UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 22 July 2024

The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: A higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates a lower ability of a country to repay its debt. Countries with a high debt-to-GDP ratio are always at risk of defaulting on their debt. The debt-to-GDP ratio can be used to compare the economic health of different countries. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Correct. Generally, a higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that a country has a higher level of debt relative to its GDP, which can imply a lower ability to repay the debt. However, the context and specific circumstances of each country must be considered. S2 is Incorrect. While a high debt-to-GDP ratio can be a sign of potential financial stress, it does not automatically mean that a country is at risk of default. Many countries manage high debt levels without defaulting due to various factors like economic stability, strong financial institutions, and the ability to issue debt in their own currency. S3 is Correct. The debt-to-GDP ratio is a useful tool for comparing the economic health and debt burden of different countries. It helps in understanding the relative debt levels in the context of the size of their economies. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1 is Correct. Generally, a higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that a country has a higher level of debt relative to its GDP, which can imply a lower ability to repay the debt. However, the context and specific circumstances of each country must be considered. S2 is Incorrect. While a high debt-to-GDP ratio can be a sign of potential financial stress, it does not automatically mean that a country is at risk of default. Many countries manage high debt levels without defaulting due to various factors like economic stability, strong financial institutions, and the ability to issue debt in their own currency. S3 is Correct. The debt-to-GDP ratio is a useful tool for comparing the economic health and debt burden of different countries. It helps in understanding the relative debt levels in the context of the size of their economies. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates a lower ability of a country to repay its debt. Countries with a high debt-to-GDP ratio are always at risk of defaulting on their debt. The debt-to-GDP ratio can be used to compare the economic health of different countries.

• A higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates a lower ability of a country to repay its debt.

• Countries with a high debt-to-GDP ratio are always at risk of defaulting on their debt.

• The debt-to-GDP ratio can be used to compare the economic health of different countries.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• S1 is Correct. Generally, a higher debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that a country has a higher level of debt relative to its GDP, which can imply a lower ability to repay the debt. However, the context and specific circumstances of each country must be considered.

• S2 is Incorrect. While a high debt-to-GDP ratio can be a sign of potential financial stress, it does not automatically mean that a country is at risk of default. Many countries manage high debt levels without defaulting due to various factors like economic stability, strong financial institutions, and the ability to issue debt in their own currency.

• S3 is Correct. The debt-to-GDP ratio is a useful tool for comparing the economic health and debt burden of different countries. It helps in understanding the relative debt levels in the context of the size of their economies.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the letter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: S1: The NK Singh Committee on FRBM proposed a debt-to-GDP ratio of 40% for the central government and 20% for states, aiming for a combined general government debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%. S2: Art. 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: S1: The NK Singh Committee on FRBM proposed a debt-to-GDP ratio of 40% for the central government and 20% for states, aiming for a combined general government debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%. S2: Art. 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the letter.

• As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the letter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• S1: The NK Singh Committee on FRBM proposed a debt-to-GDP ratio of 40% for the central government and 20% for states, aiming for a combined general government debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%.

• S2: Art. 293. (3.) A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• S1: The NK Singh Committee on FRBM proposed a debt-to-GDP ratio of 40% for the central government and 20% for states, aiming for a combined general government debt-to-GDP ratio of 60%.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Article 14 applies only to the executive branch of the government and not to the legislature or the judiciary. Article 14 allows for reasonable classification but prohibits class legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It applies to every person, including citizens and foreigners, and covers all branches of the government—executive, legislature, and judiciary. While Article 14 allows for reasonable classification, it prohibits arbitrary class legislation. The doctrine of reasonable classification mandates that the classification must be based on an intelligible differentia and there should be a rational nexus between the classification and the objective sought to be achieved. Refer: https://insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It applies to every person, including citizens and foreigners, and covers all branches of the government—executive, legislature, and judiciary. While Article 14 allows for reasonable classification, it prohibits arbitrary class legislation. The doctrine of reasonable classification mandates that the classification must be based on an intelligible differentia and there should be a rational nexus between the classification and the objective sought to be achieved. Refer: https://insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Article 14 applies only to the executive branch of the government and not to the legislature or the judiciary. Article 14 allows for reasonable classification but prohibits class legislation.

• Article 14 applies only to the executive branch of the government and not to the legislature or the judiciary.

• Article 14 allows for reasonable classification but prohibits class legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It applies to every person, including citizens and foreigners, and covers all branches of the government—executive, legislature, and judiciary. While Article 14 allows for reasonable classification, it prohibits arbitrary class legislation. The doctrine of reasonable classification mandates that the classification must be based on an intelligible differentia and there should be a rational nexus between the classification and the objective sought to be achieved.

Refer: https://insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: As per the amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 It empowered individuals to approach the Tribunals. It empowered district judges in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals. Which of the given above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, Changes proposed as per the amendment: It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not. The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals. The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not. Extra information: A civil officer or a minor judicial officer in specific areas is called as Magistrate. The mandate of Magistrate is to handle minor cases. A judge has more power than a magistrate. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, Changes proposed as per the amendment: It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not. The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals. The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not. Extra information: A civil officer or a minor judicial officer in specific areas is called as Magistrate. The mandate of Magistrate is to handle minor cases. A judge has more power than a magistrate. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

As per the amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019

• It empowered individuals to approach the Tribunals. It empowered district judges in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals.

• It empowered individuals to approach the Tribunals.

• It empowered district judges in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964,

• Changes proposed as per the amendment: It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not. The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals. The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not.

• It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.

• The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.

• The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not.

• Extra information: A civil officer or a minor judicial officer in specific areas is called as Magistrate. The mandate of Magistrate is to handle minor cases. A judge has more power than a magistrate.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The MHA has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964,

• It has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not.

• The amended Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019 also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals.

• The amended order also allows District Magistrates to refer individuals who haven’t filed claims against their exclusion from NRC to the Tribunals to decide if they are foreigners or not.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only One (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in chapter V under Part V. The CAG is mentioned in the Constitution of India under Article 148 – 151. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in chapter V under Part V. The CAG is mentioned in the Constitution of India under Article 148 – 151. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).

• CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state.

• CAG is an extra constitutional body, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

• The duty of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

• CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only One

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in chapter V under Part V. The CAG is mentioned in the Constitution of India under Article 148 – 151. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the financial system of the country at both the levels- the centre and state. His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJK): It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority is the implementation agency for PMBJP. It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1: It is a campaign launched by theDepartment of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. S3: It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra. Initially launched in 2008, the scheme was rechristened in 2015. S2: Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP. The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India works under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1: It is a campaign launched by theDepartment of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. S3: It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra. Initially launched in 2008, the scheme was rechristened in 2015. S2: Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP. The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India works under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJK):

• It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority is the implementation agency for PMBJP. It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.

• It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

• The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority is the implementation agency for PMBJP.

• It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• S1: It is a campaign launched by theDepartment of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

• S3: It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.

• Initially launched in 2008, the scheme was rechristened in 2015.

• S2: Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP.

• The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India works under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• S1: It is a campaign launched by theDepartment of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.

• S3: It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.

• Initially launched in 2008, the scheme was rechristened in 2015.

• S2: Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency for PMBJP.

• The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India works under the Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about KIRTI programme: It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years of age. It aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports. It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The KIRTI Programme is aimed at school children aged 9 to 18, with two main objectives: discovering talent nationwide and using sports to reduce drug addiction and gadget distractions. It plans to conduct 20 lakh assessments through Talent Assessment Centres to identify potential athletes. The programme aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports. KIRTI launched across 50 centres, assessing 50,000 applicants in its first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, and hockey. It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The KIRTI Programme is aimed at school children aged 9 to 18, with two main objectives: discovering talent nationwide and using sports to reduce drug addiction and gadget distractions. It plans to conduct 20 lakh assessments through Talent Assessment Centres to identify potential athletes. The programme aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports. KIRTI launched across 50 centres, assessing 50,000 applicants in its first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, and hockey. It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about KIRTI programme:

• It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years of age. It aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports. It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential.

• It is aimed at school children between 9 and 18 years of age.

• It aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports.

• It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The KIRTI Programme is aimed at school children aged 9 to 18, with two main objectives: discovering talent nationwide and using sports to reduce drug addiction and gadget distractions.

• It plans to conduct 20 lakh assessments through Talent Assessment Centres to identify potential athletes.

• The programme aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports.

• KIRTI launched across 50 centres, assessing 50,000 applicants in its first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, and hockey.

• It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The KIRTI Programme is aimed at school children aged 9 to 18, with two main objectives: discovering talent nationwide and using sports to reduce drug addiction and gadget distractions.

• It plans to conduct 20 lakh assessments through Talent Assessment Centres to identify potential athletes.

• The programme aims to reach every block in India to connect with children interested in sports.

• KIRTI launched across 50 centres, assessing 50,000 applicants in its first phase across 10 sports, including athletics, boxing, and hockey.

• It features a transparent selection process using IT and AI-based data analytics to predict athletic potential.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points ‘Gevra and Kusmunda’ are famous for: (a) Their large coal mines (b) Being significant agricultural hubs (c) Their scenic landscapes and tourism (d) Their steel production facilities Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Chhattisgarh-based South Eastern Coalfields Limited (SECL), a subsidiary of Coal India, has achieved a significant milestone with its Gevra and Kusmunda coal mines ranking 2nd and 4th among the world’s largest coal mines. These mines are located in the Korba district and collectively produce over 100 million tons of coal annually, constituting about 10% of India’s total coal production. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Chhattisgarh-based South Eastern Coalfields Limited (SECL), a subsidiary of Coal India, has achieved a significant milestone with its Gevra and Kusmunda coal mines ranking 2nd and 4th among the world’s largest coal mines. These mines are located in the Korba district and collectively produce over 100 million tons of coal annually, constituting about 10% of India’s total coal production. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 8. Question

‘Gevra and Kusmunda’ are famous for:

• (a) Their large coal mines

• (b) Being significant agricultural hubs

• (c) Their scenic landscapes and tourism

• (d) Their steel production facilities

Explanation:

• Context: Chhattisgarh-based South Eastern Coalfields Limited (SECL), a subsidiary of Coal India, has achieved a significant milestone with its Gevra and Kusmunda coal mines ranking 2nd and 4th among the world’s largest coal mines.

• These mines are located in the Korba district and collectively produce over 100 million tons of coal annually, constituting about 10% of India’s total coal production.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• These mines are located in the Korba district and collectively produce over 100 million tons of coal annually, constituting about 10% of India’s total coal production.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) works under the aegis of which of the following ministries? (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (b) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers (c) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) was established with the objective of coordinating and managing the procurement, supply, and distribution of generic medicines and medical devices through the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). The BPPI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, which is a part of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. This ministry is responsible for the development of the pharmaceutical industry in India, ensuring the availability of affordable medicines to the public, and promoting generic drug usage. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) was established with the objective of coordinating and managing the procurement, supply, and distribution of generic medicines and medical devices through the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). The BPPI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, which is a part of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. This ministry is responsible for the development of the pharmaceutical industry in India, ensuring the availability of affordable medicines to the public, and promoting generic drug usage. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 9. Question

The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) works under the aegis of which of the following ministries?

• (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

• (b) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

• (c) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution

• (d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Explanation:

• The Bureau of Pharma Public Sector Undertakings of India (BPPI) was established with the objective of coordinating and managing the procurement, supply, and distribution of generic medicines and medical devices through the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). The BPPI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, which is a part of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. This ministry is responsible for the development of the pharmaceutical industry in India, ensuring the availability of affordable medicines to the public, and promoting generic drug usage.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Kisan Credit Card Scheme The scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). It is implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country. It covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans: (c) Explanation: The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was announced in the Budget speech of 1998-99 to fulfil the financial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit. The model scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) on the recommendation of the V Gupta committee. The KCC scheme is being implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country. Scheme covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents. Crop loans disbursed under KCC Scheme for notified crops are covered under Crop Insurance Scheme, to protect the interest of the farmer against loss of crop yield caused by natural calamities, pest attacks etc. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (c) Explanation: The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was announced in the Budget speech of 1998-99 to fulfil the financial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit. The model scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) on the recommendation of the V Gupta committee. The KCC scheme is being implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country. Scheme covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents. Crop loans disbursed under KCC Scheme for notified crops are covered under Crop Insurance Scheme, to protect the interest of the farmer against loss of crop yield caused by natural calamities, pest attacks etc. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

#### 10. Question

Consider the following statements about Kisan Credit Card Scheme

• The scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). It is implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country. It covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents.

• The scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

• It is implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country.

• It covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Explanation:

• The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was announced in the Budget speech of 1998-99 to fulfil the financial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit.

• The model scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) on the recommendation of the V Gupta committee.

• The KCC scheme is being implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country.

• Scheme covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents.

• Crop loans disbursed under KCC Scheme for notified crops are covered under Crop Insurance Scheme, to protect the interest of the farmer against loss of crop yield caused by natural calamities, pest attacks etc.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

Explanation:

• The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was announced in the Budget speech of 1998-99 to fulfil the financial requirements of the farmers at various stages of farming through institutional credit.

• The model scheme was prepared by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) on the recommendation of the V Gupta committee.

• The KCC scheme is being implemented by all Co-operative banks, Regional Rural Banks and Public Sector Banks throughout the country.

• Scheme covers the risk of KCC holders against death or permanent disability resulting from accidents.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/07/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-july-2024/

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