UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 22 October 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points With reference to the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), consider the following statements: GRAP is a statutory framework implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). The measures under GRAP are invoked exclusively based on the real-time measured Air Quality Index (AQI) of Delhi. The actions specified under a higher stage of GRAP automatically supersede and replace the actions from lower stages. GRAP was first introduced following a directive from the National Green Tribunal (NGT). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. GRAP is a statutory framework implemented under the authority of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region. The CAQM is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the revised GRAP is its predictive enforcement. Measures are invoked in advance based on forecasts from the IMD (Indian Meteorological Department) and IITM (Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology) regarding air quality, rather than waiting for the AQI to breach a certain level. Statement 3 is incorrect. The GRAP follows a cumulative approach. When Stage II is invoked, all measures from Stage I remain in effect. Similarly, Stage III includes all measures from Stages I and II, ensuring a progressive tightening of restrictions. Statement 4 is incorrect. GRAP was first introduced in 2017 following directives from the Supreme Court of India, not the NGT, and was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. GRAP is a statutory framework implemented under the authority of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region. The CAQM is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the revised GRAP is its predictive enforcement. Measures are invoked in advance based on forecasts from the IMD (Indian Meteorological Department) and IITM (Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology) regarding air quality, rather than waiting for the AQI to breach a certain level. Statement 3 is incorrect. The GRAP follows a cumulative approach. When Stage II is invoked, all measures from Stage I remain in effect. Similarly, Stage III includes all measures from Stages I and II, ensuring a progressive tightening of restrictions. Statement 4 is incorrect. GRAP was first introduced in 2017 following directives from the Supreme Court of India, not the NGT, and was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), consider the following statements:

• GRAP is a statutory framework implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).

• The measures under GRAP are invoked exclusively based on the real-time measured Air Quality Index (AQI) of Delhi.

• The actions specified under a higher stage of GRAP automatically supersede and replace the actions from lower stages.

• GRAP was first introduced following a directive from the National Green Tribunal (NGT).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. GRAP is a statutory framework implemented under the authority of the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region. The CAQM is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the revised GRAP is its predictive enforcement. Measures are invoked in advance based on forecasts from the IMD (Indian Meteorological Department) and IITM (Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology) regarding air quality, rather than waiting for the AQI to breach a certain level.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The GRAP follows a cumulative approach. When Stage II is invoked, all measures from Stage I remain in effect. Similarly, Stage III includes all measures from Stages I and II, ensuring a progressive tightening of restrictions.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. GRAP was first introduced in 2017 following directives from the Supreme Court of India, not the NGT, and was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which one of the following statements best describes the causative agent of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD), also known as “Zombie Deer Disease”? (a) It is a parasitic infection transmitted by insects that attacks the nervous system. (b) It is a viral infection, similar to rabies, that alters animal behaviour. (c) It is a bacterial toxin that accumulates in the soil and contaminates plants. (d) It is a misfolded protein, or prion, that induces abnormal folding in normal brain proteins. Correct Solution: D The causative agent of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) is a prion. A prion is an abnormal, pathogenic, and misfolded version of a normal protein found in the body. These infectious prions are pathogenic because they propagate by inducing the normal proteins they encounter, particularly in the brain and nervous system, to also misfold. This chain reaction leads to severe neurological damage, resulting in a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder. This damage manifests as symptoms like drastic weight loss (wasting), lethargy, and abnormal “zombie-like” behaviour. CWD belongs to a group of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which also includes Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE or “mad cow disease”) in cattle. Unlike viruses or bacteria, prions are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods like heat, radiation, and disinfectants. Incorrect Solution: D The causative agent of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) is a prion. A prion is an abnormal, pathogenic, and misfolded version of a normal protein found in the body. These infectious prions are pathogenic because they propagate by inducing the normal proteins they encounter, particularly in the brain and nervous system, to also misfold. This chain reaction leads to severe neurological damage, resulting in a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder. This damage manifests as symptoms like drastic weight loss (wasting), lethargy, and abnormal “zombie-like” behaviour. CWD belongs to a group of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which also includes Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE or “mad cow disease”) in cattle. Unlike viruses or bacteria, prions are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods like heat, radiation, and disinfectants.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements best describes the causative agent of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD), also known as “Zombie Deer Disease”?

• (a) It is a parasitic infection transmitted by insects that attacks the nervous system.

• (b) It is a viral infection, similar to rabies, that alters animal behaviour.

• (c) It is a bacterial toxin that accumulates in the soil and contaminates plants.

• (d) It is a misfolded protein, or prion, that induces abnormal folding in normal brain proteins.

Solution: D

• The causative agent of Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD) is a prion. A prion is an abnormal, pathogenic, and misfolded version of a normal protein found in the body. These infectious prions are pathogenic because they propagate by inducing the normal proteins they encounter, particularly in the brain and nervous system, to also misfold.

• This chain reaction leads to severe neurological damage, resulting in a progressive and fatal neurodegenerative disorder. This damage manifests as symptoms like drastic weight loss (wasting), lethargy, and abnormal “zombie-like” behaviour.

• CWD belongs to a group of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which also includes Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE or “mad cow disease”) in cattle. Unlike viruses or bacteria, prions are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods like heat, radiation, and disinfectants.

Solution: D

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Green Crackers’ developed in India: They are certified by the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) for their reduced emissions. The chemical formulation of SWAS (Safe Water Releaser) crackers eliminates both Barium Nitrate and Sulphur. The primary mechanism of SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium) crackers is the use of Zeolite as a dust suppressant. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Green crackers were developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR–NEERI). It is CSIR-NEERI that provides the certification and the QR code system for authenticity. PESO is the nodal agency for regulating the import, handling, and safety of explosives under the Explosives Rules, 2008. Statement 2 is correct. A defining feature of all green crackers is the absence of the highly toxic Barium Nitrate. The SWAS (Safe Water Releaser) variant is specifically designed to release water vapour upon bursting, which suppresses dust. Its formulation is notable for being free of both potassium nitrate and sulfur, further reducing PM, SO₂, and NOₓ emissions. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary mechanism of SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium) is the use of magnesium as a substitute for aluminium, which significantly reduces metallic particulate emissions while maintaining brightness. The variant that uses additives like Zeolite as an absorbent for by-products and dust is STAR (Safe Thermite Cracker). Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. Green crackers were developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR–NEERI). It is CSIR-NEERI that provides the certification and the QR code system for authenticity. PESO is the nodal agency for regulating the import, handling, and safety of explosives under the Explosives Rules, 2008. Statement 2 is correct. A defining feature of all green crackers is the absence of the highly toxic Barium Nitrate. The SWAS (Safe Water Releaser) variant is specifically designed to release water vapour upon bursting, which suppresses dust. Its formulation is notable for being free of both potassium nitrate and sulfur, further reducing PM, SO₂, and NOₓ emissions. Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary mechanism of SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium) is the use of magnesium as a substitute for aluminium, which significantly reduces metallic particulate emissions while maintaining brightness. The variant that uses additives like Zeolite as an absorbent for by-products and dust is STAR (Safe Thermite Cracker).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Green Crackers’ developed in India:

• They are certified by the Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) for their reduced emissions.

• The chemical formulation of SWAS (Safe Water Releaser) crackers eliminates both Barium Nitrate and Sulphur.

• The primary mechanism of SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium) crackers is the use of Zeolite as a dust suppressant.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Green crackers were developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR–NEERI). It is CSIR-NEERI that provides the certification and the QR code system for authenticity. PESO is the nodal agency for regulating the import, handling, and safety of explosives under the Explosives Rules, 2008.

• Statement 2 is correct. A defining feature of all green crackers is the absence of the highly toxic Barium Nitrate. The SWAS (Safe Water Releaser) variant is specifically designed to release water vapour upon bursting, which suppresses dust. Its formulation is notable for being free of both potassium nitrate and sulfur, further reducing PM, SO₂, and NOₓ emissions.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The primary mechanism of SAFAL (Safe Minimal Aluminium) is the use of magnesium as a substitute for aluminium, which significantly reduces metallic particulate emissions while maintaining brightness. The variant that uses additives like Zeolite as an absorbent for by-products and dust is STAR (Safe Thermite Cracker).

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news, is ecologically significant primarily because: (a) It is the largest mangrove ecosystem on the western coast of India. (b) It contains the last remaining tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats. (c) It is a protected habitat for the one-horned rhinoceros outside of Assam. (d) It represents a unique high-altitude cold-desert ecosystem in the trans-Himalayan zone. Correct Solution: D The Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary is a high-altitude protected area located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Its primary ecological significance stems from its unique position within the Western Himalayan range, where it exhibits characteristics of a cold-desert ecosystem. It falls within a dry trans-Himalayan zone, which means, unlike most other sanctuaries in Himachal Pradesh, it does not receive significant monsoon rainfall. This specialized environment, situated in the Baspa Valley, supports a distinct alpine biodiversity, including endangered fauna like the snow leopard and musk deer, as well as rare medicinal herbs and high-altitude bird species like the Yellow-breasted Greenfinch. The other options are geographically incorrect. Incorrect Solution: D The Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary is a high-altitude protected area located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Its primary ecological significance stems from its unique position within the Western Himalayan range, where it exhibits characteristics of a cold-desert ecosystem. It falls within a dry trans-Himalayan zone, which means, unlike most other sanctuaries in Himachal Pradesh, it does not receive significant monsoon rainfall. This specialized environment, situated in the Baspa Valley, supports a distinct alpine biodiversity, including endangered fauna like the snow leopard and musk deer, as well as rare medicinal herbs and high-altitude bird species like the Yellow-breasted Greenfinch. The other options are geographically incorrect.

#### 4. Question

The Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news, is ecologically significant primarily because:

• (a) It is the largest mangrove ecosystem on the western coast of India.

• (b) It contains the last remaining tropical evergreen forests of the Western Ghats.

• (c) It is a protected habitat for the one-horned rhinoceros outside of Assam.

• (d) It represents a unique high-altitude cold-desert ecosystem in the trans-Himalayan zone.

Solution: D

• The Rakchham-Chitkul Wildlife Sanctuary is a high-altitude protected area located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. Its primary ecological significance stems from its unique position within the Western Himalayan range, where it exhibits characteristics of a cold-desert ecosystem.

• It falls within a dry trans-Himalayan zone, which means, unlike most other sanctuaries in Himachal Pradesh, it does not receive significant monsoon rainfall.

• This specialized environment, situated in the Baspa Valley, supports a distinct alpine biodiversity, including endangered fauna like the snow leopard and musk deer, as well as rare medicinal herbs and high-altitude bird species like the Yellow-breasted Greenfinch. The other options are geographically incorrect.

Solution: D

• It falls within a dry trans-Himalayan zone, which means, unlike most other sanctuaries in Himachal Pradesh, it does not receive significant monsoon rainfall.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Republic of Nauru lacks an official capital city, with key government institutions located in the Yaren District. Statement-II: Decades of intensive phosphate mining have rendered over 80% of Nauru’s interior landmass unusable, concentrating the population and infrastructure into a narrow coastal ring. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. Nauru, the world’s third-smallest country, is a micronation that does not have an official capital city. The district of Yaren serves as the de facto capital, hosting the Parliament, presidential offices, and other administrative buildings. Statement-II is correct. Nauru’s geology as a raised coral atoll provided it with vast, high-quality phosphate deposits (derived from ancient bird guano). Over a century of intensive strip mining devastated the interior plateau, leaving behind a barren, uninhabitable landscape of limestone pinnacles. This has forced the population and all infrastructure into the narrow fertile coastal strip. Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. Nauru, the world’s third-smallest country, is a micronation that does not have an official capital city. The district of Yaren serves as the de facto capital, hosting the Parliament, presidential offices, and other administrative buildings. Statement-II is correct. Nauru’s geology as a raised coral atoll provided it with vast, high-quality phosphate deposits (derived from ancient bird guano). Over a century of intensive strip mining devastated the interior plateau, leaving behind a barren, uninhabitable landscape of limestone pinnacles. This has forced the population and all infrastructure into the narrow fertile coastal strip. Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Republic of Nauru lacks an official capital city, with key government institutions located in the Yaren District.

Statement-II: Decades of intensive phosphate mining have rendered over 80% of Nauru’s interior landmass unusable, concentrating the population and infrastructure into a narrow coastal ring.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. Nauru, the world’s third-smallest country, is a micronation that does not have an official capital city. The district of Yaren serves as the de facto capital, hosting the Parliament, presidential offices, and other administrative buildings.

• Statement-II is correct. Nauru’s geology as a raised coral atoll provided it with vast, high-quality phosphate deposits (derived from ancient bird guano). Over a century of intensive strip mining devastated the interior plateau, leaving behind a barren, uninhabitable landscape of limestone pinnacles. This has forced the population and all infrastructure into the narrow fertile coastal strip.

• Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I.

Solution: B

• Both statements are factually correct. However, Statement-II is not the reason for Statement-I.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD): CWD is classified as a Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE), similar to mad cow disease. The disease is caused by infectious prions that can be neutralized by standard disinfectants and radiation. Health agencies have confirmed multiple cases of CWD transmission to humans who consumed infected meat. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. CWD is a fatal neurological disorder. It belongs to the family of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which are caused by prions. This classification places it in the same group as Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE, or “mad cow disease”) in cattle. Statement 2 is incorrect. The causative agents, prions, are misfolded proteins, not living organisms. They are notoriously difficult to destroy and are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods, including heat, radiation, and standard chemical disinfectants. This resistance allows them to persist in the environment (e.g., in soil) for years. Statement 3 is incorrect. To date, no human cases of CWD have been reported. While studies on primates have suggested a theoretical risk of transmission from eating infected meat, and health agencies like the CDC urge caution (especially for hunters), there is no confirmed evidence of human infection. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. CWD is a fatal neurological disorder. It belongs to the family of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which are caused by prions. This classification places it in the same group as Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE, or “mad cow disease”) in cattle. Statement 2 is incorrect. The causative agents, prions, are misfolded proteins, not living organisms. They are notoriously difficult to destroy and are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods, including heat, radiation, and standard chemical disinfectants. This resistance allows them to persist in the environment (e.g., in soil) for years. Statement 3 is incorrect. To date, no human cases of CWD have been reported. While studies on primates have suggested a theoretical risk of transmission from eating infected meat, and health agencies like the CDC urge caution (especially for hunters), there is no confirmed evidence of human infection.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements about Chronic Wasting Disease (CWD):

• CWD is classified as a Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE), similar to mad cow disease.

• The disease is caused by infectious prions that can be neutralized by standard disinfectants and radiation.

• Health agencies have confirmed multiple cases of CWD transmission to humans who consumed infected meat.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. CWD is a fatal neurological disorder. It belongs to the family of diseases known as Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSEs), which are caused by prions. This classification places it in the same group as Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE, or “mad cow disease”) in cattle.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The causative agents, prions, are misfolded proteins, not living organisms. They are notoriously difficult to destroy and are highly resistant to conventional sterilization methods, including heat, radiation, and standard chemical disinfectants. This resistance allows them to persist in the environment (e.g., in soil) for years.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. To date, no human cases of CWD have been reported. While studies on primates have suggested a theoretical risk of transmission from eating infected meat, and health agencies like the CDC urge caution (especially for hunters), there is no confirmed evidence of human infection.

Solution: A

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Statement I: The ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ aims to expand the area under pulses cultivation by targeting rice fallow lands. Statement II: Pulse crops, being leguminous, improve soil fertility through atmospheric nitrogen fixation and generally require less water than rice. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. A key strategy of the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ is to expand the area under cultivation by an additional 35 lakh hectares. A significant portion of this expansion is targeted at rice fallow areas—lands that remain idle after the paddy harvest—and promoting intercropping. Statement II is correct. Pulse crops are legumes and have a symbiotic relationship with rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, which enables them to fix atmospheric nitrogen, thereby enriching soil fertility and reducing the need for chemical nitrogen fertilizers. They are also known to be more drought-tolerant and have a lower water requirement compared to water-intensive crops like paddy (rice). Statement-II provides the scientific and agronomic rationale for the strategy mentioned in Statement-I. The very reason rice fallow lands are targeted for pulse cultivation is because of the benefits described in Statement-II. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. A key strategy of the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ is to expand the area under cultivation by an additional 35 lakh hectares. A significant portion of this expansion is targeted at rice fallow areas—lands that remain idle after the paddy harvest—and promoting intercropping. Statement II is correct. Pulse crops are legumes and have a symbiotic relationship with rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, which enables them to fix atmospheric nitrogen, thereby enriching soil fertility and reducing the need for chemical nitrogen fertilizers. They are also known to be more drought-tolerant and have a lower water requirement compared to water-intensive crops like paddy (rice). Statement-II provides the scientific and agronomic rationale for the strategy mentioned in Statement-I. The very reason rice fallow lands are targeted for pulse cultivation is because of the benefits described in Statement-II.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ aims to expand the area under pulses cultivation by targeting rice fallow lands.

Statement II: Pulse crops, being leguminous, improve soil fertility through atmospheric nitrogen fixation and generally require less water than rice.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. A key strategy of the ‘Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses’ is to expand the area under cultivation by an additional 35 lakh hectares. A significant portion of this expansion is targeted at rice fallow areas—lands that remain idle after the paddy harvest—and promoting intercropping.

• Statement II is correct. Pulse crops are legumes and have a symbiotic relationship with rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, which enables them to fix atmospheric nitrogen, thereby enriching soil fertility and reducing the need for chemical nitrogen fertilizers. They are also known to be more drought-tolerant and have a lower water requirement compared to water-intensive crops like paddy (rice).

• Statement-II provides the scientific and agronomic rationale for the strategy mentioned in Statement-I. The very reason rice fallow lands are targeted for pulse cultivation is because of the benefits described in Statement-II.

Solution: A

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about the ‘Vikram’ processor, recently in the news, is correct? (a) It is India's first quantum processor developed for cryptographic applications. (b) It is a 32-bit microprocessor developed by ISRO's Semiconductor Laboratory. (c) It is a high-performance AI chip designed for data centres, manufactured by Micron Technology in Gujarat. (d) It is a specialized processor for 5G base stations, developed jointly by India and Singapore. Correct Solution: B Option (a) is incorrect. The Vikram processor is a conventional microprocessor, not a quantum processor. Quantum computing is a different and more nascent field of technology. Option (b) is correct. The Vikram processor is an indigenous 32-bit microprocessor that was successfully developed by the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL) in Mohali, which is part of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Its presentation to the Prime Minister at Semicon India 2025 marked a significant milestone for the India Semiconductor Mission. Option (c) is incorrect. Micron Technology’s facility in Gujarat is an Assembly, Testing, Marking, and Packaging (ATMP) unit for memory chips; it does not manufacture high-performance AI chips like the Vikram processor. Option (d) is incorrect. While India and Singapore have collaborations in the semiconductor sector, the Vikram processor is an indigenous development by ISRO. Incorrect Solution: B Option (a) is incorrect. The Vikram processor is a conventional microprocessor, not a quantum processor. Quantum computing is a different and more nascent field of technology. Option (b) is correct. The Vikram processor is an indigenous 32-bit microprocessor that was successfully developed by the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL) in Mohali, which is part of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Its presentation to the Prime Minister at Semicon India 2025 marked a significant milestone for the India Semiconductor Mission. Option (c) is incorrect. Micron Technology’s facility in Gujarat is an Assembly, Testing, Marking, and Packaging (ATMP) unit for memory chips; it does not manufacture high-performance AI chips like the Vikram processor. Option (d) is incorrect. While India and Singapore have collaborations in the semiconductor sector, the Vikram processor is an indigenous development by ISRO.

#### 8. Question

Which of the following statements about the ‘Vikram’ processor, recently in the news, is correct?

• (a) It is India's first quantum processor developed for cryptographic applications.

• (b) It is a 32-bit microprocessor developed by ISRO's Semiconductor Laboratory.

• (c) It is a high-performance AI chip designed for data centres, manufactured by Micron Technology in Gujarat.

• (d) It is a specialized processor for 5G base stations, developed jointly by India and Singapore.

Solution: B

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Vikram processor is a conventional microprocessor, not a quantum processor. Quantum computing is a different and more nascent field of technology.

• Option (b) is correct. The Vikram processor is an indigenous 32-bit microprocessor that was successfully developed by the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL) in Mohali, which is part of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Its presentation to the Prime Minister at Semicon India 2025 marked a significant milestone for the India Semiconductor Mission.

• Option (c) is incorrect. Micron Technology’s facility in Gujarat is an Assembly, Testing, Marking, and Packaging (ATMP) unit for memory chips; it does not manufacture high-performance AI chips like the Vikram processor.

• Option (d) is incorrect. While India and Singapore have collaborations in the semiconductor sector, the Vikram processor is an indigenous development by ISRO.

Solution: B

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Vikram processor is a conventional microprocessor, not a quantum processor. Quantum computing is a different and more nascent field of technology.

• Option (d) is incorrect. While India and Singapore have collaborations in the semiconductor sector, the Vikram processor is an indigenous development by ISRO.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and recent reforms in 2025: The 10+2 academic structure has been replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure. The Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) has been established as a single umbrella body for all higher education, including medical and legal education. The UGC Regulations 2025 allow for multiple entry and exit points in undergraduate programmes, with provisions for awarding a certificate, diploma, or degree at different stages. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A foundational reform under NEP 2020 is the restructuring of school curriculum and pedagogy from the traditional 10+2 system to a new 5+3+3+4 design. This structure corresponds to the age groups 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years, respectively, covering education from pre-school to secondary level. Statement 2 is incorrect. NEP 2020 proposes the creation of the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) as a single overarching regulator for higher education. However, it explicitly states that medical and legal education will be kept out of its purview. These fields will continue to be regulated by their respective professional councils. Statement 3 is correct. The UGC Regulations 2025, in line with NEP 2020, have operationalized a flexible curriculum framework. This includes multiple entry and exit points for students. For instance, a student can exit after one year with a certificate, after two years with a diploma, and after three or four years with a bachelor’s degree. This system is facilitated by the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. A foundational reform under NEP 2020 is the restructuring of school curriculum and pedagogy from the traditional 10+2 system to a new 5+3+3+4 design. This structure corresponds to the age groups 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years, respectively, covering education from pre-school to secondary level. Statement 2 is incorrect. NEP 2020 proposes the creation of the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) as a single overarching regulator for higher education. However, it explicitly states that medical and legal education will be kept out of its purview. These fields will continue to be regulated by their respective professional councils. Statement 3 is correct. The UGC Regulations 2025, in line with NEP 2020, have operationalized a flexible curriculum framework. This includes multiple entry and exit points for students. For instance, a student can exit after one year with a certificate, after two years with a diploma, and after three or four years with a bachelor’s degree. This system is facilitated by the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC).

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and recent reforms in 2025:

• The 10+2 academic structure has been replaced by a 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.

• The Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) has been established as a single umbrella body for all higher education, including medical and legal education.

• The UGC Regulations 2025 allow for multiple entry and exit points in undergraduate programmes, with provisions for awarding a certificate, diploma, or degree at different stages.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. A foundational reform under NEP 2020 is the restructuring of school curriculum and pedagogy from the traditional 10+2 system to a new 5+3+3+4 design. This structure corresponds to the age groups 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years, respectively, covering education from pre-school to secondary level.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. NEP 2020 proposes the creation of the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) as a single overarching regulator for higher education. However, it explicitly states that medical and legal education will be kept out of its purview. These fields will continue to be regulated by their respective professional councils.

• Statement 3 is correct. The UGC Regulations 2025, in line with NEP 2020, have operationalized a flexible curriculum framework. This includes multiple entry and exit points for students. For instance, a student can exit after one year with a certificate, after two years with a diploma, and after three or four years with a bachelor’s degree. This system is facilitated by the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC).

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding ‘Model Youth Gram Sabha’ (MYGS) initiative: Statement-I: The Government of India has launched the ‘Model Youth Gram Sabha’ (MYGS) initiative in schools. Statement-II: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. Statement-III: The MYGS initiative aims to directly implement the provisions of Article 243G of the Constitution through student bodies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. The government has launched the MYGS initiative to simulate Gram Sabhas in schools for educational purposes. Statement II is correct. The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX to the Constitution, which establishes the Gram Sabha as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village, making it the primary body of direct democracy in the Panchayati Raj system. This statement provides the constitutional and historical context for the institution that MYGS seeks to simulate. It explains the ‘why’ behind the importance of a Gram Sabha, and thus why simulating it is a valuable educational exercise. Statement III is incorrect. Article 243G deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, empowering state legislatures to endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. The MYGS is an educational simulation; it does not, and cannot, implement constitutional provisions or exercise any real governmental power. Student bodies in this context have no legal authority under Article 243G. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. The government has launched the MYGS initiative to simulate Gram Sabhas in schools for educational purposes. Statement II is correct. The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX to the Constitution, which establishes the Gram Sabha as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village, making it the primary body of direct democracy in the Panchayati Raj system. This statement provides the constitutional and historical context for the institution that MYGS seeks to simulate. It explains the ‘why’ behind the importance of a Gram Sabha, and thus why simulating it is a valuable educational exercise. Statement III is incorrect. Article 243G deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, empowering state legislatures to endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. The MYGS is an educational simulation; it does not, and cannot, implement constitutional provisions or exercise any real governmental power. Student bodies in this context have no legal authority under Article 243G.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Model Youth Gram Sabha’ (MYGS) initiative:

Statement-I: The Government of India has launched the ‘Model Youth Gram Sabha’ (MYGS) initiative in schools.

Statement-II: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system.

Statement-III: The MYGS initiative aims to directly implement the provisions of Article 243G of the Constitution through student bodies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. The government has launched the MYGS initiative to simulate Gram Sabhas in schools for educational purposes.

• Statement II is correct. The 73rd Amendment Act added Part IX to the Constitution, which establishes the Gram Sabha as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village, making it the primary body of direct democracy in the Panchayati Raj system. This statement provides the constitutional and historical context for the institution that MYGS seeks to simulate. It explains the ‘why’ behind the importance of a Gram Sabha, and thus why simulating it is a valuable educational exercise.

• Statement III is incorrect. Article 243G deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, empowering state legislatures to endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

• The MYGS is an educational simulation; it does not, and cannot, implement constitutional provisions or exercise any real governmental power. Student bodies in this context have no legal authority under Article 243G.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. The government has launched the MYGS initiative to simulate Gram Sabhas in schools for educational purposes.

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