for a certain stretch before entering Pakistan to flow past Lahore and eventually merge with the Chenab River.

• India is currently working on projects like the Shahpur Kandi Dam to fully utilize its share of the Ravi’s water, which otherwise flows unutilized into Pakistan during the monsoon season.

Solution: A

• The Ravi River is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region.

• India is currently working on projects like the Shahpur Kandi Dam to fully utilize its share of the Ravi’s water, which otherwise flows unutilized into Pakistan during the monsoon season.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following describes the “Bombay Uprising” of February 1946? a) A peasant rebellion against the Zamindari system in the Bombay Presidency. b) A protest by the Bombay textile mill workers against the Rowlatt Act. c) A strike by the Indian members of the Royal Indian Air Force (RIAF). d) A mass protest by workers and civilians in support of the striking naval ratings. Correct Solution: D The term “Bombay Uprising” specifically refers to the massive civilian involvement that followed the RIN strike. On February 21 and 22, 1946, Bombay saw a total shutdown. Statement (b) is correct. Over 200,000 workers in textile mills and other factories came out in support of the naval ratings. This was not just a military mutiny; it became a urban insurrection. The British responded with heavy force, deploying troops and even tanks in the mill districts of Kamatipura and Madanpura. The resulting street battles led to nearly 200 deaths and over 1,000 injuries. This event is significant because it showed that the anti-British sentiment had reached a boiling point where the civilian population was willing to face live fire to support the “boys in blue” (the naval ratings). It remains one of the most powerful examples of mass resistance in the final years of British rule. Incorrect Solution: D The term “Bombay Uprising” specifically refers to the massive civilian involvement that followed the RIN strike. On February 21 and 22, 1946, Bombay saw a total shutdown. Statement (b) is correct. Over 200,000 workers in textile mills and other factories came out in support of the naval ratings. This was not just a military mutiny; it became a urban insurrection. The British responded with heavy force, deploying troops and even tanks in the mill districts of Kamatipura and Madanpura. The resulting street battles led to nearly 200 deaths and over 1,000 injuries. This event is significant because it showed that the anti-British sentiment had reached a boiling point where the civilian population was willing to face live fire to support the “boys in blue” (the naval ratings). It remains one of the most powerful examples of mass resistance in the final years of British rule.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following describes the “Bombay Uprising” of February 1946?

• a) A peasant rebellion against the Zamindari system in the Bombay Presidency.

• b) A protest by the Bombay textile mill workers against the Rowlatt Act.

• c) A strike by the Indian members of the Royal Indian Air Force (RIAF).

• d) A mass protest by workers and civilians in support of the striking naval ratings.

Solution: D

• The term “Bombay Uprising” specifically refers to the massive civilian involvement that followed the RIN strike. On February 21 and 22, 1946, Bombay saw a total shutdown.

• Statement (b) is correct. Over 200,000 workers in textile mills and other factories came out in support of the naval ratings. This was not just a military mutiny; it became a urban insurrection.

• The British responded with heavy force, deploying troops and even tanks in the mill districts of Kamatipura and Madanpura. The resulting street battles led to nearly 200 deaths and over 1,000 injuries. This event is significant because it showed that the anti-British sentiment had reached a boiling point where the civilian population was willing to face live fire to support the “boys in blue” (the naval ratings). It remains one of the most powerful examples of mass resistance in the final years of British rule.

Solution: D

• The term “Bombay Uprising” specifically refers to the massive civilian involvement that followed the RIN strike. On February 21 and 22, 1946, Bombay saw a total shutdown.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points “Arribada,” a term often associated with conservation efforts in Odisha, refers to: (a) The unique courtship display of the Indian Peacock. (b) The seasonal migration of species to high-altitude Himalayan regions. (c) The mass nesting behavior of Olive Ridley sea turtles. (d) The controlled combustion process in air-breathing ramjet engines. Correct Solution: C Arribada is a Spanish word meaning “arrival.” In the context of marine biology and Indian environment news, it refers to the synchronized mass nesting of thousands of Olive Ridley sea turtles. The ‘turtle trails’ mentioned in the Union Budget are designed around these Arribada sites. Odisha’s Significance: The state hosts the most spectacular Arribadas in the world at Gahirmatha and Rushikulya. Conservation: During this time, thousands of females come ashore simultaneously to lay eggs. This behavior is a survival strategy to overwhelm predators. The proposed Turtle Trails in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala aim to allow people to witness this phenomenon without causing the light pollution or physical disturbance that often leads to the death of hatchlings or the abandonment of nesting attempts by the mothers. Incorrect Solution: C Arribada is a Spanish word meaning “arrival.” In the context of marine biology and Indian environment news, it refers to the synchronized mass nesting of thousands of Olive Ridley sea turtles. The ‘turtle trails’ mentioned in the Union Budget are designed around these Arribada sites. Odisha’s Significance: The state hosts the most spectacular Arribadas in the world at Gahirmatha and Rushikulya. Conservation: During this time, thousands of females come ashore simultaneously to lay eggs. This behavior is a survival strategy to overwhelm predators. The proposed Turtle Trails in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala aim to allow people to witness this phenomenon without causing the light pollution or physical disturbance that often leads to the death of hatchlings or the abandonment of nesting attempts by the mothers.

#### 9. Question

“Arribada,” a term often associated with conservation efforts in Odisha, refers to:

• (a) The unique courtship display of the Indian Peacock.

• (b) The seasonal migration of species to high-altitude Himalayan regions.

• (c) The mass nesting behavior of Olive Ridley sea turtles.

• (d) The controlled combustion process in air-breathing ramjet engines.

Solution: C

Arribada is a Spanish word meaning “arrival.” In the context of marine biology and Indian environment news, it refers to the synchronized mass nesting of thousands of Olive Ridley sea turtles.

• The ‘turtle trails’ mentioned in the Union Budget are designed around these Arribada sites.

• Odisha’s Significance: The state hosts the most spectacular Arribadas in the world at Gahirmatha and Rushikulya.

Conservation: During this time, thousands of females come ashore simultaneously to lay eggs. This behavior is a survival strategy to overwhelm predators. The proposed Turtle Trails in Odisha, Karnataka, and Kerala aim to allow people to witness this phenomenon without causing the light pollution or physical disturbance that often leads to the death of hatchlings or the abandonment of nesting attempts by the mothers.

Solution: C

• The ‘turtle trails’ mentioned in the Union Budget are designed around these Arribada sites.

• Odisha’s Significance: The state hosts the most spectacular Arribadas in the world at Gahirmatha and Rushikulya.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Removal of the Chief Election Commissioner: The motion for removal must be supported by a minimum of 100 members in Lok Sabha or 50 members in Rajya Sabha to be admitted. The President has the discretionary power to reject the advice of Parliament regarding the removal of the CEC. An independent inquiry committee must establish “proved misbehaviour or incapacity” before the motion is voted upon. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 (which governs the procedure as the CEC is removed in “like manner” to an SC Judge), a motion must be signed by at least 100 MPs in Lok Sabha or 50 in Rajya Sabha. This prevents frivolous political attacks on the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect: The President acts on the address of Parliament. If both Houses pass the motion with the requisite special majority, the President must issue the removal order. There is no personal discretion involved. Statement 3 is correct: A three-member inquiry committee (comprising a SC judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist) must investigate the charges. If they find no grounds, the motion cannot proceed. This ensures due process and protects the independence of the constitutional body. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct: Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 (which governs the procedure as the CEC is removed in “like manner” to an SC Judge), a motion must be signed by at least 100 MPs in Lok Sabha or 50 in Rajya Sabha. This prevents frivolous political attacks on the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect: The President acts on the address of Parliament. If both Houses pass the motion with the requisite special majority, the President must issue the removal order. There is no personal discretion involved. Statement 3 is correct: A three-member inquiry committee (comprising a SC judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist) must investigate the charges. If they find no grounds, the motion cannot proceed. This ensures due process and protects the independence of the constitutional body.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Removal of the Chief Election Commissioner:

• The motion for removal must be supported by a minimum of 100 members in Lok Sabha or 50 members in Rajya Sabha to be admitted.

• The President has the discretionary power to reject the advice of Parliament regarding the removal of the CEC.

• An independent inquiry committee must establish “proved misbehaviour or incapacity” before the motion is voted upon.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct: Under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 (which governs the procedure as the CEC is removed in “like manner” to an SC Judge), a motion must be signed by at least 100 MPs in Lok Sabha or 50 in Rajya Sabha. This prevents frivolous political attacks on the ECI.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The President acts on the address of Parliament. If both Houses pass the motion with the requisite special majority, the President must issue the removal order. There is no personal discretion involved.

• Statement 3 is correct: A three-member inquiry committee (comprising a SC judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist) must investigate the charges. If they find no grounds, the motion cannot proceed. This ensures due process and protects the independence of the constitutional body.

Solution: D

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