UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 23 April 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Shyok River flows entirely within the boundaries of India. It originates from the Pangong Tso Lake. It merges with the Ganga River in the plains of Punjab. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) All three statements about the Shyok River are incorrect. Firstly, the Shyok River does not flow entirely within India; it originates in Ladakh and flows into Pakistan-administered Gilgit-Baltistan, thereby crossing the Line of Control and forming part of the transboundary Indus River system. Secondly, its source is the Rimo Glacier, a part of the Siachen Glacier system in the Karakoram range. This is geographically distinct from Pangong Tso, which lies in a nearby but separate endorheic basin and does not contribute to the Shyok. Lastly, the river does not merge with the Ganga, nor does it flow through the plains of Punjab. Instead, the Shyok joins the Indus River near Skardu in Pakistan. Incorrect Solution: d) All three statements about the Shyok River are incorrect. Firstly, the Shyok River does not flow entirely within India; it originates in Ladakh and flows into Pakistan-administered Gilgit-Baltistan, thereby crossing the Line of Control and forming part of the transboundary Indus River system. Secondly, its source is the Rimo Glacier, a part of the Siachen Glacier system in the Karakoram range. This is geographically distinct from Pangong Tso, which lies in a nearby but separate endorheic basin and does not contribute to the Shyok. Lastly, the river does not merge with the Ganga, nor does it flow through the plains of Punjab. Instead, the Shyok joins the Indus River near Skardu in Pakistan.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Shyok River flows entirely within the boundaries of India.

• It originates from the Pangong Tso Lake.

• It merges with the Ganga River in the plains of Punjab.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• All three statements about the Shyok River are incorrect.

• Firstly, the Shyok River does not flow entirely within India; it originates in Ladakh and flows into Pakistan-administered Gilgit-Baltistan, thereby crossing the Line of Control and forming part of the transboundary Indus River system.

• Secondly, its source is the Rimo Glacier, a part of the Siachen Glacier system in the Karakoram range. This is geographically distinct from Pangong Tso, which lies in a nearby but separate endorheic basin and does not contribute to the Shyok.

• Lastly, the river does not merge with the Ganga, nor does it flow through the plains of Punjab. Instead, the Shyok joins the Indus River near Skardu in Pakistan.

Solution: d)

• All three statements about the Shyok River are incorrect.

• Lastly, the river does not merge with the Ganga, nor does it flow through the plains of Punjab. Instead, the Shyok joins the Indus River near Skardu in Pakistan.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Finance Commission recommends the borrowing limits for the Central and State governments. It evaluates the functioning of the Reserve Bank of India in terms of monetary policy performance. It makes recommendations for augmenting state finances for rural and urban local bodies. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. The Finance Commission (FC), constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, does not recommend borrowing limits for the Union or State governments. Borrowing by states is regulated under Article 293, and decisions on limits are taken by the Union government, often in consultation with the Ministry of Finance, not the FC. Secondly, the Finance Commission has no mandate to evaluate the Reserve Bank of India or its performance in monetary policy, which falls exclusively under the RBI’s autonomous jurisdiction. However, Statement 3 is correct. Since the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, the FC is tasked with making recommendations to augment the Consolidated Fund of the States to support Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). This is a critical step in fiscal decentralization and strengthening third-tier governance. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 3 is correct. The Finance Commission (FC), constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, does not recommend borrowing limits for the Union or State governments. Borrowing by states is regulated under Article 293, and decisions on limits are taken by the Union government, often in consultation with the Ministry of Finance, not the FC. Secondly, the Finance Commission has no mandate to evaluate the Reserve Bank of India or its performance in monetary policy, which falls exclusively under the RBI’s autonomous jurisdiction. However, Statement 3 is correct. Since the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, the FC is tasked with making recommendations to augment the Consolidated Fund of the States to support Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). This is a critical step in fiscal decentralization and strengthening third-tier governance.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Finance Commission recommends the borrowing limits for the Central and State governments.

• It evaluates the functioning of the Reserve Bank of India in terms of monetary policy performance.

• It makes recommendations for augmenting state finances for rural and urban local bodies.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

• The Finance Commission (FC), constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, does not recommend borrowing limits for the Union or State governments. Borrowing by states is regulated under Article 293, and decisions on limits are taken by the Union government, often in consultation with the Ministry of Finance, not the FC.

• Secondly, the Finance Commission has no mandate to evaluate the Reserve Bank of India or its performance in monetary policy, which falls exclusively under the RBI’s autonomous jurisdiction.

• However, Statement 3 is correct. Since the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, the FC is tasked with making recommendations to augment the Consolidated Fund of the States to support Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). This is a critical step in fiscal decentralization and strengthening third-tier governance.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 3 is correct.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Process and its associated institutions. The International Organisation for Migration (IOM) serves as the Secretariat for the Colombo Process. The Process includes both labour-sending and labour-receiving countries from Asia. It promotes bilateral labour agreements and best practices through thematic working groups. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Colombo Process, established in 2003, is a regional consultative process (RCP) that focuses on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia. Statement 1 is correct—the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) serves as the technical and administrative secretariat through its Colombo Process Technical Support Unit (CPTSU). It supports member states in implementing initiatives and thematic discussions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Colombo Process comprises only labour-sending (origin) countries, such as India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, and others. While labour-receiving countries (e.g., GCC states, Malaysia) may engage in dialogue forums like the Abu Dhabi Dialogue, they are not formal members of the Colombo Process. Statement 3 is correct. The Process encourages bilateral agreements and policy harmonisation through thematic working groups on ethical recruitment, skills development, remittances, and more. Incorrect Solution: b) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Colombo Process, established in 2003, is a regional consultative process (RCP) that focuses on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia. Statement 1 is correct—the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) serves as the technical and administrative secretariat through its Colombo Process Technical Support Unit (CPTSU). It supports member states in implementing initiatives and thematic discussions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Colombo Process comprises only labour-sending (origin) countries, such as India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, and others. While labour-receiving countries (e.g., GCC states, Malaysia) may engage in dialogue forums like the Abu Dhabi Dialogue, they are not formal members of the Colombo Process. Statement 3 is correct. The Process encourages bilateral agreements and policy harmonisation through thematic working groups on ethical recruitment, skills development, remittances, and more.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Process and its associated institutions.

• The International Organisation for Migration (IOM) serves as the Secretariat for the Colombo Process.

• The Process includes both labour-sending and labour-receiving countries from Asia.

• It promotes bilateral labour agreements and best practices through thematic working groups.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• The Colombo Process, established in 2003, is a regional consultative process (RCP) that focuses on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia.

• Statement 1 is correct—the International Organisation for Migration (IOM) serves as the technical and administrative secretariat through its Colombo Process Technical Support Unit (CPTSU). It supports member states in implementing initiatives and thematic discussions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Colombo Process comprises only labour-sending (origin) countries, such as India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, and others. While labour-receiving countries (e.g., GCC states, Malaysia) may engage in dialogue forums like the Abu Dhabi Dialogue, they are not formal members of the Colombo Process.

Statement 3 is correct. The Process encourages bilateral agreements and policy harmonisation through thematic working groups on ethical recruitment, skills development, remittances, and more.

Solution: b)

Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs): They are notified under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. They serve as transition zones between areas of higher and lower ecological protection. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the central government to declare such zones. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are notified around Protected Areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to act as buffer or transition zones, minimizing external pressures on core ecosystems. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs. Statement 2 is correct. ESZs function as “shock absorbers”, providing a graded buffer between ecologically critical areas and zones of lesser protection. They are essential for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring sustainable development in adjoining landscapes. Statement 3 is also correct. Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the central government is empowered to declare ESZs, laying down measures to protect the environment. These include restrictions on industrial operations, waste disposal, mining, and construction. Incorrect Solution: b) Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are notified around Protected Areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to act as buffer or transition zones, minimizing external pressures on core ecosystems. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs. Statement 2 is correct. ESZs function as “shock absorbers”, providing a graded buffer between ecologically critical areas and zones of lesser protection. They are essential for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring sustainable development in adjoining landscapes. Statement 3 is also correct. Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the central government is empowered to declare ESZs, laying down measures to protect the environment. These include restrictions on industrial operations, waste disposal, mining, and construction.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs):

• They are notified under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

• They serve as transition zones between areas of higher and lower ecological protection.

• The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 empowers the central government to declare such zones.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are notified around Protected Areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries to act as buffer or transition zones, minimizing external pressures on core ecosystems.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs.

• Statement 2 is correct. ESZs function as “shock absorbers”, providing a graded buffer between ecologically critical areas and zones of lesser protection. They are essential for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring sustainable development in adjoining landscapes.

• Statement 3 is also correct. Under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, the central government is empowered to declare ESZs, laying down measures to protect the environment. These include restrictions on industrial operations, waste disposal, mining, and construction.

Solution: b)

Only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 deals specifically with the regulation of forest land diversion for non-forest purposes and does not cover ESZs.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains the core reason LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) is superior to passive remote sensing in dense forest regions? a) It can penetrate soil layers to detect sub-surface structures. b) It uses GPS triangulation to map underground aquifers. c) It emits its own energy and captures terrain data even through vegetation gaps. d) It measures magnetic field anomalies for geophysical mapping. Correct Solution: c) LiDAR is an active remote sensing technology — it emits its own laser pulses rather than relying on sunlight like passive systems (e.g., optical satellites). This self-generated light penetrates vegetation gaps and reflects off surfaces such as the ground, tree canopy, or man-made structures. The return time of pulses is measured to generate a 3D point cloud, later refined into Digital Elevation Models (DEMs). This makes LiDAR uniquely suitable for mapping forest-covered archaeological sites, unlike passive sensors limited by cloud cover or vegetation density. Incorrect Solution: c) LiDAR is an active remote sensing technology — it emits its own laser pulses rather than relying on sunlight like passive systems (e.g., optical satellites). This self-generated light penetrates vegetation gaps and reflects off surfaces such as the ground, tree canopy, or man-made structures. The return time of pulses is measured to generate a 3D point cloud, later refined into Digital Elevation Models (DEMs). This makes LiDAR uniquely suitable for mapping forest-covered archaeological sites, unlike passive sensors limited by cloud cover or vegetation density.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following best explains the core reason LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) is superior to passive remote sensing in dense forest regions?

• a) It can penetrate soil layers to detect sub-surface structures.

• b) It uses GPS triangulation to map underground aquifers.

• c) It emits its own energy and captures terrain data even through vegetation gaps.

• d) It measures magnetic field anomalies for geophysical mapping.

Solution: c)

• LiDAR is an active remote sensing technology — it emits its own laser pulses rather than relying on sunlight like passive systems (e.g., optical satellites). This self-generated light penetrates vegetation gaps and reflects off surfaces such as the ground, tree canopy, or man-made structures. The return time of pulses is measured to generate a 3D point cloud, later refined into Digital Elevation Models (DEMs).

• This makes LiDAR uniquely suitable for mapping forest-covered archaeological sites, unlike passive sensors limited by cloud cover or vegetation density.

Solution: c)

• This makes LiDAR uniquely suitable for mapping forest-covered archaeological sites, unlike passive sensors limited by cloud cover or vegetation density.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best explains why neutrinos are difficult to detect despite their abundance in the universe? a) They travel faster than light and escape detectors b) They carry a strong negative charge, neutralizing detector signals c) They interact extremely weakly with matter due to being chargeless d) They constantly decay into photons before reaching Earth Correct Solution: c) Neutrinos are neutral elementary particles with extremely low mass and no electric charge. They interact only via the weak nuclear force, making their interaction cross-section with matter extraordinarily small. Trillions of them pass through the human body every second without any interaction. This elusive behavior is why massive, sensitive detectors like the Super-Kamiokande in Japan or the planned India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) are required to spot rare neutrino events. Options a), b), and d) are factually incorrect—neutrinos do not violate relativity, are neutral, and are stable over long distances. Incorrect Solution: c) Neutrinos are neutral elementary particles with extremely low mass and no electric charge. They interact only via the weak nuclear force, making their interaction cross-section with matter extraordinarily small. Trillions of them pass through the human body every second without any interaction. This elusive behavior is why massive, sensitive detectors like the Super-Kamiokande in Japan or the planned India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) are required to spot rare neutrino events. Options a), b), and d) are factually incorrect—neutrinos do not violate relativity, are neutral, and are stable over long distances.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best explains why neutrinos are difficult to detect despite their abundance in the universe?

• a) They travel faster than light and escape detectors

• b) They carry a strong negative charge, neutralizing detector signals

• c) They interact extremely weakly with matter due to being chargeless

• d) They constantly decay into photons before reaching Earth

Solution: c)

• Neutrinos are neutral elementary particles with extremely low mass and no electric charge. They interact only via the weak nuclear force, making their interaction cross-section with matter extraordinarily small.

• Trillions of them pass through the human body every second without any interaction. This elusive behavior is why massive, sensitive detectors like the Super-Kamiokande in Japan or the planned India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) are required to spot rare neutrino events.

• Options a), b), and d) are factually incorrect—neutrinos do not violate relativity, are neutral, and are stable over long distances.

Solution: c)

• Options a), b), and d) are factually incorrect—neutrinos do not violate relativity, are neutral, and are stable over long distances.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Why do nanobubbles offer a significant advantage in water purification compared to conventional air bubbles? a) Their neutral buoyancy allows prolonged interaction with contaminants. b) They can be visualized easily under standard light microscopy. c) They are positively charged and attract heavy metals in water. d) They rise quickly to the surface, expelling pollutants. Correct Solution: a) Nanobubbles, typically less than 200 nm in diameter, are neutrally buoyant, which means they do not rise rapidly to the surface like conventional bubbles. This unique property enables them to remain suspended for weeks or even months, allowing for extended interaction with organic matter, microbes, and dissolved gases. Their high surface area-to-volume ratio, along with their negative surface charge, improves gas dissolution efficiency and allows for effective degradation of contaminants. Their role is enhanced in algae control, oil separation, and biofilm removal, making them critical in sustainable and chemical-free water treatment systems. Incorrect Solution: a) Nanobubbles, typically less than 200 nm in diameter, are neutrally buoyant, which means they do not rise rapidly to the surface like conventional bubbles. This unique property enables them to remain suspended for weeks or even months, allowing for extended interaction with organic matter, microbes, and dissolved gases. Their high surface area-to-volume ratio, along with their negative surface charge, improves gas dissolution efficiency and allows for effective degradation of contaminants. Their role is enhanced in algae control, oil separation, and biofilm removal, making them critical in sustainable and chemical-free water treatment systems.

#### 7. Question

Why do nanobubbles offer a significant advantage in water purification compared to conventional air bubbles?

• a) Their neutral buoyancy allows prolonged interaction with contaminants.

• b) They can be visualized easily under standard light microscopy.

• c) They are positively charged and attract heavy metals in water.

• d) They rise quickly to the surface, expelling pollutants.

Solution: a)

• Nanobubbles, typically less than 200 nm in diameter, are neutrally buoyant, which means they do not rise rapidly to the surface like conventional bubbles.

• This unique property enables them to remain suspended for weeks or even months, allowing for extended interaction with organic matter, microbes, and dissolved gases. Their high surface area-to-volume ratio, along with their negative surface charge, improves gas dissolution efficiency and allows for effective degradation of contaminants.

• Their role is enhanced in algae control, oil separation, and biofilm removal, making them critical in sustainable and chemical-free water treatment systems.

Solution: a)

• Nanobubbles, typically less than 200 nm in diameter, are neutrally buoyant, which means they do not rise rapidly to the surface like conventional bubbles.

• Their role is enhanced in algae control, oil separation, and biofilm removal, making them critical in sustainable and chemical-free water treatment systems.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points India’s participation in the Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN) is most strategically aligned with which of the following goals? a) Establishing lithium refining facilities within India b) Securing climate-resilient agriculture through mineral-based fertilizers c) Promoting rare earth exports to East Asian markets d) Ensuring critical mineral supply chains for green and digital transitions Correct Solution: d) India’s participation in the MSFN is aimed at securing reliable access to critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements, essential for electric vehicles, semiconductors, batteries, and clean energy technologies. These minerals are foundational to India’s goals of becoming a global hub for electronics manufacturing and green mobility. Incorrect Solution: d) India’s participation in the MSFN is aimed at securing reliable access to critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements, essential for electric vehicles, semiconductors, batteries, and clean energy technologies. These minerals are foundational to India’s goals of becoming a global hub for electronics manufacturing and green mobility.

#### 8. Question

India’s participation in the Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN) is most strategically aligned with which of the following goals?

• a) Establishing lithium refining facilities within India

• b) Securing climate-resilient agriculture through mineral-based fertilizers

• c) Promoting rare earth exports to East Asian markets

• d) Ensuring critical mineral supply chains for green and digital transitions

Solution: d)

• India’s participation in the MSFN is aimed at securing reliable access to critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements, essential for electric vehicles, semiconductors, batteries, and clean energy technologies.

• These minerals are foundational to India’s goals of becoming a global hub for electronics manufacturing and green mobility.

Solution: d)

• These minerals are foundational to India’s goals of becoming a global hub for electronics manufacturing and green mobility.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court (ICC): The ICC can try individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes. It has authority to prosecute states that violate human rights treaties. It can prosecute crimes committed by nationals of member states even outside their territory. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The International Criminal Court (ICC), established by the Rome Statute (1998), has jurisdiction over four core international crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and, since 2018, the crime of aggression. Importantly, the ICC prosecutes individuals, not states, which makes Statement 2 incorrect. Violations of general human rights treaties, unless they amount to these grave crimes, do not fall under ICC’s jurisdiction. Statement 3 is correct because the ICC can prosecute crimes committed outside the territory of a member state if the accused is a national of a member state, or if the crime occurred on the territory of a state party. It can also act when referred by the UN Security Council, even if the state involved is not a party to the Rome Statute (e.g., Sudan, Libya). Incorrect Solution: b) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The International Criminal Court (ICC), established by the Rome Statute (1998), has jurisdiction over four core international crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and, since 2018, the crime of aggression. Importantly, the ICC prosecutes individuals, not states, which makes Statement 2 incorrect. Violations of general human rights treaties, unless they amount to these grave crimes, do not fall under ICC’s jurisdiction. Statement 3 is correct because the ICC can prosecute crimes committed outside the territory of a member state if the accused is a national of a member state, or if the crime occurred on the territory of a state party. It can also act when referred by the UN Security Council, even if the state involved is not a party to the Rome Statute (e.g., Sudan, Libya).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court (ICC):

• The ICC can try individuals for genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes.

• It has authority to prosecute states that violate human rights treaties.

• It can prosecute crimes committed by nationals of member states even outside their territory.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• The International Criminal Court (ICC), established by the Rome Statute (1998), has jurisdiction over four core international crimes: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and, since 2018, the crime of aggression.

• Importantly, the ICC prosecutes individuals, not states, which makes Statement 2 incorrect. Violations of general human rights treaties, unless they amount to these grave crimes, do not fall under ICC’s jurisdiction.

Statement 3 is correct because the ICC can prosecute crimes committed outside the territory of a member state if the accused is a national of a member state, or if the crime occurred on the territory of a state party. It can also act when referred by the UN Security Council, even if the state involved is not a party to the Rome Statute (e.g., Sudan, Libya).

Solution: b)

Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ASEAN. Statement-I: ASEAN has played a limited role in resolving the Myanmar political crisis. Statement-II: ASEAN’s consensus-based approach and non-interference policy restrict its capacity to enforce political solutions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. ASEAN’s non-interference principle, though essential for cohesion, has paralyzed its response to Myanmar’s coup, where efforts like the Five-Point Consensus have failed to make an impact. ASEAN’s model of quiet diplomacy and consensus limits its ability to exert pressure, especially when member consent is lacking, highlighting the tension between sovereignty and collective responsibility. Incorrect Solution: a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. ASEAN’s non-interference principle, though essential for cohesion, has paralyzed its response to Myanmar’s coup, where efforts like the Five-Point Consensus have failed to make an impact. ASEAN’s model of quiet diplomacy and consensus limits its ability to exert pressure, especially when member consent is lacking, highlighting the tension between sovereignty and collective responsibility.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ASEAN.

Statement-I: ASEAN has played a limited role in resolving the Myanmar political crisis. Statement-II: ASEAN’s consensus-based approach and non-interference policy restrict its capacity to enforce political solutions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. ASEAN’s non-interference principle, though essential for cohesion, has paralyzed its response to Myanmar’s coup, where efforts like the Five-Point Consensus have failed to make an impact. ASEAN’s model of quiet diplomacy and consensus limits its ability to exert pressure, especially when member consent is lacking, highlighting the tension between sovereignty and collective responsibility.

Solution: a)

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