UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025, consider the following statements: It mandates that only government-owned entities can build and operate nuclear power plants to ensure national security. The Act introduces a tiered liability cap for operators, based on reactor capacity. It eliminates the operator’s right of recourse against suppliers for defective equipment, except where specifically provided in the contract. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The SHANTI Act, 2025, marks a paradigm shift in India’s nuclear policy by replacing the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act specifically enables private sector participation and joint ventures. Indian private companies are now permitted to build, own, and operate nuclear plants under strict regulation, though foreign-incorporated companies remain excluded. Statement 2 is correct; the Act moves away from the previous flat liability cap of ₹1,500 crore under the 2010 Act, introducing a tiered system (₹100cr to ₹3,000cr) tailored to reactor size. Statement 3 is correct regarding the Right of Recourse. To align with global norms and encourage supplier participation, the statutory right to sue suppliers for defects has been removed. Recourse is now limited to contractual agreements or cases involving deliberate acts intended to cause damage. This framework aims to accelerate India’s clean energy transition by balancing safety with ease of doing business. Incorrect Solution: B The SHANTI Act, 2025, marks a paradigm shift in India’s nuclear policy by replacing the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act specifically enables private sector participation and joint ventures. Indian private companies are now permitted to build, own, and operate nuclear plants under strict regulation, though foreign-incorporated companies remain excluded. Statement 2 is correct; the Act moves away from the previous flat liability cap of ₹1,500 crore under the 2010 Act, introducing a tiered system (₹100cr to ₹3,000cr) tailored to reactor size. Statement 3 is correct regarding the Right of Recourse. To align with global norms and encourage supplier participation, the statutory right to sue suppliers for defects has been removed. Recourse is now limited to contractual agreements or cases involving deliberate acts intended to cause damage. This framework aims to accelerate India’s clean energy transition by balancing safety with ease of doing business.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

• It mandates that only government-owned entities can build and operate nuclear power plants to ensure national security.

• The Act introduces a tiered liability cap for operators, based on reactor capacity.

• It eliminates the operator’s right of recourse against suppliers for defective equipment, except where specifically provided in the contract.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The SHANTI Act, 2025, marks a paradigm shift in India’s nuclear policy by replacing the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act specifically enables private sector participation and joint ventures. Indian private companies are now permitted to build, own, and operate nuclear plants under strict regulation, though foreign-incorporated companies remain excluded.

• Statement 2 is correct; the Act moves away from the previous flat liability cap of ₹1,500 crore under the 2010 Act, introducing a tiered system (₹100cr to ₹3,000cr) tailored to reactor size.

• Statement 3 is correct regarding the Right of Recourse. To align with global norms and encourage supplier participation, the statutory right to sue suppliers for defects has been removed. Recourse is now limited to contractual agreements or cases involving deliberate acts intended to cause damage. This framework aims to accelerate India’s clean energy transition by balancing safety with ease of doing business.

Solution: B

• The SHANTI Act, 2025, marks a paradigm shift in India’s nuclear policy by replacing the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025: The Act increases the statutory guarantee of unskilled manual work to 150 days per financial year. It allows State governments to notify a pause in work for up to 60 days during peak agricultural seasons. The funding pattern for North-Eastern and Himalayan states is maintained at a 90:10 ratio between the Centre and States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, replaces MGNREGA with a more integrated approach to rural development. Statement 1 is incorrect because the statutory guarantee has been raised to 125 days, not 150. Statement 2 is correct; in a move to support the agricultural sector and prevent labor shortages during critical periods, States can implement an aggregated pause of 60 days during sowing and harvesting. Crucially, this pause does not reduce the overall 125-day entitlement. Statement 3 is correct as the Act follows a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with specific funding tiers: 90:10 for North-Eastern/Himalayan states, 60:40 for other states, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures. The Act focuses on durable asset creation across four domains: water security, rural infrastructure, livelihood infrastructure, and climate resilience, mapped via a national rural infrastructure stack to ensure transparency and prevent duplication of works. Incorrect Solution: B The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, replaces MGNREGA with a more integrated approach to rural development. Statement 1 is incorrect because the statutory guarantee has been raised to 125 days, not 150. Statement 2 is correct; in a move to support the agricultural sector and prevent labor shortages during critical periods, States can implement an aggregated pause of 60 days during sowing and harvesting. Crucially, this pause does not reduce the overall 125-day entitlement. Statement 3 is correct as the Act follows a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with specific funding tiers: 90:10 for North-Eastern/Himalayan states, 60:40 for other states, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures. The Act focuses on durable asset creation across four domains: water security, rural infrastructure, livelihood infrastructure, and climate resilience, mapped via a national rural infrastructure stack to ensure transparency and prevent duplication of works.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025:

• The Act increases the statutory guarantee of unskilled manual work to 150 days per financial year.

• It allows State governments to notify a pause in work for up to 60 days during peak agricultural seasons.

• The funding pattern for North-Eastern and Himalayan states is maintained at a 90:10 ratio between the Centre and States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, replaces MGNREGA with a more integrated approach to rural development.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the statutory guarantee has been raised to 125 days, not 150.

• Statement 2 is correct; in a move to support the agricultural sector and prevent labor shortages during critical periods, States can implement an aggregated pause of 60 days during sowing and harvesting. Crucially, this pause does not reduce the overall 125-day entitlement.

• Statement 3 is correct as the Act follows a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) model with specific funding tiers: 90:10 for North-Eastern/Himalayan states, 60:40 for other states, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.

• The Act focuses on durable asset creation across four domains: water security, rural infrastructure, livelihood infrastructure, and climate resilience, mapped via a national rural infrastructure stack to ensure transparency and prevent duplication of works.

Solution: B

• The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, replaces MGNREGA with a more integrated approach to rural development.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the statutory guarantee has been raised to 125 days, not 150.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points The “Rapid Financing Instrument” (RFI), recently seen in the news in the context of Sri Lanka, is a mechanism associated with which of the following? a) World Bank b) New Development Bank c) International Monetary Fund d) Asian Development Bank Correct Solution: C The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is an emergency lending facility provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It is designed to provide urgent financial assistance to member countries facing a sudden Balance of Payments (BoP) Unlike standard IMF programs, the RFI is characterized by its speed and lack of ex-post conditionality, meaning countries are not required to implement a full-scale economic reform program to access the funds. It is particularly useful during crises such as natural disasters (like Cyclone Ditwah in Sri Lanka’s case), external shocks, or domestic instability. The RFI has two windows: a Regular window (access up to 50% of quota) and a Large Natural Disaster window (access up to 80% of quota if damage exceeds 20% of GDP). The assistance is usually a single, rapid disbursement with a repayment period of 3¼ to 5 years, aimed at maintaining macroeconomic stability during short-term shocks. Incorrect Solution: C The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is an emergency lending facility provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It is designed to provide urgent financial assistance to member countries facing a sudden Balance of Payments (BoP) Unlike standard IMF programs, the RFI is characterized by its speed and lack of ex-post conditionality, meaning countries are not required to implement a full-scale economic reform program to access the funds. It is particularly useful during crises such as natural disasters (like Cyclone Ditwah in Sri Lanka’s case), external shocks, or domestic instability. The RFI has two windows: a Regular window (access up to 50% of quota) and a Large Natural Disaster window (access up to 80% of quota if damage exceeds 20% of GDP). The assistance is usually a single, rapid disbursement with a repayment period of 3¼ to 5 years, aimed at maintaining macroeconomic stability during short-term shocks.

#### 3. Question

The “Rapid Financing Instrument” (RFI), recently seen in the news in the context of Sri Lanka, is a mechanism associated with which of the following?

• a) World Bank

• b) New Development Bank

• c) International Monetary Fund

• d) Asian Development Bank

Solution: C

• The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is an emergency lending facility provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It is designed to provide urgent financial assistance to member countries facing a sudden Balance of Payments (BoP)

• Unlike standard IMF programs, the RFI is characterized by its speed and lack of ex-post conditionality, meaning countries are not required to implement a full-scale economic reform program to access the funds. It is particularly useful during crises such as natural disasters (like Cyclone Ditwah in Sri Lanka’s case), external shocks, or domestic instability.

• The RFI has two windows: a Regular window (access up to 50% of quota) and a Large Natural Disaster window (access up to 80% of quota if damage exceeds 20% of GDP). The assistance is usually a single, rapid disbursement with a repayment period of 3¼ to 5 years, aimed at maintaining macroeconomic stability during short-term shocks.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Regarding the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, consider the following statements: It is being developed by the Ministry of Culture to showcase the maritime history of the Indus Valley Civilization. The project involves international collaboration with the National Maritime Museum, Amsterdam. Lothal is recognized as the site of the world’s earliest known man-made dockyard. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the NMHC is a flagship project of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), not the Ministry of Culture. Statement 2 is correct; India has signed an MoU with the Netherlands for cooperation on design, curation, and conservation, specifically involving the National Maritime Museum in Amsterdam. Statement 3 is correct; Lothal, excavated in 1957, is world-renowned for its man-made dockyard dating back to approximately 2400 BCE. This dockyard is a marvel of ancient engineering, showing evidence of tidal regulation to allow ships to enter the port. The NMHC aims to integrate this ancient legacy with modern technology, creating a world-class museum and research center. It serves to highlight India’s continuous maritime tradition, which facilitated trade and cultural exchange with regions as far as Mesopotamia and Egypt. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect because the NMHC is a flagship project of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), not the Ministry of Culture. Statement 2 is correct; India has signed an MoU with the Netherlands for cooperation on design, curation, and conservation, specifically involving the National Maritime Museum in Amsterdam. Statement 3 is correct; Lothal, excavated in 1957, is world-renowned for its man-made dockyard dating back to approximately 2400 BCE. This dockyard is a marvel of ancient engineering, showing evidence of tidal regulation to allow ships to enter the port. The NMHC aims to integrate this ancient legacy with modern technology, creating a world-class museum and research center. It serves to highlight India’s continuous maritime tradition, which facilitated trade and cultural exchange with regions as far as Mesopotamia and Egypt.

#### 4. Question

Regarding the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, consider the following statements:

• It is being developed by the Ministry of Culture to showcase the maritime history of the Indus Valley Civilization.

• The project involves international collaboration with the National Maritime Museum, Amsterdam.

• Lothal is recognized as the site of the world’s earliest known man-made dockyard.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the NMHC is a flagship project of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), not the Ministry of Culture.

• Statement 2 is correct; India has signed an MoU with the Netherlands for cooperation on design, curation, and conservation, specifically involving the National Maritime Museum in Amsterdam.

• Statement 3 is correct; Lothal, excavated in 1957, is world-renowned for its man-made dockyard dating back to approximately 2400 BCE. This dockyard is a marvel of ancient engineering, showing evidence of tidal regulation to allow ships to enter the port.

• The NMHC aims to integrate this ancient legacy with modern technology, creating a world-class museum and research center. It serves to highlight India’s continuous maritime tradition, which facilitated trade and cultural exchange with regions as far as Mesopotamia and Egypt.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the NMHC is a flagship project of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), not the Ministry of Culture.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements: It is a ground-nesting bird that typically lays a single egg during the monsoon season. It is currently categorized as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. The species is highly vulnerable to collisions with overhead power lines due to its poor frontal vision and heavy weight. Its primary habitat is limited to the dense evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: C The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a flagship species of India’s grasslands, not evergreen forests, making Statement 4 incorrect. It prefers open, flat scrub landscapes, primarily in Rajasthan and Gujarat. Statement 2 is incorrect because its status is Critically Endangered, with a global population estimated at fewer than 200 individuals. Statement 1 is correct; as a ground-nester, it is extremely vulnerable to predators like free-ranging dogs, and it typically lays only one egg per year, leading to a very slow recruitment rate. Statement 3 is correct; the GIB is one of the heaviest flying birds, and because it lacks good frontal vision, it often cannot see overhead power lines in time to maneuver, making these lines the leading cause of mortality. Recent Supreme Court interventions have focused on the Green Energy Corridor to ensure power lines are undergrounded or fitted with bird diverters in GIB habitats. Incorrect Solution: C The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a flagship species of India’s grasslands, not evergreen forests, making Statement 4 incorrect. It prefers open, flat scrub landscapes, primarily in Rajasthan and Gujarat. Statement 2 is incorrect because its status is Critically Endangered, with a global population estimated at fewer than 200 individuals. Statement 1 is correct; as a ground-nester, it is extremely vulnerable to predators like free-ranging dogs, and it typically lays only one egg per year, leading to a very slow recruitment rate. Statement 3 is correct; the GIB is one of the heaviest flying birds, and because it lacks good frontal vision, it often cannot see overhead power lines in time to maneuver, making these lines the leading cause of mortality. Recent Supreme Court interventions have focused on the Green Energy Corridor to ensure power lines are undergrounded or fitted with bird diverters in GIB habitats.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

• It is a ground-nesting bird that typically lays a single egg during the monsoon season.

• It is currently categorized as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

• The species is highly vulnerable to collisions with overhead power lines due to its poor frontal vision and heavy weight.

• Its primary habitat is limited to the dense evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 4 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: C

• The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a flagship species of India’s grasslands, not evergreen forests, making Statement 4 incorrect. It prefers open, flat scrub landscapes, primarily in Rajasthan and Gujarat.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because its status is Critically Endangered, with a global population estimated at fewer than 200 individuals.

• Statement 1 is correct; as a ground-nester, it is extremely vulnerable to predators like free-ranging dogs, and it typically lays only one egg per year, leading to a very slow recruitment rate.

• Statement 3 is correct; the GIB is one of the heaviest flying birds, and because it lacks good frontal vision, it often cannot see overhead power lines in time to maneuver, making these lines the leading cause of mortality.

• Recent Supreme Court interventions have focused on the Green Energy Corridor to ensure power lines are undergrounded or fitted with bird diverters in GIB habitats.

Solution: C

• Statement 2 is incorrect because its status is Critically Endangered, with a global population estimated at fewer than 200 individuals.

• Recent Supreme Court interventions have focused on the Green Energy Corridor to ensure power lines are undergrounded or fitted with bird diverters in GIB habitats.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points In the context of the IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC), what does the “Species Conservation Cycle” represent? a) A framework of Assessment, Planning, and Action to prevent extinctions. b) The migration patterns of threatened species across international borders. c) The legal process of upgrading a species from Schedule II to Schedule I of the WPA. d) The commercial life cycle of species used in sustainable trade. Correct Solution: A The Species Conservation Cycle is the operational philosophy of the IUCN SSC. It consists of three pillars: Assessment (using the Red List to determine extinction risk), Planning (developing strategic recovery plans and policy guidelines), and Action (implementing on-ground conservation, such as habitat restoration or species reintroduction). This cycle is supported by constant monitoring and communication. The significance of this cycle is that it ensures conservation is not just reactive but proactive and science-based. It guides international conventions like CITES (for trade) and CBD (for biodiversity), acting as the global gold standard. By following this cycle, the SSC aims to halt biodiversity loss and ensure that any use of wild species is both equitable and sustainable for local communities and the environment. Incorrect Solution: A The Species Conservation Cycle is the operational philosophy of the IUCN SSC. It consists of three pillars: Assessment (using the Red List to determine extinction risk), Planning (developing strategic recovery plans and policy guidelines), and Action (implementing on-ground conservation, such as habitat restoration or species reintroduction). This cycle is supported by constant monitoring and communication. The significance of this cycle is that it ensures conservation is not just reactive but proactive and science-based. It guides international conventions like CITES (for trade) and CBD (for biodiversity), acting as the global gold standard. By following this cycle, the SSC aims to halt biodiversity loss and ensure that any use of wild species is both equitable and sustainable for local communities and the environment.

#### 6. Question

In the context of the IUCN Species Survival Commission (SSC), what does the “Species Conservation Cycle” represent?

• a) A framework of Assessment, Planning, and Action to prevent extinctions.

• b) The migration patterns of threatened species across international borders.

• c) The legal process of upgrading a species from Schedule II to Schedule I of the WPA.

• d) The commercial life cycle of species used in sustainable trade.

Solution: A

• The Species Conservation Cycle is the operational philosophy of the IUCN SSC. It consists of three pillars: Assessment (using the Red List to determine extinction risk), Planning (developing strategic recovery plans and policy guidelines), and Action (implementing on-ground conservation, such as habitat restoration or species reintroduction). This cycle is supported by constant monitoring and communication.

• The significance of this cycle is that it ensures conservation is not just reactive but proactive and science-based. It guides international conventions like CITES (for trade) and CBD (for biodiversity), acting as the global gold standard. By following this cycle, the SSC aims to halt biodiversity loss and ensure that any use of wild species is both equitable and sustainable for local communities and the environment.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points The Bhima River flows through which of the following states? Maharashtra Karnataka Telangana Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: A The Bhima River is a trans-boundary river in South India. It originates in Maharashtra (Bhimashankar) and flows southeast. It enters Karnataka and eventually flows along the border of Karnataka and Telangana. It joins the Krishna River at the confluence near Raichur, situated at the Karnataka-Telangana border. It does not flow through Andhra Pradesh, as the Krishna river carries the combined waters into Andhra Pradesh further downstream. A unique geographical feature is that at the point of confluence, the Bhima is actually longer (861 km) than the Krishna river itself. The river is culturally significant, especially in Maharashtra, where it is known as the Chandrabhaga and flows past the holy town of Pandharpur. Inter-state water sharing of the Bhima remains a point of discussion between Maharashtra and Karnataka. Incorrect Solution: A The Bhima River is a trans-boundary river in South India. It originates in Maharashtra (Bhimashankar) and flows southeast. It enters Karnataka and eventually flows along the border of Karnataka and Telangana. It joins the Krishna River at the confluence near Raichur, situated at the Karnataka-Telangana border. It does not flow through Andhra Pradesh, as the Krishna river carries the combined waters into Andhra Pradesh further downstream. A unique geographical feature is that at the point of confluence, the Bhima is actually longer (861 km) than the Krishna river itself. The river is culturally significant, especially in Maharashtra, where it is known as the Chandrabhaga and flows past the holy town of Pandharpur. Inter-state water sharing of the Bhima remains a point of discussion between Maharashtra and Karnataka.

#### 7. Question

The Bhima River flows through which of the following states?

• Maharashtra

• Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: A

• The Bhima River is a trans-boundary river in South India. It originates in Maharashtra (Bhimashankar) and flows southeast.

• It enters Karnataka and eventually flows along the border of Karnataka and Telangana. It joins the Krishna River at the confluence near Raichur, situated at the Karnataka-Telangana border.

• It does not flow through Andhra Pradesh, as the Krishna river carries the combined waters into Andhra Pradesh further downstream.

• A unique geographical feature is that at the point of confluence, the Bhima is actually longer (861 km) than the Krishna river itself. The river is culturally significant, especially in Maharashtra, where it is known as the Chandrabhaga and flows past the holy town of Pandharpur.

• Inter-state water sharing of the Bhima remains a point of discussion between Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Solution: A

• The Bhima River is a trans-boundary river in South India. It originates in Maharashtra (Bhimashankar) and flows southeast.

• It does not flow through Andhra Pradesh, as the Krishna river carries the combined waters into Andhra Pradesh further downstream.

• Inter-state water sharing of the Bhima remains a point of discussion between Maharashtra and Karnataka.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Regarding the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council established under the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following statements: It is chaired by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission. It includes experts from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and the Central Electricity Authority. It has the power to hear appeals against the decisions of the Central Government regarding nuclear licensing. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D The SHANTI Act, 2025, introduces the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council as a specialized appellate body. Statement 1 is correct; the council is headed by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring high-level technical oversight. Statement 2 is correct; its composition includes the heads of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the AERB, and the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), bringing together safety, research, and grid management expertise. Statement 3 is correct; the council acts as the first point of appeal for entities aggrieved by the decisions of the Central Government or the AERB regarding licensing, safety authorizations, or liability claims. This provides a structured, expert-led grievance redressal mechanism within the nuclear sector before a case moves to the general legal tribunal (APTEL). Incorrect Solution: D The SHANTI Act, 2025, introduces the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council as a specialized appellate body. Statement 1 is correct; the council is headed by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring high-level technical oversight. Statement 2 is correct; its composition includes the heads of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the AERB, and the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), bringing together safety, research, and grid management expertise. Statement 3 is correct; the council acts as the first point of appeal for entities aggrieved by the decisions of the Central Government or the AERB regarding licensing, safety authorizations, or liability claims. This provides a structured, expert-led grievance redressal mechanism within the nuclear sector before a case moves to the general legal tribunal (APTEL).

#### 8. Question

Regarding the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council established under the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

• It is chaired by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission.

• It includes experts from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) and the Central Electricity Authority.

• It has the power to hear appeals against the decisions of the Central Government regarding nuclear licensing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

• The SHANTI Act, 2025, introduces the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council as a specialized appellate body.

• Statement 1 is correct; the council is headed by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring high-level technical oversight.

• Statement 2 is correct; its composition includes the heads of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the AERB, and the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), bringing together safety, research, and grid management expertise.

• Statement 3 is correct; the council acts as the first point of appeal for entities aggrieved by the decisions of the Central Government or the AERB regarding licensing, safety authorizations, or liability claims. This provides a structured, expert-led grievance redressal mechanism within the nuclear sector before a case moves to the general legal tribunal (APTEL).

Solution: D

• The SHANTI Act, 2025, introduces the Atomic Energy Redressal Advisory Council as a specialized appellate body.

• Statement 1 is correct; the council is headed by the Chairperson of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring high-level technical oversight.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Under the Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, “Climate Resilience” works include which of the following? Desilting of traditional water bodies. Construction of extreme weather mitigation shelters. Creation of micro-irrigation infrastructure. Afforestation and wasteland development. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act repositions rural employment as a tool for climate resilience. The four thematic areas for works are strictly defined to ensure high-quality asset creation. Water security (desilting, micro-irrigation) and climate resilience (afforestation, shelters) are core components. By focusing on these, the Act aims to protect rural livelihoods from the increasing frequency of extreme weather events. All these assets are mapped into a national rural infrastructure stack, which prevents the duplication of work and ensures that the assets created (like a check dam or a cyclone shelter) are durable and maintained. This shift from “digging holes” to “building resilience” is central to the Viksit Bharat @2047 vision, ensuring that rural India is not just employed but also prepared for environmental challenges. Incorrect Solution: D The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act repositions rural employment as a tool for climate resilience. The four thematic areas for works are strictly defined to ensure high-quality asset creation. Water security (desilting, micro-irrigation) and climate resilience (afforestation, shelters) are core components. By focusing on these, the Act aims to protect rural livelihoods from the increasing frequency of extreme weather events. All these assets are mapped into a national rural infrastructure stack, which prevents the duplication of work and ensures that the assets created (like a check dam or a cyclone shelter) are durable and maintained. This shift from “digging holes” to “building resilience” is central to the Viksit Bharat @2047 vision, ensuring that rural India is not just employed but also prepared for environmental challenges.

#### 9. Question

Under the Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act, 2025, “Climate Resilience” works include which of the following?

• Desilting of traditional water bodies.

• Construction of extreme weather mitigation shelters.

• Creation of micro-irrigation infrastructure.

• Afforestation and wasteland development.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2, 3 and 4 only

• c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• The Viksit Bharat–GRAM G Act repositions rural employment as a tool for climate resilience. The four thematic areas for works are strictly defined to ensure high-quality asset creation. Water security (desilting, micro-irrigation) and climate resilience (afforestation, shelters) are core components.

• By focusing on these, the Act aims to protect rural livelihoods from the increasing frequency of extreme weather events. All these assets are mapped into a national rural infrastructure stack, which prevents the duplication of work and ensures that the assets created (like a check dam or a cyclone shelter) are durable and maintained.

• This shift from “digging holes” to “building resilience” is central to the Viksit Bharat @2047 vision, ensuring that rural India is not just employed but also prepared for environmental challenges.

Solution: D

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the IMF’s Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI), consider the following statements: Statement I: The RFI is designed for countries that do not require a full-fledged economic adjustment program. Statement II: The interest rate for RFI loans is significantly higher than the IMF’s standard non-concessional facilities to discourage repeated use. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct; the RFI is intended for member countries that face an urgent BoP need but where either the need is temporary or a full-scale program is not feasible (e.g., due to the nature of the shock or political constraints). Statement II is incorrect because the interest rate for the RFI is actually the same as the IMF’s standard non-concessional facilities, such as the Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) or the Flexible Credit Line (FCL). It is not “significantly higher.” The deterrent for repeated use is not the interest rate but the access limits and the expectation that the borrowing country will pursue policies to address its underlying BoP problems. The RFI remains a critical tool for immediate liquidity, as seen in its recent application for Sri Lanka following a natural disaster. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct; the RFI is intended for member countries that face an urgent BoP need but where either the need is temporary or a full-scale program is not feasible (e.g., due to the nature of the shock or political constraints). Statement II is incorrect because the interest rate for the RFI is actually the same as the IMF’s standard non-concessional facilities, such as the Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) or the Flexible Credit Line (FCL). It is not “significantly higher.” The deterrent for repeated use is not the interest rate but the access limits and the expectation that the borrowing country will pursue policies to address its underlying BoP problems. The RFI remains a critical tool for immediate liquidity, as seen in its recent application for Sri Lanka following a natural disaster.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the IMF’s Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI), consider the following statements:

Statement I: The RFI is designed for countries that do not require a full-fledged economic adjustment program.

Statement II: The interest rate for RFI loans is significantly higher than the IMF’s standard non-concessional facilities to discourage repeated use.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct; the RFI is intended for member countries that face an urgent BoP need but where either the need is temporary or a full-scale program is not feasible (e.g., due to the nature of the shock or political constraints).

• Statement II is incorrect because the interest rate for the RFI is actually the same as the IMF’s standard non-concessional facilities, such as the Stand-By Arrangement (SBA) or the Flexible Credit Line (FCL). It is not “significantly higher.”

• The deterrent for repeated use is not the interest rate but the access limits and the expectation that the borrowing country will pursue policies to address its underlying BoP problems. The RFI remains a critical tool for immediate liquidity, as seen in its recent application for Sri Lanka following a natural disaster.

Solution: C

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