UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 22 July 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following best describes the federal structure of higher education governance in India? a) The UGC has exclusive control over the governance of all universities in India. b) States have complete autonomy in university governance. c) Education is a subject exclusively under the Union List. d) Education is in the Concurrent List, with shared powers between the Centre and states. Correct Solution: D India’s higher education governance operates under a federal structure, as education is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This means both the Centre and the states have the authority to legislate on matters related to education. While states manage and govern universities within their territories, the Union government, through bodies like the University Grants Commission (UGC), plays a crucial role in setting national standards and policies for higher education. The UGC, established by an Act of Parliament, regulates university-level education and ensures uniformity in quality and standards. However, it does not have exclusive control over all universities, as state governments maintain jurisdiction over state universities. Incorrect Solution: D India’s higher education governance operates under a federal structure, as education is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This means both the Centre and the states have the authority to legislate on matters related to education. While states manage and govern universities within their territories, the Union government, through bodies like the University Grants Commission (UGC), plays a crucial role in setting national standards and policies for higher education. The UGC, established by an Act of Parliament, regulates university-level education and ensures uniformity in quality and standards. However, it does not have exclusive control over all universities, as state governments maintain jurisdiction over state universities.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following best describes the federal structure of higher education governance in India?

• a) The UGC has exclusive control over the governance of all universities in India.

• b) States have complete autonomy in university governance.

• c) Education is a subject exclusively under the Union List.

• d) Education is in the Concurrent List, with shared powers between the Centre and states.

Solution: D

India’s higher education governance operates under a federal structure, as education is a subject in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This means both the Centre and the states have the authority to legislate on matters related to education. While states manage and govern universities within their territories, the Union government, through bodies like the University Grants Commission (UGC), plays a crucial role in setting national standards and policies for higher education.

The UGC, established by an Act of Parliament, regulates university-level education and ensures uniformity in quality and standards. However, it does not have exclusive control over all universities, as state governments maintain jurisdiction over state universities.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Reduced Arctic ice accelerates global warming by decreasing albedo. El Niño events typically lead to global cooling. High aerosol levels over India contribute to local cooling. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic region plays a crucial role in regulating Earth’s climate. Reduced Arctic ice decreases albedo (Earth’s ability to reflect sunlight), as the reflective ice is replaced by darker ocean waters that absorb more heat. This positive feedback loop accelerates global warming. Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño events are characterized by the warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, which increases global temperatures rather than causing cooling. These events disrupt weather patterns and often exacerbate global warming temporarily. Statement 3 is correct: High aerosol levels over regions like India scatter and absorb sunlight. This effect, called aerosol-induced cooling, reduces surface temperatures locally, even though aerosols contribute to global warming on larger scales by altering atmospheric dynamics. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic region plays a crucial role in regulating Earth’s climate. Reduced Arctic ice decreases albedo (Earth’s ability to reflect sunlight), as the reflective ice is replaced by darker ocean waters that absorb more heat. This positive feedback loop accelerates global warming. Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño events are characterized by the warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, which increases global temperatures rather than causing cooling. These events disrupt weather patterns and often exacerbate global warming temporarily. Statement 3 is correct: High aerosol levels over regions like India scatter and absorb sunlight. This effect, called aerosol-induced cooling, reduces surface temperatures locally, even though aerosols contribute to global warming on larger scales by altering atmospheric dynamics.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Reduced Arctic ice accelerates global warming by decreasing albedo.

• El Niño events typically lead to global cooling.

• High aerosol levels over India contribute to local cooling.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: The Arctic region plays a crucial role in regulating Earth’s climate. Reduced Arctic ice decreases albedo (Earth’s ability to reflect sunlight), as the reflective ice is replaced by darker ocean waters that absorb more heat. This positive feedback loop accelerates global warming.

Statement 2 is incorrect: El Niño events are characterized by the warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, which increases global temperatures rather than causing cooling. These events disrupt weather patterns and often exacerbate global warming temporarily.

Statement 3 is correct: High aerosol levels over regions like India scatter and absorb sunlight. This effect, called aerosol-induced cooling, reduces surface temperatures locally, even though aerosols contribute to global warming on larger scales by altering atmospheric dynamics.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following initiatives by the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC): Developing fast breeder reactors for better utilization of thorium. Collaborating with ISRO for nuclear-powered propulsion systems. Promoting nuclear medicine and radiopharmaceuticals in healthcare. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) is actively working on fast breeder reactors as part of India’s three-stage nuclear energy program. These reactors enable better utilization of thorium reserves, which are abundant in India, and play a crucial role in achieving energy sustainability. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the AEC is involved in various nuclear energy advancements, collaboration with ISRO on nuclear-powered propulsion systems is not currently within its scope. ISRO primarily focuses on conventional and cryogenic propulsion technologies for its space missions. Statement 3 is correct: The AEC promotes nuclear medicine and radiopharmaceuticals for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in healthcare. This includes applications in cancer treatment, cardiology, and neurology. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) is actively working on fast breeder reactors as part of India’s three-stage nuclear energy program. These reactors enable better utilization of thorium reserves, which are abundant in India, and play a crucial role in achieving energy sustainability. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the AEC is involved in various nuclear energy advancements, collaboration with ISRO on nuclear-powered propulsion systems is not currently within its scope. ISRO primarily focuses on conventional and cryogenic propulsion technologies for its space missions. Statement 3 is correct: The AEC promotes nuclear medicine and radiopharmaceuticals for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in healthcare. This includes applications in cancer treatment, cardiology, and neurology.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following initiatives by the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC):

• Developing fast breeder reactors for better utilization of thorium.

• Collaborating with ISRO for nuclear-powered propulsion systems.

• Promoting nuclear medicine and radiopharmaceuticals in healthcare.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct: The Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) is actively working on fast breeder reactors as part of India’s three-stage nuclear energy program. These reactors enable better utilization of thorium reserves, which are abundant in India, and play a crucial role in achieving energy sustainability.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the AEC is involved in various nuclear energy advancements, collaboration with ISRO on nuclear-powered propulsion systems is not currently within its scope. ISRO primarily focuses on conventional and cryogenic propulsion technologies for its space missions.

Statement 3 is correct: The AEC promotes nuclear medicine and radiopharmaceuticals for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in healthcare. This includes applications in cancer treatment, cardiology, and neurology.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Which of the following is the most significant factor behind the focus on thorium utilization in India’s atomic energy policy? a) Thorium’s role in nuclear weapons development. b) Thorium’s high efficiency in nuclear fission. c) India’s limited uranium reserves. d) International restrictions on uranium imports. Correct Solution: C India has limited domestic uranium resources, which are insufficient to support its long-term nuclear energy needs. In contrast, the country possesses one of the largest thorium reserves in the world, primarily found in monazite sands along its coasts. This abundance of thorium has made it a focal point in India’s three-stage nuclear energy program. Thorium, however, is not fissile by itself and requires conversion into uranium-233 through a process called breeding in reactors. India’s focus on fast breeder reactors and advanced nuclear technologies aims to harness thorium efficiently. Incorrect Solution: C India has limited domestic uranium resources, which are insufficient to support its long-term nuclear energy needs. In contrast, the country possesses one of the largest thorium reserves in the world, primarily found in monazite sands along its coasts. This abundance of thorium has made it a focal point in India’s three-stage nuclear energy program. Thorium, however, is not fissile by itself and requires conversion into uranium-233 through a process called breeding in reactors. India’s focus on fast breeder reactors and advanced nuclear technologies aims to harness thorium efficiently.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is the most significant factor behind the focus on thorium utilization in India’s atomic energy policy?

• a) Thorium’s role in nuclear weapons development.

• b) Thorium’s high efficiency in nuclear fission.

• c) India’s limited uranium reserves.

• d) International restrictions on uranium imports.

Solution: C

India has limited domestic uranium resources, which are insufficient to support its long-term nuclear energy needs. In contrast, the country possesses one of the largest thorium reserves in the world, primarily found in monazite sands along its coasts. This abundance of thorium has made it a focal point in India’s three-stage nuclear energy program.

Thorium, however, is not fissile by itself and requires conversion into uranium-233 through a process called breeding in reactors. India’s focus on fast breeder reactors and advanced nuclear technologies aims to harness thorium efficiently.

Solution: C

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement: It encourages bilateral discussions to resolve disputes amicably. It mandates the removal of illegal structures along the border. It provides for a joint judicial mechanism to settle disputes. How many of the above statements are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement highlights the importance of resolving disputes amicably through bilateral discussions and diplomatic dialogue. This approach reflects the shared commitment of both nations to maintain peaceful and cooperative relations. Statement 2 is correct: The agreement includes provisions for the removal of illegal structures along the border to ensure the sanctity of the boundary and reduce tension in disputed areas. This measure is vital for addressing issues like encroachments and cross-border smuggling. Statement 3 is incorrect: The agreement does not establish any joint judicial mechanism for resolving disputes. Instead, it relies on diplomatic channels and negotiations for conflict resolution. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement highlights the importance of resolving disputes amicably through bilateral discussions and diplomatic dialogue. This approach reflects the shared commitment of both nations to maintain peaceful and cooperative relations. Statement 2 is correct: The agreement includes provisions for the removal of illegal structures along the border to ensure the sanctity of the boundary and reduce tension in disputed areas. This measure is vital for addressing issues like encroachments and cross-border smuggling. Statement 3 is incorrect: The agreement does not establish any joint judicial mechanism for resolving disputes. Instead, it relies on diplomatic channels and negotiations for conflict resolution.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement:

• It encourages bilateral discussions to resolve disputes amicably.

• It mandates the removal of illegal structures along the border.

• It provides for a joint judicial mechanism to settle disputes.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct: The 1975 Indo-Bangladesh Joint Agreement highlights the importance of resolving disputes amicably through bilateral discussions and diplomatic dialogue. This approach reflects the shared commitment of both nations to maintain peaceful and cooperative relations.

Statement 2 is correct: The agreement includes provisions for the removal of illegal structures along the border to ensure the sanctity of the boundary and reduce tension in disputed areas. This measure is vital for addressing issues like encroachments and cross-border smuggling.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The agreement does not establish any joint judicial mechanism for resolving disputes. Instead, it relies on diplomatic channels and negotiations for conflict resolution.

Solution: A

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary. Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and gibbon species, the hoolock gibbons. The forest’s lower canopy is dominated by evergreen shrubs and herbs. The forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Assam. The sanctuary was officially constituted and renamed in 1997. Set aside initially in 1881, its forests used to extend to the foothills of the Patkai mountain range. Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages. The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India’s only ape and gibbon specie – the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate – the Bengal slow loris. The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus), while the nahar (Mesua ferrea) dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs. Incorrect Solution: C The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Assam. The sanctuary was officially constituted and renamed in 1997. Set aside initially in 1881, its forests used to extend to the foothills of the Patkai mountain range. Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages. The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India’s only ape and gibbon specie – the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate – the Bengal slow loris. The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus), while the nahar (Mesua ferrea) dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary.

• Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary is home to India’s only ape and gibbon species, the hoolock gibbons.

• The forest’s lower canopy is dominated by evergreen shrubs and herbs.

• The forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Assam. The sanctuary was officially constituted and renamed in 1997. Set aside initially in 1881, its forests used to extend to the foothills of the Patkai mountain range.

Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages.

The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India’s only ape and gibbon specie – the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate – the Bengal slow loris.

The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus), while the nahar (Mesua ferrea) dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.

Solution: C

Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages.

The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India’s only ape and gibbon specie – the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate – the Bengal slow loris.

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Gobi Desert. Gobi Desert is a vast, arid region located entirely in China. It is known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals such as snow leopards and Bactrian camels. The Gobi Desert is the source of many important fossil finds. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C About the Gobi Desert: It is a vast, arid region in northern China and southern Mongolia. It’s known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals such as snow leopards and Bactrian camels. In the Gobi Gurvansaikhan National Park, the Khongoryn Els sand dunes are said to sing when the wind blows. The park also features the deep ice field of Yolyn Am canyon. Dinosaur fossils have been found at the red “Flaming Cliffs” of Bayanzag. Incorrect Solution: C About the Gobi Desert: It is a vast, arid region in northern China and southern Mongolia. It’s known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals such as snow leopards and Bactrian camels. In the Gobi Gurvansaikhan National Park, the Khongoryn Els sand dunes are said to sing when the wind blows. The park also features the deep ice field of Yolyn Am canyon. Dinosaur fossils have been found at the red “Flaming Cliffs” of Bayanzag.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Gobi Desert.

• Gobi Desert is a vast, arid region located entirely in China.

• It is known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals such as snow leopards and Bactrian camels.

• The Gobi Desert is the source of many important fossil finds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

About the Gobi Desert:

It is a vast, arid region in northern China and southern Mongolia. It’s known for its dunes, mountains and rare animals such as snow leopards and Bactrian camels. In the Gobi Gurvansaikhan National Park, the Khongoryn Els sand dunes are said to sing when the wind blows. The park also features the deep ice field of Yolyn Am canyon. Dinosaur fossils have been found at the red “Flaming Cliffs” of Bayanzag.

Solution: C

About the Gobi Desert:

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Indian Council of Agricultural Research reports to the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers. It assists farmers with access to improved technologies and technical support services. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for co-ordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture. The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president. It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world. Role of ICAR: ICAR manages various research programmes, such as horticultural research, soil fertility, agricultural mechanisation and pest management, aimed at improving the productivity and profitability of Indian agriculture. ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers. It also assists farmers with access to improved technologies, efficient use of resources and technical support services. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for co-ordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture. The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president. It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world. Role of ICAR: ICAR manages various research programmes, such as horticultural research, soil fertility, agricultural mechanisation and pest management, aimed at improving the productivity and profitability of Indian agriculture. ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers. It also assists farmers with access to improved technologies, efficient use of resources and technical support services.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

• Indian Council of Agricultural Research reports to the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.

• ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers.

• It assists farmers with access to improved technologies and technical support services.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body responsible for co-ordinating agricultural education and research in India. It reports to the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture. The Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president. It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world.

Role of ICAR: ICAR manages various research programmes, such as horticultural research, soil fertility, agricultural mechanisation and pest management, aimed at improving the productivity and profitability of Indian agriculture.

• ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers.

• It also assists farmers with access to improved technologies, efficient use of resources and technical support services.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• ICAR established Krishi Vigyan Kendras for the vocational training of farmers.

• It also assists farmers with access to improved technologies, efficient use of resources and technical support services.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric rivers. Atmospheric rivers are short and wider bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from one region to another. Atmospheric rivers are not concentrated to one region, but occur globally. An example is the “Pineapple Express,” an atmospheric river that brings moisture to the U.S. West Coast. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. What are Atmospheric rivers? These are long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from the tropics to other regions. These “rivers in the sky” can be thousands of kilometres long and hundreds of kilometres wide, carrying large amounts of water vapour. When they make landfall, they can release this moisture as heavy rain or snow, often leading to significant flooding and other weather-related impacts. Atmospheric rivers occur globally, affecting the west coasts of the world’s major landmasses. A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. What are Atmospheric rivers? These are long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from the tropics to other regions. These “rivers in the sky” can be thousands of kilometres long and hundreds of kilometres wide, carrying large amounts of water vapour. When they make landfall, they can release this moisture as heavy rain or snow, often leading to significant flooding and other weather-related impacts. Atmospheric rivers occur globally, affecting the west coasts of the world’s major landmasses. A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric rivers.

• Atmospheric rivers are short and wider bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from one region to another.

• Atmospheric rivers are not concentrated to one region, but occur globally.

• An example is the “Pineapple Express,” an atmospheric river that brings moisture to the U.S. West Coast.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

What are Atmospheric rivers?

These are long, narrow bands of water vapour in the atmosphere that transport moisture from the tropics to other regions. These “rivers in the sky” can be thousands of kilometres long and hundreds of kilometres wide, carrying large amounts of water vapour. When they make landfall, they can release this moisture as heavy rain or snow, often leading to significant flooding and other weather-related impacts.

Atmospheric rivers occur globally, affecting the west coasts of the world’s major landmasses. A well-known example is the “Pineapple Express,” a strong atmospheric river that is capable of bringing moisture from the tropics near Hawaii over to the U.S. West Coast.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect.

What are Atmospheric rivers?

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Articles of Indian Constitution. Article 15: empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16: Allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341: Empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories through a public notification. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution: D Statement 3 is incorrect. States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1). Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341 in Constitution of India (1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 3 is incorrect. States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1). Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs. Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services. Article 341 in Constitution of India (1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Articles of Indian Constitution.

• Article 15: empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16: Allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

• Article 341: Empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in various states and union territories through a public notification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1, 2 and 3

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

Statement 3 is incorrect.

States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1).

• Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

Article 341 in Constitution of India

(1) The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.

Solution: D

Statement 3 is incorrect.

States have the authority to provide reservation benefits to SCs and STs under Articles 15(4) and 16(4), and Articles 341(1) and 342(1).

• Article 15(4) empowers states to create special arrangements for socially and educationally backward classes like SCs and STs.

• Article 16(4) allows States to make provisions for reservation in promotion if SCs and STs are underrepresented in state services.

Article 341 in Constitution of India

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