UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 22 January 2026

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India, despite being a nuclear power with a credible deterrence policy, has not signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). India’s refusal to sign the NPT stems from the treaty’s failure to provide binding security assurances to non-nuclear weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons by the five recognized nuclear-weapon states. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. It is a well-established fact of India’s foreign and nuclear policy that it possesses nuclear weapons and maintains a policy of credible minimum deterrence. It is also a fact that India is not a signatory to the NPT. Statement 2 is correct. This is one of India’s key criticisms of the NPT. India has long argued that the treaty does not provide “negative security assurances” — legally binding commitments from the nuclear-weapon states not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear weapon states. This lack of security assurance is seen as a significant flaw in the treaty’s architecture. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. It is a well-established fact of India’s foreign and nuclear policy that it possesses nuclear weapons and maintains a policy of credible minimum deterrence. It is also a fact that India is not a signatory to the NPT. Statement 2 is correct. This is one of India’s key criticisms of the NPT. India has long argued that the treaty does not provide “negative security assurances” — legally binding commitments from the nuclear-weapon states not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear weapon states. This lack of security assurance is seen as a significant flaw in the treaty’s architecture.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• India, despite being a nuclear power with a credible deterrence policy, has not signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

• India’s refusal to sign the NPT stems from the treaty’s failure to provide binding security assurances to non-nuclear weapon states against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons by the five recognized nuclear-weapon states.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. It is a well-established fact of India’s foreign and nuclear policy that it possesses nuclear weapons and maintains a policy of credible minimum deterrence. It is also a fact that India is not a signatory to the NPT.

• Statement 2 is correct. This is one of India’s key criticisms of the NPT. India has long argued that the treaty does not provide “negative security assurances” — legally binding commitments from the nuclear-weapon states not to use nuclear weapons against non-nuclear weapon states. This lack of security assurance is seen as a significant flaw in the treaty’s architecture.

Solution: D

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Match the following pillars of the Digital India programme (Column I) with their respective objectives (Column II). Column I (Pillar) Column II (Objective) A. Broadband Highways 1. Deliver government services electronically B. Public Internet Access 2. Expand network connectivity in underserved regions C. e-Kranti 3. Ensure high-speed internet access for all, including rural areas D. Universal Mobile Access 4. Provide digital access points through Common Service Centres Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: D Broadband Highways (A) aims to provide high-speed internet connectivity across the country, covering both urban and rural landscapes (3). Public Internet Access Programme (B) focuses on setting up accessible digital points for citizens, primarily through the network of Common Service Centres (CSCs) (4). e-Kranti (C) is the pillar dedicated to transforming the delivery of government services across various sectors like education, health, and finance, by leveraging information technology (1). Universal Mobile Access (D) specifically targets the expansion of mobile network coverage to the remaining uncovered areas of the country, ensuring that even remote regions are connected (2). Incorrect Solution: D Broadband Highways (A) aims to provide high-speed internet connectivity across the country, covering both urban and rural landscapes (3). Public Internet Access Programme (B) focuses on setting up accessible digital points for citizens, primarily through the network of Common Service Centres (CSCs) (4). e-Kranti (C) is the pillar dedicated to transforming the delivery of government services across various sectors like education, health, and finance, by leveraging information technology (1). Universal Mobile Access (D) specifically targets the expansion of mobile network coverage to the remaining uncovered areas of the country, ensuring that even remote regions are connected (2).

#### 2. Question

Match the following pillars of the Digital India programme (Column I) with their respective objectives (Column II).

Column I (Pillar) | Column II (Objective)

A. Broadband Highways | 1. Deliver government services electronically

B. Public Internet Access | 2. Expand network connectivity in underserved regions

C. e-Kranti | 3. Ensure high-speed internet access for all, including rural areas

D. Universal Mobile Access | 4. Provide digital access points through Common Service Centres

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• (c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Solution: D

• Broadband Highways (A) aims to provide high-speed internet connectivity across the country, covering both urban and rural landscapes (3).

• Public Internet Access Programme (B) focuses on setting up accessible digital points for citizens, primarily through the network of Common Service Centres (CSCs) (4).

• e-Kranti (C) is the pillar dedicated to transforming the delivery of government services across various sectors like education, health, and finance, by leveraging information technology (1).

• Universal Mobile Access (D) specifically targets the expansion of mobile network coverage to the remaining uncovered areas of the country, ensuring that even remote regions are connected (2).

Solution: D

• Broadband Highways (A) aims to provide high-speed internet connectivity across the country, covering both urban and rural landscapes (3).

• Public Internet Access Programme (B) focuses on setting up accessible digital points for citizens, primarily through the network of Common Service Centres (CSCs) (4).

• e-Kranti (C) is the pillar dedicated to transforming the delivery of government services across various sectors like education, health, and finance, by leveraging information technology (1).

• Universal Mobile Access (D) specifically targets the expansion of mobile network coverage to the remaining uncovered areas of the country, ensuring that even remote regions are connected (2).

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Regarding the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression in India, which of the following statements is correct? (a) Any speech that incites violence is protected unless it threatens the security of the State. (b) It can be restricted on the ground of 'contempt of Parliament'. (c) The right to remain silent is implicitly included within this right. (d) It is available to all persons residing in India, including foreign nationals. Correct Solution: C Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals). Option a is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense. Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2). Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right. Incorrect Solution: C Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals). Option a is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense. Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2). Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression in India, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) Any speech that incites violence is protected unless it threatens the security of the State.

• (b) It can be restricted on the ground of 'contempt of Parliament'.

• (c) The right to remain silent is implicitly included within this right.

• (d) It is available to all persons residing in India, including foreign nationals.

Solution: C

• Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals).

• Option a is incorrect. Speech that incites violence is not protected. ‘Incitement to an offence’ is one of the specific grounds under Article 19(2) on which free speech can be restricted. This is a broader ground than just threatening the security of the state; it can apply to incitement of any recognized offense.

• Option b is incorrect. The grounds for reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) include contempt of court, not contempt of Parliament. While contempt of Parliament is an offense, it is not listed as a ground for restricting free speech under Article 19(2).

Option c is correct. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the right to freedom of speech and expression to also include the negative right not to speak or to remain silent. This was famously established in the Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State of Kerala (National Anthem case), where it was held that compelling someone to speak is a violation of this fundamental right.

Solution: C

• Option a is incorrect. The right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 is guaranteed only to citizens of India, not to all persons (which would include foreign nationals).

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about bioluminescence: Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to physical processes. Noctiluca scintillans, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton responsible for creating blue waves. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Bioluminescence is caused by chemical reactions within living organisms, not physical processes, so statement 1 is incorrect. Noctiluca scintillans, or “sea sparkle,” is responsible for creating bioluminescent blue waves, making statement 2 correct. About Bioluminescence: Definition: Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life. Organism Responsible: *Noctiluca scintillans, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed. Marine species: Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fish, bacteria, and jellyfish. Purpose: It is believed that bioluminescence serves multiple functions for marine life, including: Defense Mechanism: Used to escape predators. Communication: Helps species communicate with each other. Attraction: Assists in attracting prey or mates. Location: Bioluminescence can appear in various marine environments, depending on the type of organism and habitat. Incorrect Solution: A Bioluminescence is caused by chemical reactions within living organisms, not physical processes, so statement 1 is incorrect. Noctiluca scintillans, or “sea sparkle,” is responsible for creating bioluminescent blue waves, making statement 2 correct. About Bioluminescence: Definition: Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life. Organism Responsible: Noctiluca scintillans, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed. Marine species: Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fish, bacteria, and jellyfish. Purpose: It is believed that bioluminescence serves multiple functions for marine life, including: Defense Mechanism: Used to escape predators. Communication: Helps species communicate with each other. Attraction: Assists in attracting prey or mates. Location:* Bioluminescence can appear in various marine environments, depending on the type of organism and habitat.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about bioluminescence:

• Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to physical processes.

• Noctiluca scintillans, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton responsible for creating blue waves.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Bioluminescence is caused by chemical reactions within living organisms, not physical processes, so statement 1 is incorrect. Noctiluca scintillans, or “sea sparkle,” is responsible for creating bioluminescent blue waves, making statement 2 correct.

About Bioluminescence:

• Definition: Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life.

• Organism Responsible: *Noctiluca scintillans*, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed.

• Marine species: Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fish, bacteria, and jellyfish.

• Purpose: It is believed that bioluminescence serves multiple functions for marine life, including: Defense Mechanism: Used to escape predators. Communication: Helps species communicate with each other. Attraction: Assists in attracting prey or mates.

• Defense Mechanism: Used to escape predators.

• Communication: Helps species communicate with each other.

• Attraction: Assists in attracting prey or mates.

• Location: Bioluminescence can appear in various marine environments, depending on the type of organism and habitat.

Solution: A

About Bioluminescence:

• Definition: Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms, primarily due to chemical reactions within marine life.

• Organism Responsible: *Noctiluca scintillans*, also known as “sea sparkle,” is a bioluminescent phytoplankton that creates mesmerizing blue waves when disturbed.

• Marine species: Common bioluminescent organisms include certain fish, bacteria, and jellyfish.

• Defense Mechanism: Used to escape predators.

• Communication: Helps species communicate with each other.

• Attraction: Assists in attracting prey or mates.

• Location: Bioluminescence can appear in various marine environments, depending on the type of organism and habitat.

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding coli infections: All strains of E. coli produce Shiga toxins that damage the intestinal lining. E. coli primarily spreads through airborne particles. E. coli infections always require antibiotic treatment for resolution. The symptoms of E. coli infection include respiratory problems and headaches. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only two (b) Only three (c) All four (d) None Correct Solution: C All statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because not all strains of *E. coli* produce Shiga toxins. Only certain dangerous strains like O157 produce these toxins. Statement 2 is incorrect because *E. coli* is not spread through airborne particles but rather through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter. Statement 3 is incorrect because most *E. coli* infections resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics. In fact, using antibiotics can sometimes worsen the condition by increasing toxin release. Statement 4 is also incorrect because *E. coli* symptoms typically include diarrhea (often bloody), stomach cramps, nausea, and fever, not respiratory problems or headaches. Incorrect Solution: C All statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because not all strains of *E. coli* produce Shiga toxins. Only certain dangerous strains like O157 produce these toxins. Statement 2 is incorrect because *E. coli* is not spread through airborne particles but rather through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter. Statement 3 is incorrect because most *E. coli* infections resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics. In fact, using antibiotics can sometimes worsen the condition by increasing toxin release. Statement 4 is also incorrect because *E. coli* symptoms typically include diarrhea (often bloody), stomach cramps, nausea, and fever, not respiratory problems or headaches.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding coli infections:

• All strains of E. coli produce Shiga toxins that damage the intestinal lining.

• E. coli primarily spreads through airborne particles.

• E. coli infections always require antibiotic treatment for resolution.

• The symptoms of E. coli infection include respiratory problems and headaches.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only two

• (b) Only three

• (c) All four

Solution: C

All statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because not all strains of *E. coli* produce Shiga toxins. Only certain dangerous strains like O157 produce these toxins.

Statement 2 is incorrect because *E. coli* is not spread through airborne particles but rather through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter.

Statement 3 is incorrect because most *E. coli* infections resolve on their own without the need for antibiotics. In fact, using antibiotics can sometimes worsen the condition by increasing toxin release.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because *E. coli* symptoms typically include diarrhea (often bloody), stomach cramps, nausea, and fever, not respiratory problems or headaches.

Solution: C

All statements are incorrect. Statement 1 is incorrect because not all strains of *E. coli* produce Shiga toxins. Only certain dangerous strains like O157 produce these toxins.

Statement 2 is incorrect because *E. coli* is not spread through airborne particles but rather through contaminated food, water, or contact with fecal matter.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because *E. coli* symptoms typically include diarrhea (often bloody), stomach cramps, nausea, and fever, not respiratory problems or headaches.

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which of the following best distinguishes denatured alcohol from absolute alcohol? a) Absolute alcohol is tax-exempt, whereas denatured alcohol is taxed due to its potential for human consumption. b) Absolute alcohol is used for industrial purposes, while denatured alcohol is used for medical purposes. c) Denatured alcohol contains additives that make it poisonous and unfit for human consumption, unlike absolute alcohol. d) Denatured alcohol is ethanol without any additives, while absolute alcohol contains toxic substances. Correct Solution: C Denatured alcohol is ethanol mixed with toxic additives, such as methanol, to make it unfit for human consumption. This renders it suitable for industrial use and often lowers or exempts it from taxation. Absolute alcohol, on the other hand, is pure ethanol with minimal or no additives, making it drinkable but highly dangerous in large quantities. Due to its potential for human consumption, absolute alcohol is subject to higher taxation, whereas denatured alcohol is not. Incorrect Solution: C Denatured alcohol is ethanol mixed with toxic additives, such as methanol, to make it unfit for human consumption. This renders it suitable for industrial use and often lowers or exempts it from taxation. Absolute alcohol, on the other hand, is pure ethanol with minimal or no additives, making it drinkable but highly dangerous in large quantities. Due to its potential for human consumption, absolute alcohol is subject to higher taxation, whereas denatured alcohol is not.

#### 6. Question

Which of the following best distinguishes denatured alcohol from absolute alcohol?

• a) Absolute alcohol is tax-exempt, whereas denatured alcohol is taxed due to its potential for human consumption.

• b) Absolute alcohol is used for industrial purposes, while denatured alcohol is used for medical purposes.

• c) Denatured alcohol contains additives that make it poisonous and unfit for human consumption, unlike absolute alcohol.

• d) Denatured alcohol is ethanol without any additives, while absolute alcohol contains toxic substances.

Solution: C

Denatured alcohol is ethanol mixed with toxic additives, such as methanol, to make it unfit for human consumption. This renders it suitable for industrial use and often lowers or exempts it from taxation. Absolute alcohol, on the other hand, is pure ethanol with minimal or no additives, making it drinkable but highly dangerous in large quantities. Due to its potential for human consumption, absolute alcohol is subject to higher taxation, whereas denatured alcohol is not.

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about the governance and functions of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA): The NPPA provides recommendations to the government on drug price revisions and pharmaceutical policies. It solely relies on data from pharmaceutical companies and does not conduct independent data collection. The NPPA’s establishment was aimed at enforcing fair pricing of both pharmaceutical drugs and food items in India. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the NPPA’s roles includes acting as an advisory body by providing recommendations to the government on drug price revisions and policies related to the pharmaceutical sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPPA does not solely rely on data from companies; it conducts independent data collection on drug production, imports, exports, and market shares to ensure fair pricing. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPPA was specifically established to regulate prices of pharmaceutical drugs and medical devices, not food items. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. One of the NPPA’s roles includes acting as an advisory body by providing recommendations to the government on drug price revisions and policies related to the pharmaceutical sector. Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPPA does not solely rely on data from companies; it conducts independent data collection on drug production, imports, exports, and market shares to ensure fair pricing. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPPA was specifically established to regulate prices of pharmaceutical drugs and medical devices, not food items.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements about the governance and functions of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA):

• The NPPA provides recommendations to the government on drug price revisions and pharmaceutical policies.

• It solely relies on data from pharmaceutical companies and does not conduct independent data collection.

• The NPPA’s establishment was aimed at enforcing fair pricing of both pharmaceutical drugs and food items in India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. One of the NPPA’s roles includes acting as an advisory body by providing recommendations to the government on drug price revisions and policies related to the pharmaceutical sector.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPPA does not solely rely on data from companies; it conducts independent data collection on drug production, imports, exports, and market shares to ensure fair pricing.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPPA was specifically established to regulate prices of pharmaceutical drugs and medical devices, not food items.

Solution: A

Statement 2 is incorrect. The NPPA does not solely rely on data from companies; it conducts independent data collection on drug production, imports, exports, and market shares to ensure fair pricing.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The NPPA was specifically established to regulate prices of pharmaceutical drugs and medical devices, not food items.

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following pairs: River : Origin 1. Mahadayi : Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka 2. Gomti : Gomat Taal, Uttar Pradesh 3. Chenab : Surya Taal, Himachal Pradesh 4. Sutlej : Lake Rakshastal, Tibet How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China. Incorrect Solution: C Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi. Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following pairs:

| River | : | Origin

1.| Mahadayi | : | Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka
2.| Gomti | : | Gomat Taal, Uttar Pradesh
3.| Chenab | : | Surya Taal, Himachal Pradesh
4.| Sutlej | : | Lake Rakshastal, Tibet

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

• Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Gomti River is a monsoon and groundwater-fed river that originates from Gomat Taal (also known as Fulhaar Jheel) in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh.

• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The Chenab River is formed by the confluence of two rivers, the Chandra and the Bhaga. While the Bhaga river originates from Surya Taal lake, the Chenab river itself is formed downstream at Tandi.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China.

Solution: C

• Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Mahadayi (Mandovi) River originates from a cluster of springs in the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

• Pair 4 is correctly matched. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies near Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Autonomous Region of China.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC): The committee is constituted every year and comprises members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, with representation from the latter being half of that from the former. The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and by convention, is a senior member from the treasury benches. The PAC’s primary function involves the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, based on the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches. Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches. Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance.

#### 9. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC):

• The committee is constituted every year and comprises members from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, with representation from the latter being half of that from the former.

• The Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and by convention, is a senior member from the treasury benches.

• The PAC’s primary function involves the examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, based on the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members, with 15 elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The representation from the Rajya Sabha (7) is close to half of that from the Lok Sabha (15). The members are elected annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Chairperson of the PAC is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, since 1967, the established convention is that the Chairperson is selected from the principal opposition party. This practice is a cornerstone of the committee’s role in ensuring non-partisan financial scrutiny of the government. The Chairperson is not from the treasury benches.

• Statement 3 is correct. A crucial mandate of the PAC is to scrutinize the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India thereon. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decisions and brings to light any instances of waste, loss, or extravagance.

Solution: B

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points With reference to the Chola administration, consider the following statements: The Kudavolai system was a method for electing officials for the central imperial court. The Uthiramerur inscriptions exclusively detail the Cholas’ maritime expeditions and trade guilds. Village assemblies like the ‘Ur’ and ‘Sabha’ were vested with significant autonomy in local governance, including land management and judicial functions. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kudavolai system, a unique electoral process using palm-leaf tickets, was used for selecting members of village committees and assemblies, not for officials of the central imperial court. It was a hallmark of local, not central, administration. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Chola inscriptions are a rich source of information, the Uthiramerur inscriptions are specifically famous for providing detailed rules and regulations for the functioning of the local Sabha, including the qualifications of members and the election process (Kudavolai), not for detailing maritime expeditions. Statement 3 is correct. The Chola administration is renowned for its system of local self-governance. Village assemblies, categorised as Ur (for regular villages) and Sabha or Mahasabha (for Brahmin-dominated villages or agrahara), were fundamental units of this decentralised structure. They held considerable power over local matters such as collecting revenue, maintaining irrigation systems, and resolving disputes, setting a historical precedent for grassroots democracy in India. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kudavolai system, a unique electoral process using palm-leaf tickets, was used for selecting members of village committees and assemblies, not for officials of the central imperial court. It was a hallmark of local, not central, administration. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Chola inscriptions are a rich source of information, the Uthiramerur inscriptions are specifically famous for providing detailed rules and regulations for the functioning of the local Sabha, including the qualifications of members and the election process (Kudavolai), not for detailing maritime expeditions. Statement 3 is correct. The Chola administration is renowned for its system of local self-governance. Village assemblies, categorised as Ur (for regular villages) and Sabha or Mahasabha (for Brahmin-dominated villages or agrahara), were fundamental units of this decentralised structure. They held considerable power over local matters such as collecting revenue, maintaining irrigation systems, and resolving disputes, setting a historical precedent for grassroots democracy in India.

#### 10. Question

With reference to the Chola administration, consider the following statements:

• The Kudavolai system was a method for electing officials for the central imperial court.

• The Uthiramerur inscriptions exclusively detail the Cholas’ maritime expeditions and trade guilds.

• Village assemblies like the ‘Ur’ and ‘Sabha’ were vested with significant autonomy in local governance, including land management and judicial functions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Kudavolai system, a unique electoral process using palm-leaf tickets, was used for selecting members of village committees and assemblies, not for officials of the central imperial court. It was a hallmark of local, not central, administration.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Chola inscriptions are a rich source of information, the Uthiramerur inscriptions are specifically famous for providing detailed rules and regulations for the functioning of the local Sabha, including the qualifications of members and the election process (Kudavolai), not for detailing maritime expeditions.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Chola administration is renowned for its system of local self-governance. Village assemblies, categorised as Ur (for regular villages) and Sabha or Mahasabha (for Brahmin-dominated villages or agrahara), were fundamental units of this decentralised structure. They held considerable power over local matters such as collecting revenue, maintaining irrigation systems, and resolving disputes, setting a historical precedent for grassroots democracy in India.

Solution: A

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