UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 22 December 2025

The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.

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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Which of the following ecological benefits are associated with Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary? Acting as a natural buffer against cyclones and coastal flooding. Supporting biodiversity by providing habitats for migratory and resident bird species. Promoting groundwater recharge through its brackish water system. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: C Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary provide significant ecological benefits: Natural Buffer Against Cyclones and Flooding: Pulicat Lake, as a coastal wetland, acts as a buffer, reducing the impact of cyclones and mitigating coastal flooding by absorbing excess water. Statement 1 is correct. Supporting Biodiversity: Both sites are critical habitats for numerous bird species, including migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks, making them vital for maintaining biodiversity. Statement 2 is correct. Groundwater Recharge: Brackish water systems like Pulicat Lake are not significant contributors to groundwater recharge due to the salinity of the water. Statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: C Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary provide significant ecological benefits: Natural Buffer Against Cyclones and Flooding: Pulicat Lake, as a coastal wetland, acts as a buffer, reducing the impact of cyclones and mitigating coastal flooding by absorbing excess water. Statement 1 is correct. Supporting Biodiversity: Both sites are critical habitats for numerous bird species, including migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks, making them vital for maintaining biodiversity. Statement 2 is correct. Groundwater Recharge: Brackish water systems like Pulicat Lake are not significant contributors to groundwater recharge due to the salinity of the water. Statement 3 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following ecological benefits are associated with Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary?

• Acting as a natural buffer against cyclones and coastal flooding.

• Supporting biodiversity by providing habitats for migratory and resident bird species.

• Promoting groundwater recharge through its brackish water system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• a) 2 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: C

Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary provide significant ecological benefits:

• Natural Buffer Against Cyclones and Flooding: Pulicat Lake, as a coastal wetland, acts as a buffer, reducing the impact of cyclones and mitigating coastal flooding by absorbing excess water. Statement 1 is correct.

• Supporting Biodiversity: Both sites are critical habitats for numerous bird species, including migratory birds like flamingos, pelicans, and storks, making them vital for maintaining biodiversity. Statement 2 is correct.

• Groundwater Recharge: Brackish water systems like Pulicat Lake are not significant contributors to groundwater recharge due to the salinity of the water. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution: C

Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary provide significant ecological benefits:

• Groundwater Recharge: Brackish water systems like Pulicat Lake are not significant contributors to groundwater recharge due to the salinity of the water. Statement 3 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO): It is an eastward-moving atmospheric disturbance that completes a global circuit every 30-60 days. Its formation is initiated by surface divergence of winds in the tropics. El Niño conditions can amplify or suppress MJO activity. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. MJO is an eastward-moving tropical atmospheric disturbance that typically completes a full circuit around the globe every 30–60 days. Statement 2 is incorrect. The formation process begins with surface convergence, not divergence, of winds. This convergence forces the air to rise, leading to condensation and cloud formation, which is the start of the enhanced convective phase. Surface divergence would lead to sinking air and suppressed conditions. Statement 3 is correct. Factors influencing MJO, including seasonal conditions like El Niño, which can amplify or suppress MJO activity. This highlights the complex interplay between different climate phenomena. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. MJO is an eastward-moving tropical atmospheric disturbance that typically completes a full circuit around the globe every 30–60 days. Statement 2 is incorrect. The formation process begins with surface convergence, not divergence, of winds. This convergence forces the air to rise, leading to condensation and cloud formation, which is the start of the enhanced convective phase. Surface divergence would lead to sinking air and suppressed conditions. Statement 3 is correct. Factors influencing MJO, including seasonal conditions like El Niño, which can amplify or suppress MJO activity. This highlights the complex interplay between different climate phenomena.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):

• It is an eastward-moving atmospheric disturbance that completes a global circuit every 30-60 days.

• Its formation is initiated by surface divergence of winds in the tropics.

• El Niño conditions can amplify or suppress MJO activity.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. MJO is an eastward-moving tropical atmospheric disturbance that typically completes a full circuit around the globe every 30–60 days.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The formation process begins with surface convergence, not divergence, of winds. This convergence forces the air to rise, leading to condensation and cloud formation, which is the start of the enhanced convective phase. Surface divergence would lead to sinking air and suppressed conditions.

• Statement 3 is correct. Factors influencing MJO, including seasonal conditions like El Niño, which can amplify or suppress MJO activity. This highlights the complex interplay between different climate phenomena.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. MJO is an eastward-moving tropical atmospheric disturbance that typically completes a full circuit around the globe every 30–60 days.

• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950: The Act applies to Indian citizens residing within India but not to those abroad. Prosecution for an offense under this Act requires the prior sanction of the Central Government. The Act prohibits the registration of trademarks or patents that bear any name or emblem specified in its Schedule. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act has extraterritorial jurisdiction. Its provisions apply across the whole of India and also to Indian citizens who are outside India. This prevents misuse of national symbols by citizens abroad. Statement 2 is correct: Section 6 of the Act contains a provision for mandatory prior sanction. No prosecution for any offense punishable under this Act can be initiated in any court without the previous sanction of the Central Government or an officer authorized by it. This acts as a safeguard against frivolous litigation. Statement 3 is correct: Section 4 of the Act places a clear ban on the registration of intellectual property that improperly uses a protected name or emblem. It directs competent authorities not to register any company, firm, or body of persons, or any trademark, design, or patent if it bears a symbol from the Schedule. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act has extraterritorial jurisdiction. Its provisions apply across the whole of India and also to Indian citizens who are outside India. This prevents misuse of national symbols by citizens abroad. Statement 2 is correct: Section 6 of the Act contains a provision for mandatory prior sanction. No prosecution for any offense punishable under this Act can be initiated in any court without the previous sanction of the Central Government or an officer authorized by it. This acts as a safeguard against frivolous litigation. Statement 3 is correct: Section 4 of the Act places a clear ban on the registration of intellectual property that improperly uses a protected name or emblem. It directs competent authorities not to register any company, firm, or body of persons, or any trademark, design, or patent if it bears a symbol from the Schedule.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950:

• The Act applies to Indian citizens residing within India but not to those abroad.

• Prosecution for an offense under this Act requires the prior sanction of the Central Government.

• The Act prohibits the registration of trademarks or patents that bear any name or emblem specified in its Schedule.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Act has extraterritorial jurisdiction. Its provisions apply across the whole of India and also to Indian citizens who are outside India. This prevents misuse of national symbols by citizens abroad.

• Statement 2 is correct: Section 6 of the Act contains a provision for mandatory prior sanction. No prosecution for any offense punishable under this Act can be initiated in any court without the previous sanction of the Central Government or an officer authorized by it. This acts as a safeguard against frivolous litigation.

• Statement 3 is correct: Section 4 of the Act places a clear ban on the registration of intellectual property that improperly uses a protected name or emblem. It directs competent authorities not to register any company, firm, or body of persons, or any trademark, design, or patent if it bears a symbol from the Schedule.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The calculation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India is based on the ‘A2+FL’ formula. What does ‘FL’ represent in this formula? a) Financial Liability of the farmer b) Family Logistics and transport expenses c) Fixed Land and capital costs d) Imputed value of unpaid family labour Correct Solution: D The ‘A2+FL’ formula is a method used by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) to estimate the cost of production for farmers. The ‘A2’ component includes all the actual paid-out costs incurred by the farmer in cash and kind on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation, etc. The ‘FL’ component represents the imputed value of unpaid family labour. This is a crucial addition as farming in India heavily relies on the labour contributed by the farmer’s own family members. By including ‘FL’, the formula provides a more comprehensive and realistic assessment of the farmer’s total production cost, acknowledging the economic value of their family’s contribution. Incorrect Solution: D The ‘A2+FL’ formula is a method used by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) to estimate the cost of production for farmers. The ‘A2’ component includes all the actual paid-out costs incurred by the farmer in cash and kind on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation, etc. The ‘FL’ component represents the imputed value of unpaid family labour. This is a crucial addition as farming in India heavily relies on the labour contributed by the farmer’s own family members. By including ‘FL’, the formula provides a more comprehensive and realistic assessment of the farmer’s total production cost, acknowledging the economic value of their family’s contribution.

#### 4. Question

The calculation of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India is based on the ‘A2+FL’ formula. What does ‘FL’ represent in this formula?

• a) Financial Liability of the farmer

• b) Family Logistics and transport expenses

• c) Fixed Land and capital costs

• d) Imputed value of unpaid family labour

Solution: D

The ‘A2+FL’ formula is a method used by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) to estimate the cost of production for farmers. The ‘A2’ component includes all the actual paid-out costs incurred by the farmer in cash and kind on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation, etc. The ‘FL’ component represents the imputed value of unpaid family labour. This is a crucial addition as farming in India heavily relies on the labour contributed by the farmer’s own family members. By including ‘FL’, the formula provides a more comprehensive and realistic assessment of the farmer’s total production cost, acknowledging the economic value of their family’s contribution.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points With reference to the Interpol Silver Notice, consider the following statements: It is a mandatory directive requiring member countries to immediately seize and repatriate assets upon issuance. The notice can be issued by any international law enforcement agency, including non-governmental organizations focused on financial crimes. The nodal agency for issuing and responding to these notices in India is the Enforcement Directorate (ED). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: An Interpol Silver Notice is an international alert for police cooperation, not a legally binding seizure order. It helps member countries identify and locate assets, but the actual freezing, seizure, or confiscation of those assets must be carried out in accordance with the domestic laws of the country where the assets are found. It facilitates legal cooperation but does not override national sovereignty. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the National Central Bureaus (NCBs) of Interpol’s 195 member countries can request the issuance of a Silver Notice. It cannot be issued by non-governmental organizations or other non-state entities. The information is vetted by Interpol’s General Secretariat before circulation. Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, the designated National Central Bureau and the single point of contact for all Interpol matters is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), not the Enforcement Directorate (ED). While the ED investigates financial crimes, all coordination with Interpol is routed through the CBI. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: An Interpol Silver Notice is an international alert for police cooperation, not a legally binding seizure order. It helps member countries identify and locate assets, but the actual freezing, seizure, or confiscation of those assets must be carried out in accordance with the domestic laws of the country where the assets are found. It facilitates legal cooperation but does not override national sovereignty. Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the National Central Bureaus (NCBs) of Interpol’s 195 member countries can request the issuance of a Silver Notice. It cannot be issued by non-governmental organizations or other non-state entities. The information is vetted by Interpol’s General Secretariat before circulation. Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, the designated National Central Bureau and the single point of contact for all Interpol matters is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), not the Enforcement Directorate (ED). While the ED investigates financial crimes, all coordination with Interpol is routed through the CBI.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Interpol Silver Notice, consider the following statements:

• It is a mandatory directive requiring member countries to immediately seize and repatriate assets upon issuance.

• The notice can be issued by any international law enforcement agency, including non-governmental organizations focused on financial crimes.

• The nodal agency for issuing and responding to these notices in India is the Enforcement Directorate (ED).

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect: An Interpol Silver Notice is an international alert for police cooperation, not a legally binding seizure order. It helps member countries identify and locate assets, but the actual freezing, seizure, or confiscation of those assets must be carried out in accordance with the domestic laws of the country where the assets are found. It facilitates legal cooperation but does not override national sovereignty.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the National Central Bureaus (NCBs) of Interpol’s 195 member countries can request the issuance of a Silver Notice. It cannot be issued by non-governmental organizations or other non-state entities. The information is vetted by Interpol’s General Secretariat before circulation.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, the designated National Central Bureau and the single point of contact for all Interpol matters is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), not the Enforcement Directorate (ED). While the ED investigates financial crimes, all coordination with Interpol is routed through the CBI.

Solution: C

• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India (QCI). Statement-I: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is structured as a Public-Private Partnership (PPP). Statement-II: The primary objective of QCI is to enforce mandatory quality standards on all products and services produced in India through statutory powers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Quality Council of India (QCI) was deliberately established with a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Its governance structure involves collaboration between the government and key industry associations like the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI), and the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM). This structure is designed to leverage industry expertise and ensure wider acceptance of quality initiatives. Statement-II is incorrect. QCI is an accreditation and quality promotion body, not a statutory enforcement authority. Its role is to establish a credible accreditation system, provide third-party assessments, and run national quality campaigns. It does not have the legal power to enforce mandatory standards on all products and services. That power rests with regulatory bodies like the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) or the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). QCI’s approach is based on voluntary accreditation and assessment to build a “quality culture.” Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Quality Council of India (QCI) was deliberately established with a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Its governance structure involves collaboration between the government and key industry associations like the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI), and the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM). This structure is designed to leverage industry expertise and ensure wider acceptance of quality initiatives. Statement-II is incorrect. QCI is an accreditation and quality promotion body, not a statutory enforcement authority. Its role is to establish a credible accreditation system, provide third-party assessments, and run national quality campaigns. It does not have the legal power to enforce mandatory standards on all products and services. That power rests with regulatory bodies like the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) or the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). QCI’s approach is based on voluntary accreditation and assessment to build a “quality culture.”

#### 6. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India (QCI).

Statement-I: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is structured as a Public-Private Partnership (PPP).

Statement-II: The primary objective of QCI is to enforce mandatory quality standards on all products and services produced in India through statutory powers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct. The Quality Council of India (QCI) was deliberately established with a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model. Its governance structure involves collaboration between the government and key industry associations like the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI), and the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM). This structure is designed to leverage industry expertise and ensure wider acceptance of quality initiatives.

Statement-II is incorrect. QCI is an accreditation and quality promotion body, not a statutory enforcement authority. Its role is to establish a credible accreditation system, provide third-party assessments, and run national quality campaigns. It does not have the legal power to enforce mandatory standards on all products and services. That power rests with regulatory bodies like the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) or the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). QCI’s approach is based on voluntary accreditation and assessment to build a “quality culture.”

Solution: C

• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023: Statement-I: The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023, aims to promote ‘jointness’ and ‘integration’ among the three services of the armed forces. Statement-II: The Act grants the Commander-in-Chief of an Inter-Services Organisation the authority to deploy personnel from any service to any operational theatre without consulting the respective service chiefs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The explicit objective of the ISO Act is to enhance jointness and integration. By providing a unified command and control structure within tri-service organizations, it promotes synergy, efficient resource utilization, and operational cohesion among the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Statement-II is incorrect. The Act’s scope is specifically limited to command, control, and discipline. It empowers ISO heads with disciplinary and administrative authority over the personnel serving within that specific organization. It does not grant them overarching powers related to the large-scale operational deployment of forces or strategic command, which remain under the purview of the service chiefs and the broader national security architecture. The Act is about internal administration within ISOs, not a complete overhaul of military command structures. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The explicit objective of the ISO Act is to enhance jointness and integration. By providing a unified command and control structure within tri-service organizations, it promotes synergy, efficient resource utilization, and operational cohesion among the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Statement-II is incorrect. The Act’s scope is specifically limited to command, control, and discipline. It empowers ISO heads with disciplinary and administrative authority over the personnel serving within that specific organization. It does not grant them overarching powers related to the large-scale operational deployment of forces or strategic command, which remain under the purview of the service chiefs and the broader national security architecture. The Act is about internal administration within ISOs, not a complete overhaul of military command structures.

#### 7. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023:

Statement-I: The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2023, aims to promote ‘jointness’ and ‘integration’ among the three services of the armed forces.

Statement-II: The Act grants the Commander-in-Chief of an Inter-Services Organisation the authority to deploy personnel from any service to any operational theatre without consulting the respective service chiefs.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The explicit objective of the ISO Act is to enhance jointness and integration. By providing a unified command and control structure within tri-service organizations, it promotes synergy, efficient resource utilization, and operational cohesion among the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The Act’s scope is specifically limited to command, control, and discipline. It empowers ISO heads with disciplinary and administrative authority over the personnel serving within that specific organization. It does not grant them overarching powers related to the large-scale operational deployment of forces or strategic command, which remain under the purview of the service chiefs and the broader national security architecture. The Act is about internal administration within ISOs, not a complete overhaul of military command structures.

Solution: C

• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the causes of landslides in India: The continuous tectonic movement of the Indian plate is a significant geological factor contributing to the fragility of rock structures in the Himalayas. Anthropogenic activities such as unregulated urbanisation and road construction have a negligible impact on slope stability. Intense and prolonged rainfall is a primary trigger for debris flows, particularly in the Western Ghats and Himalayan regions. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Indian tectonic plate is continuously moving northwards and colliding with the Eurasian plate at a rate of approximately 5 cm per year. This immense geological pressure makes the Himalayas tectonically active and geologically fragile. The constant stress leads to weak rock structures, seismic activity, and fractured terrains, which are inherently susceptible to mass movements like landslides. Statement 2 is incorrect. Anthropogenic (human-induced) activities have a significant, not negligible, impact on slope stability. Activities such as deforestation (which removes the binding root systems), unregulated construction on slopes (which adds weight and alters drainage), and improper road construction and mining (which involves blasting and undercutting slopes) destabilize the natural soil and rock layers, making them highly prone to failure. Statement 3 is correct. Heavy rainfall is a major triggering factor for landslides in India. Intense and prolonged precipitation saturates the soil and rock, increasing its weight and pore water pressure. This reduces the frictional strength of the slope material, often leading to failure. Debris flows, a common and dangerous type of landslide, are frequently initiated by such rainfall events, especially during the monsoon season in the steep terrains of the Western Ghats and the Himalayas. What is a Landslide? A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference. India’s Vulnerability: Around 15% of India’s landmass is landslide-prone (NDMA), especially the Himalayas, North-East, Western Ghats, and Nilgiris. Types of Landslides in India: Debris Flow: Common during monsoon in Western Ghats and Himalayas. Rockfalls: Observed in steep Himalayan terrains. Creeping Landslides: Slow and progressive, seen in Sikkim and Darjeeling. Causes of Landslides in India: Geological Factors: Fragile rock structures due to tectonic movement of the Indian plate at ~5 cm/year (Geological Survey of India). Heavy Rainfall: Intense and prolonged rainfall triggers slope failures, e.g., Malpha (Pithoragarh) and Okhimath (Chamoli). Seismic Activity: Earthquakes in Himalayan zones weaken slopes and trigger landslides. Deforestation & Urbanisation: Removal of vegetation and unregulated construction destabilizes soil layers. Road Construction & Mining: Blasting and excavation alter natural slopes, making them prone to collapse. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Indian tectonic plate is continuously moving northwards and colliding with the Eurasian plate at a rate of approximately 5 cm per year. This immense geological pressure makes the Himalayas tectonically active and geologically fragile. The constant stress leads to weak rock structures, seismic activity, and fractured terrains, which are inherently susceptible to mass movements like landslides. Statement 2 is incorrect. Anthropogenic (human-induced) activities have a significant, not negligible, impact on slope stability. Activities such as deforestation (which removes the binding root systems), unregulated construction on slopes (which adds weight and alters drainage), and improper road construction and mining (which involves blasting and undercutting slopes) destabilize the natural soil and rock layers, making them highly prone to failure. Statement 3 is correct. Heavy rainfall is a major triggering factor for landslides in India. Intense and prolonged precipitation saturates the soil and rock, increasing its weight and pore water pressure. This reduces the frictional strength of the slope material, often leading to failure. Debris flows, a common and dangerous type of landslide, are frequently initiated by such rainfall events, especially during the monsoon season in the steep terrains of the Western Ghats and the Himalayas. What is a Landslide? A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference. India’s Vulnerability: Around 15% of India’s landmass is landslide-prone (NDMA), especially the Himalayas, North-East, Western Ghats, and Nilgiris. Types of Landslides in India: Debris Flow: Common during monsoon in Western Ghats and Himalayas. Rockfalls: Observed in steep Himalayan terrains. Creeping Landslides: Slow and progressive, seen in Sikkim and Darjeeling. Causes of Landslides in India: Geological Factors: Fragile rock structures due to tectonic movement of the Indian plate at ~5 cm/year (Geological Survey of India). Heavy Rainfall: Intense and prolonged rainfall triggers slope failures, e.g., Malpha (Pithoragarh) and Okhimath (Chamoli). Seismic Activity: Earthquakes in Himalayan zones weaken slopes and trigger landslides. Deforestation & Urbanisation: Removal of vegetation and unregulated construction destabilizes soil layers. Road Construction & Mining: Blasting and excavation alter natural slopes, making them prone to collapse.

#### 8. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the causes of landslides in India:

• The continuous tectonic movement of the Indian plate is a significant geological factor contributing to the fragility of rock structures in the Himalayas.

• Anthropogenic activities such as unregulated urbanisation and road construction have a negligible impact on slope stability.

• Intense and prolonged rainfall is a primary trigger for debris flows, particularly in the Western Ghats and Himalayan regions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 3 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Indian tectonic plate is continuously moving northwards and colliding with the Eurasian plate at a rate of approximately 5 cm per year. This immense geological pressure makes the Himalayas tectonically active and geologically fragile. The constant stress leads to weak rock structures, seismic activity, and fractured terrains, which are inherently susceptible to mass movements like landslides.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Anthropogenic (human-induced) activities have a significant, not negligible, impact on slope stability. Activities such as deforestation (which removes the binding root systems), unregulated construction on slopes (which adds weight and alters drainage), and improper road construction and mining (which involves blasting and undercutting slopes) destabilize the natural soil and rock layers, making them highly prone to failure.

• Statement 3 is correct. Heavy rainfall is a major triggering factor for landslides in India. Intense and prolonged precipitation saturates the soil and rock, increasing its weight and pore water pressure. This reduces the frictional strength of the slope material, often leading to failure. Debris flows, a common and dangerous type of landslide, are frequently initiated by such rainfall events, especially during the monsoon season in the steep terrains of the Western Ghats and the Himalayas.

• What is a Landslide? A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference.

• A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference.

• India’s Vulnerability: Around 15% of India’s landmass is landslide-prone (NDMA), especially the Himalayas, North-East, Western Ghats, and Nilgiris.

• Types of Landslides in India: Debris Flow: Common during monsoon in Western Ghats and Himalayas. Rockfalls: Observed in steep Himalayan terrains. Creeping Landslides: Slow and progressive, seen in Sikkim and Darjeeling.

• Debris Flow: Common during monsoon in Western Ghats and Himalayas.

• Rockfalls: Observed in steep Himalayan terrains.

• Creeping Landslides: Slow and progressive, seen in Sikkim and Darjeeling.

Causes of Landslides in India:

• Geological Factors: Fragile rock structures due to tectonic movement of the Indian plate at ~5 cm/year (Geological Survey of India).

• Heavy Rainfall: Intense and prolonged rainfall triggers slope failures, e.g., Malpha (Pithoragarh) and Okhimath (Chamoli).

• Seismic Activity: Earthquakes in Himalayan zones weaken slopes and trigger landslides.

• Deforestation & Urbanisation: Removal of vegetation and unregulated construction destabilizes soil layers.

• Road Construction & Mining: Blasting and excavation alter natural slopes, making them prone to collapse.

Solution: B

• What is a Landslide? A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference.

• A landslide is the sudden downward movement of rock, earth, or debris due to gravity, often triggered by heavy rainfall, seismic activity, or human interference.

• India’s Vulnerability: Around 15% of India’s landmass is landslide-prone (NDMA), especially the Himalayas, North-East, Western Ghats, and Nilgiris.

• Debris Flow: Common during monsoon in Western Ghats and Himalayas.

• Rockfalls: Observed in steep Himalayan terrains.

• Creeping Landslides: Slow and progressive, seen in Sikkim and Darjeeling.

Causes of Landslides in India:

• Geological Factors: Fragile rock structures due to tectonic movement of the Indian plate at ~5 cm/year (Geological Survey of India).

• Heavy Rainfall: Intense and prolonged rainfall triggers slope failures, e.g., Malpha (Pithoragarh) and Okhimath (Chamoli).

• Seismic Activity: Earthquakes in Himalayan zones weaken slopes and trigger landslides.

• Deforestation & Urbanisation: Removal of vegetation and unregulated construction destabilizes soil layers.

• Road Construction & Mining: Blasting and excavation alter natural slopes, making them prone to collapse.

• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points With reference to the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) guidelines for landslide management, consider the following measures: Preparation of Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) maps. Discouraging any form of construction or excavation in highly vulnerable zones. Focusing exclusively on post-disaster relief and compensation. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of NDMA’s strategy is proactive risk assessment. This involves the creation of Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) maps, which classify land areas based on their degree of susceptibility to landslides. These maps are critical for urban planning, infrastructure development, and issuing warnings. Statement 2 is correct. The guidelines emphasize mitigation and prevention through land-use regulation. This includes enforcing norms that restrict or prohibit new construction in zones identified as highly vulnerable on LHZ maps. The aim is to prevent the creation of new risks. The guidelines also advocate for strict regulations on excavation and the implementation of slope stability measures like retaining walls. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines promote a holistic and multi-pronged approach that covers all phases of the disaster management cycle, not just the post-disaster phase. The focus is heavily on pre-disaster measures, including hazard mapping, early warning systems, preparedness, capacity building, and infrastructure measures like slope re-engineering and afforestation. NDMA Guidelines for Landslide Management: Hazard Zonation Maps: LHZ maps at 1:50,000 scale being prepared by NRSC, IITs, DST. E.g., NRSC Atlas for Uttarakhand corridors. Early Warning Systems (EWS): Use of real-time monitoring, stress sensors, remote sensing, and GIS for timely alerts. Land Use Regulation: No construction in vulnerable zones, excavation norms, and slope stability measures like rock bolting and retaining walls. Preparedness & Capacity Building: Disaster training in schools, simulation drills, and awareness campaigns in hilly districts. Infrastructure Measures: Drainage improvement, vegetation cover restoration, and slope reengineering. Insurance & Compensation: Encouraging landslide insurance and quick relief disbursals to affected families. Research & Development: DST supports over 30 research projects to improve landslide prediction and mitigation technologies. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of NDMA’s strategy is proactive risk assessment. This involves the creation of Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) maps, which classify land areas based on their degree of susceptibility to landslides. These maps are critical for urban planning, infrastructure development, and issuing warnings. Statement 2 is correct. The guidelines emphasize mitigation and prevention through land-use regulation. This includes enforcing norms that restrict or prohibit new construction in zones identified as highly vulnerable on LHZ maps. The aim is to prevent the creation of new risks. The guidelines also advocate for strict regulations on excavation and the implementation of slope stability measures like retaining walls. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines promote a holistic and multi-pronged approach that covers all phases of the disaster management cycle, not just the post-disaster phase. The focus is heavily on pre-disaster measures, including hazard mapping, early warning systems, preparedness, capacity building, and infrastructure measures like slope re-engineering and afforestation. NDMA Guidelines for Landslide Management: Hazard Zonation Maps: LHZ maps at 1:50,000 scale being prepared by NRSC, IITs, DST. E.g., NRSC Atlas for Uttarakhand corridors. Early Warning Systems (EWS): Use of real-time monitoring, stress sensors, remote sensing, and GIS for timely alerts. Land Use Regulation: No construction in vulnerable zones, excavation norms, and slope stability measures like rock bolting and retaining walls. Preparedness & Capacity Building: Disaster training in schools, simulation drills, and awareness campaigns in hilly districts. Infrastructure Measures: Drainage improvement, vegetation cover restoration, and slope reengineering. Insurance & Compensation: Encouraging landslide insurance and quick relief disbursals to affected families. Research & Development: DST supports over 30 research projects to improve landslide prediction and mitigation technologies.

#### 9. Question

With reference to the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) guidelines for landslide management, consider the following measures:

• Preparation of Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) maps.

• Discouraging any form of construction or excavation in highly vulnerable zones.

• Focusing exclusively on post-disaster relief and compensation.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. A cornerstone of NDMA’s strategy is proactive risk assessment. This involves the creation of Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) maps, which classify land areas based on their degree of susceptibility to landslides. These maps are critical for urban planning, infrastructure development, and issuing warnings.

• Statement 2 is correct. The guidelines emphasize mitigation and prevention through land-use regulation. This includes enforcing norms that restrict or prohibit new construction in zones identified as highly vulnerable on LHZ maps. The aim is to prevent the creation of new risks. The guidelines also advocate for strict regulations on excavation and the implementation of slope stability measures like retaining walls.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The NDMA guidelines promote a holistic and multi-pronged approach that covers all phases of the disaster management cycle, not just the post-disaster phase. The focus is heavily on pre-disaster measures, including hazard mapping, early warning systems, preparedness, capacity building, and infrastructure measures like slope re-engineering and afforestation.

NDMA Guidelines for Landslide Management:

• Hazard Zonation Maps: LHZ maps at 1:50,000 scale being prepared by NRSC, IITs, DST.

E.g., NRSC Atlas for Uttarakhand corridors.

• Early Warning Systems (EWS): Use of real-time monitoring, stress sensors, remote sensing, and GIS for timely alerts.

• Land Use Regulation: No construction in vulnerable zones, excavation norms, and slope stability measures like rock bolting and retaining walls.

• Preparedness & Capacity Building: Disaster training in schools, simulation drills, and awareness campaigns in hilly districts.

• Infrastructure Measures: Drainage improvement, vegetation cover restoration, and slope reengineering.

• Insurance & Compensation: Encouraging landslide insurance and quick relief disbursals to affected families.

• Research & Development: DST supports over 30 research projects to improve landslide prediction and mitigation technologies.

Solution: A

NDMA Guidelines for Landslide Management:

• Hazard Zonation Maps: LHZ maps at 1:50,000 scale being prepared by NRSC, IITs, DST.

E.g., NRSC Atlas for Uttarakhand corridors.

• Early Warning Systems (EWS): Use of real-time monitoring, stress sensors, remote sensing, and GIS for timely alerts.

• Land Use Regulation: No construction in vulnerable zones, excavation norms, and slope stability measures like rock bolting and retaining walls.

• Preparedness & Capacity Building: Disaster training in schools, simulation drills, and awareness campaigns in hilly districts.

• Infrastructure Measures: Drainage improvement, vegetation cover restoration, and slope reengineering.

• Insurance & Compensation: Encouraging landslide insurance and quick relief disbursals to affected families.

• Research & Development: DST supports over 30 research projects to improve landslide prediction and mitigation technologies.

• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Match the following items: Column A (Landslide Type) Column B (Common Region in India) Column C (Characteristic) 1. Debris Flow A. Sikkim and Darjeeling i. Slow and progressive movement 2. Rockfalls B. Western Ghats ii. Triggered by monsoon rainfall 3. Creeping Landslides C. Steep Himalayan Terrains iii. Sudden detachment from steep cliffs Select the correct answer code: (a) 1-B-i, 2-A-iii, 3-C-ii (b) 1-C-i, 2-A-ii, 3-B-iii (c) 1-A-iii, 2-B-i, 3-C-ii (d) 1-B-ii, 2-C-iii, 3-A-i Correct Solution: D Debris Flow (1) is most common in the Western Ghats (B) and Himalayas, often triggered by intense monsoon rainfall (ii). These are fast-moving landslides that are a mixture of water, rock, and soil, behaving like a flow of wet concrete. So, 1-B-ii is a correct combination. Rockfalls (2) are characterized by the sudden detachment of rocks from steep cliffs (iii). This phenomenon is frequently observed in the very steep terrains of the Himalayas (C), where geological fragility and weathering processes contribute to the instability of rock faces. So, 2-C-iii is a correct combination. Creeping Landslides (3), involve slow and progressive downward movement (i) of slope material. This type of landslide is notably observed in regions like Sikkim and Darjeeling (A), where the soil and geological conditions are conducive to this gradual deformation over time. So, 3-A-i is a correct combination. Incorrect Solution: D Debris Flow (1) is most common in the Western Ghats (B) and Himalayas, often triggered by intense monsoon rainfall (ii). These are fast-moving landslides that are a mixture of water, rock, and soil, behaving like a flow of wet concrete. So, 1-B-ii is a correct combination. Rockfalls (2) are characterized by the sudden detachment of rocks from steep cliffs (iii). This phenomenon is frequently observed in the very steep terrains of the Himalayas (C), where geological fragility and weathering processes contribute to the instability of rock faces. So, 2-C-iii is a correct combination. Creeping Landslides (3), involve slow and progressive downward movement (i) of slope material. This type of landslide is notably observed in regions like Sikkim and Darjeeling (A), where the soil and geological conditions are conducive to this gradual deformation over time. So, 3-A-i is a correct combination.

#### 10. Question

Match the following items:

Column A (Landslide Type) | Column B (Common Region in India) | Column C (Characteristic)

1.Debris Flow | A. Sikkim and Darjeeling | i. Slow and progressive movement
2.Rockfalls | B. Western Ghats | ii. Triggered by monsoon rainfall
3.Creeping Landslides | C. Steep Himalayan Terrains | iii. Sudden detachment from steep cliffs

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 1-B-i, 2-A-iii, 3-C-ii

• (b) 1-C-i, 2-A-ii, 3-B-iii

• (c) 1-A-iii, 2-B-i, 3-C-ii

• (d) 1-B-ii, 2-C-iii, 3-A-i

Solution: D

• Debris Flow (1) is most common in the Western Ghats (B) and Himalayas, often triggered by intense monsoon rainfall (ii). These are fast-moving landslides that are a mixture of water, rock, and soil, behaving like a flow of wet concrete. So, 1-B-ii is a correct combination.

• Rockfalls (2) are characterized by the sudden detachment of rocks from steep cliffs (iii). This phenomenon is frequently observed in the very steep terrains of the Himalayas (C), where geological fragility and weathering processes contribute to the instability of rock faces. So, 2-C-iii is a correct combination.

• Creeping Landslides (3), involve slow and progressive downward movement (i) of slope material. This type of landslide is notably observed in regions like Sikkim and Darjeeling (A), where the soil and geological conditions are conducive to this gradual deformation over time. So, 3-A-i is a correct combination.

Solution: D

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