UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 May 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
#### Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
#### Information
Best of luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
Your score |
#### Categories
• Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result
Table is loading
No data available
| | | |
• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) in India: The scheme is implemented by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Only startups in the manufacturing sector recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible. The scheme provides both transaction-based and umbrella-based guarantee covers. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd. (NCGTC), which manages the Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups (CGFS). The scheme is notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. SIDBI is involved in various startup funding initiatives but is not the direct implementer of CGSS in this context. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CGSS is open to DPIIT-recognized startups across various sectors, including technology, manufacturing, and services, not just the manufacturing sector. The scheme aims to support innovation-driven entrepreneurship broadly. Statement 3 is correct. The CGSS provides two types of guarantees covers: transaction-based guarantee cover (applied to specific loans for individual startups) and umbrella-based guarantee cover (applied to pooled investments by venture debt funds in multiple startups). This offers flexibility in how credit guarantees are structured. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd. (NCGTC), which manages the Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups (CGFS). The scheme is notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. SIDBI is involved in various startup funding initiatives but is not the direct implementer of CGSS in this context. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CGSS is open to DPIIT-recognized startups across various sectors, including technology, manufacturing, and services, not just the manufacturing sector. The scheme aims to support innovation-driven entrepreneurship broadly. Statement 3 is correct. The CGSS provides two types of guarantees covers: transaction-based guarantee cover (applied to specific loans for individual startups) and umbrella-based guarantee cover (applied to pooled investments by venture debt funds in multiple startups). This offers flexibility in how credit guarantees are structured.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) in India:
• The scheme is implemented by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
• Only startups in the manufacturing sector recognized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) are eligible.
• The scheme provides both transaction-based and umbrella-based guarantee covers.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd. (NCGTC), which manages the Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups (CGFS). The scheme is notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. SIDBI is involved in various startup funding initiatives but is not the direct implementer of CGSS in this context.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The CGSS is open to DPIIT-recognized startups across various sectors, including technology, manufacturing, and services, not just the manufacturing sector. The scheme aims to support innovation-driven entrepreneurship broadly.
• Statement 3 is correct. The CGSS provides two types of guarantees covers: transaction-based guarantee cover (applied to specific loans for individual startups) and umbrella-based guarantee cover (applied to pooled investments by venture debt funds in multiple startups). This offers flexibility in how credit guarantees are structured.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd. (NCGTC), which manages the Credit Guarantee Fund for Startups (CGFS). The scheme is notified by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. SIDBI is involved in various startup funding initiatives but is not the direct implementer of CGSS in this context.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The CGSS is open to DPIIT-recognized startups across various sectors, including technology, manufacturing, and services, not just the manufacturing sector. The scheme aims to support innovation-driven entrepreneurship broadly.
• Statement 3 is correct. The CGSS provides two types of guarantees covers: transaction-based guarantee cover (applied to specific loans for individual startups) and umbrella-based guarantee cover (applied to pooled investments by venture debt funds in multiple startups). This offers flexibility in how credit guarantees are structured.
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding IMF’s Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF, and its value is based on a basket of five currencies: the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and Indian Rupee. A general allocation of SDRs by the IMF to its member countries creates an interest-bearing reserve asset for the members. Member countries can only hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves and cannot use them for other transactions like loan repayments or payment of obligations to the IMF. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The SDR’s value is indeed based on a basket of five currencies, but these are the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and the British Pound Sterling. The Indian Rupee is not part of the SDR basket. Statement 2 is correct. An SDR allocation provides member countries with unconditional liquidity in the form of an interest-bearing reserve asset (SDR holding). Simultaneously, it creates a corresponding long-term liability (SDR allocation) of the member to the IMF’s SDR Department. This is not a loan in the conventional sense but a supplement to existing reserve assets. Statement 3 is incorrect. While member countries can hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves, they have more flexibility. They can sell or exchange their SDRs for freely usable currencies, or use them for a range of other authorized operations, including the repayment of loans, payment of obligations to the IMF (like interest or quota payments), pledges, and in transactions among themselves. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. The SDR’s value is indeed based on a basket of five currencies, but these are the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and the British Pound Sterling. The Indian Rupee is not part of the SDR basket. Statement 2 is correct. An SDR allocation provides member countries with unconditional liquidity in the form of an interest-bearing reserve asset (SDR holding). Simultaneously, it creates a corresponding long-term liability (SDR allocation) of the member to the IMF’s SDR Department. This is not a loan in the conventional sense but a supplement to existing reserve assets. Statement 3 is incorrect. While member countries can hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves, they have more flexibility. They can sell or exchange their SDRs for freely usable currencies, or use them for a range of other authorized operations, including the repayment of loans, payment of obligations to the IMF (like interest or quota payments), pledges, and in transactions among themselves.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding IMF’s Special Drawing Rights (SDRs):
• The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF, and its value is based on a basket of five currencies: the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and Indian Rupee.
• A general allocation of SDRs by the IMF to its member countries creates an interest-bearing reserve asset for the members.
• Member countries can only hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves and cannot use them for other transactions like loan repayments or payment of obligations to the IMF.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The SDR’s value is indeed based on a basket of five currencies, but these are the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and the British Pound Sterling. The Indian Rupee is not part of the SDR basket.
• Statement 2 is correct. An SDR allocation provides member countries with unconditional liquidity in the form of an interest-bearing reserve asset (SDR holding). Simultaneously, it creates a corresponding long-term liability (SDR allocation) of the member to the IMF’s SDR Department. This is not a loan in the conventional sense but a supplement to existing reserve assets.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While member countries can hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves, they have more flexibility. They can sell or exchange their SDRs for freely usable currencies, or use them for a range of other authorized operations, including the repayment of loans, payment of obligations to the IMF (like interest or quota payments), pledges, and in transactions among themselves.
Solution: a)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The SDR’s value is indeed based on a basket of five currencies, but these are the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and the British Pound Sterling. The Indian Rupee is not part of the SDR basket.
• Statement 2 is correct. An SDR allocation provides member countries with unconditional liquidity in the form of an interest-bearing reserve asset (SDR holding). Simultaneously, it creates a corresponding long-term liability (SDR allocation) of the member to the IMF’s SDR Department. This is not a loan in the conventional sense but a supplement to existing reserve assets.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While member countries can hold their allocated SDRs as part of their foreign exchange reserves, they have more flexibility. They can sell or exchange their SDRs for freely usable currencies, or use them for a range of other authorized operations, including the repayment of loans, payment of obligations to the IMF (like interest or quota payments), pledges, and in transactions among themselves.
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements about Thalassemia: Thalassemia major, a severe form of the disease, usually manifests after the age of five and is primarily managed by dietary supplements. A complete blood count (CBC) and special hemoglobin tests are key diagnostic methods for thalassemia. Gene therapy, including techniques like CRISPR/Cas9, represents an emerging curative treatment option for thalassemia. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Thalassemia major, a severe and life-threatening form of anemia, typically manifests within the first two years of life, not after five. Its management is complex, primarily involving regular blood transfusions and iron chelation therapy to manage iron overload, not just dietary supplements. Bone marrow transplantation is a curative option for some. Statement 2 is correct. Diagnostic methods for thalassemia include a Complete Blood Count (CBC), which can reveal fewer healthy red blood cells, lower hemoglobin, and smaller red blood cells. Special hemoglobin tests, such as High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), measure the types of hemoglobin in the blood and are crucial for confirming the diagnosis and type of thalassemia. Genetic testing can identify specific gene mutations. Statement 3 is correct. Gene therapy is an advanced and promising curative treatment approach for thalassemia. This includes methods like introducing a functional globin gene via lentiviral vectors or using gene-editing technologies such as CRISPR/Cas9 to correct the genetic defect or reactivate fetal hemoglobin production. Several such therapies are in clinical trial stages and have shown potential in making patients transfusion-independent. What is Thalassemia? Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery. It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia. Caused By: Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta). Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major). Types of Thalassemia: Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes: Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms) Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions) Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. Thalassemia major, a severe and life-threatening form of anemia, typically manifests within the first two years of life, not after five. Its management is complex, primarily involving regular blood transfusions and iron chelation therapy to manage iron overload, not just dietary supplements. Bone marrow transplantation is a curative option for some. Statement 2 is correct. Diagnostic methods for thalassemia include a Complete Blood Count (CBC), which can reveal fewer healthy red blood cells, lower hemoglobin, and smaller red blood cells. Special hemoglobin tests, such as High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), measure the types of hemoglobin in the blood and are crucial for confirming the diagnosis and type of thalassemia. Genetic testing can identify specific gene mutations. Statement 3 is correct. Gene therapy is an advanced and promising curative treatment approach for thalassemia. This includes methods like introducing a functional globin gene via lentiviral vectors or using gene-editing technologies such as CRISPR/Cas9 to correct the genetic defect or reactivate fetal hemoglobin production. Several such therapies are in clinical trial stages and have shown potential in making patients transfusion-independent. What is Thalassemia? Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery. It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia. Caused By: Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta). Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major). Types of Thalassemia: Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes: Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms) Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions) Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about Thalassemia:
• Thalassemia major, a severe form of the disease, usually manifests after the age of five and is primarily managed by dietary supplements.
• A complete blood count (CBC) and special hemoglobin tests are key diagnostic methods for thalassemia.
• Gene therapy, including techniques like CRISPR/Cas9, represents an emerging curative treatment option for thalassemia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 1 and 3 only
• (c) 1, 2 and 3
• (d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Thalassemia major, a severe and life-threatening form of anemia, typically manifests within the first two years of life, not after five. Its management is complex, primarily involving regular blood transfusions and iron chelation therapy to manage iron overload, not just dietary supplements. Bone marrow transplantation is a curative option for some.
Statement 2 is correct. Diagnostic methods for thalassemia include a Complete Blood Count (CBC), which can reveal fewer healthy red blood cells, lower hemoglobin, and smaller red blood cells. Special hemoglobin tests, such as High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), measure the types of hemoglobin in the blood and are crucial for confirming the diagnosis and type of thalassemia. Genetic testing can identify specific gene mutations.
Statement 3 is correct. Gene therapy is an advanced and promising curative treatment approach for thalassemia. This includes methods like introducing a functional globin gene via lentiviral vectors or using gene-editing technologies such as CRISPR/Cas9 to correct the genetic defect or reactivate fetal hemoglobin production. Several such therapies are in clinical trial stages and have shown potential in making patients transfusion-independent.
• What is Thalassemia? Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery. It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia.
• Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery.
• It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia.
• Caused By: Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta). Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major).
• Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta).
• Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major).
• Types of Thalassemia: Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes: Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms) Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions) Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath
• Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African
• Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing.
• Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African
• Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes:
• Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene.
• Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent.
• Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms)
• Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions)
• Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath
Solution: d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Thalassemia major, a severe and life-threatening form of anemia, typically manifests within the first two years of life, not after five. Its management is complex, primarily involving regular blood transfusions and iron chelation therapy to manage iron overload, not just dietary supplements. Bone marrow transplantation is a curative option for some.
Statement 2 is correct. Diagnostic methods for thalassemia include a Complete Blood Count (CBC), which can reveal fewer healthy red blood cells, lower hemoglobin, and smaller red blood cells. Special hemoglobin tests, such as High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC), measure the types of hemoglobin in the blood and are crucial for confirming the diagnosis and type of thalassemia. Genetic testing can identify specific gene mutations.
Statement 3 is correct. Gene therapy is an advanced and promising curative treatment approach for thalassemia. This includes methods like introducing a functional globin gene via lentiviral vectors or using gene-editing technologies such as CRISPR/Cas9 to correct the genetic defect or reactivate fetal hemoglobin production. Several such therapies are in clinical trial stages and have shown potential in making patients transfusion-independent.
• What is Thalassemia? Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery. It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia.
• Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorderwhere the body produces insufficient or abnormal haemoglobin, impairing oxygen delivery.
• It is one of the most common single-gene disordersglobally, especially prevalent in South Asia.
• Caused By: Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta). Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major).
• Result of mutations or deletions in genesthat produce haemoglobin chains (alpha or beta).
• Passed genetically from both parents, either as a carrier (minor) or a full expression (major).
• Types of Thalassemia: Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes: Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms) Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions) Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath
• Alpha Thalassemia: Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing. Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African
• Involves up to 4 gene deletions; severity depends on how many are missing.
• Most common in people of Southeast Asian, Middle Eastern, and African
• Beta Thalassemia: Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene. Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent. Includes:
• Caused by mutations in the beta-globin gene.
• Prevalent among people of Mediterranean, South Asian, and Chinese descent.
• Thalassemia Minor(carrier, mild or no symptoms)
• Thalassemia Major / Cooley Anaemia(severe form needing lifelong transfusions)
• Symptoms:Fatigue and weakness, Pale or yellow skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Growth retardation, Enlarged spleen and liver, and Shortness of breath
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points Match the Jan Suraksha Scheme in Column I with its correct feature in Column II: Column I (Scheme) Column II (Feature) 1. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) A. Offers a guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after age 60. 2. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) B. Provides life cover of ₹2 Lakh for death due to any reason. 3. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) C. Offers accidental death and disability cover of ₹2 Lakh. Select the correct match: (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A Correct Solution: d) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme that provides a life cover of ₹2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason, for individuals in the age group of 18-50 years, at an annual premium of ₹436. So, 1 matches with B. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme that offers accidental death cum disability cover of ₹2 Lakh (₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability) for individuals aged 18-70 years, at an annual premium of ₹20. So, 2 matches with C. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme primarily for the unorganized sector, which offers subscribers a fixed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 starting at the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution. So, 3 matches with A. Comparative Features of Jan Suraksha Schemes Feature Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Target Age Group for Enrollment 18-50 years (cover up to 55 years) 18-70 years 18-40 years (pension starts at 60) Annual Premium/Contribution Basis ₹436 per annum ₹20 per annum Varies based on age of entry and chosen pension amount (e.g., ₹42 to ₹1,454 per month). Key Benefit(s) ₹2 Lakh life cover for death due to any reason ₹2 Lakh for accidental death or total permanent disability; ₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability. Guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 after age 60. Administering/Key Implementing Agencies Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other participating life insurers, through banks/post offices. Public Sector General Insurance Companies (PSGICs) and other insurers, through banks/post offices. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under NPS architecture, through banks/post offices. Incorrect Solution: d) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme that provides a life cover of ₹2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason, for individuals in the age group of 18-50 years, at an annual premium of ₹436. So, 1 matches with B. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme that offers accidental death cum disability cover of ₹2 Lakh (₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability) for individuals aged 18-70 years, at an annual premium of ₹20. So, 2 matches with C. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme primarily for the unorganized sector, which offers subscribers a fixed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 starting at the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution. So, 3 matches with A. Comparative Features of Jan Suraksha Schemes Feature Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Target Age Group for Enrollment 18-50 years (cover up to 55 years) 18-70 years 18-40 years (pension starts at 60) Annual Premium/Contribution Basis ₹436 per annum ₹20 per annum Varies based on age of entry and chosen pension amount (e.g., ₹42 to ₹1,454 per month). Key Benefit(s) ₹2 Lakh life cover for death due to any reason ₹2 Lakh for accidental death or total permanent disability; ₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability. Guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 after age 60. Administering/Key Implementing Agencies Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other participating life insurers, through banks/post offices. Public Sector General Insurance Companies (PSGICs) and other insurers, through banks/post offices. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under NPS architecture, through banks/post offices.
#### 4. Question
Match the Jan Suraksha Scheme in Column I with its correct feature in Column II:
Column I (Scheme) | Column II (Feature)
- 1.Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) | A. Offers a guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after age 60.
- 2.Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) | B. Provides life cover of ₹2 Lakh for death due to any reason.
- 3.Atal Pension Yojana (APY) | C. Offers accidental death and disability cover of ₹2 Lakh.
Select the correct match:
• (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
• (a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
• (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
• (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
Solution: d)
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme that provides a life cover of ₹2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason, for individuals in the age group of 18-50 years, at an annual premium of ₹436. So, 1 matches with B.
• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme that offers accidental death cum disability cover of ₹2 Lakh (₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability) for individuals aged 18-70 years, at an annual premium of ₹20. So, 2 matches with C.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme primarily for the unorganized sector, which offers subscribers a fixed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 starting at the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution. So, 3 matches with A.
Comparative Features of Jan Suraksha Schemes
Feature | Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) | Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) | Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
Target Age Group for Enrollment | 18-50 years (cover up to 55 years) | 18-70 years | 18-40 years (pension starts at 60)
Annual Premium/Contribution Basis | ₹436 per annum | ₹20 per annum | Varies based on age of entry and chosen pension amount (e.g., ₹42 to ₹1,454 per month).
Key Benefit(s) | ₹2 Lakh life cover for death due to any reason | ₹2 Lakh for accidental death or total permanent disability; ₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability. | Guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 after age 60.
Administering/Key Implementing Agencies | Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other participating life insurers, through banks/post offices. | Public Sector General Insurance Companies (PSGICs) and other insurers, through banks/post offices. | Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under NPS architecture, through banks/post offices.
Solution: d)
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) is a life insurance scheme that provides a life cover of ₹2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason, for individuals in the age group of 18-50 years, at an annual premium of ₹436. So, 1 matches with B.
• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is an accident insurance scheme that offers accidental death cum disability cover of ₹2 Lakh (₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability) for individuals aged 18-70 years, at an annual premium of ₹20. So, 2 matches with C.
• Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a pension scheme primarily for the unorganized sector, which offers subscribers a fixed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 starting at the age of 60 years, depending on their contribution. So, 3 matches with A.
Comparative Features of Jan Suraksha Schemes
Feature | Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) | Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) | Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
Target Age Group for Enrollment | 18-50 years (cover up to 55 years) | 18-70 years | 18-40 years (pension starts at 60)
Annual Premium/Contribution Basis | ₹436 per annum | ₹20 per annum | Varies based on age of entry and chosen pension amount (e.g., ₹42 to ₹1,454 per month).
Key Benefit(s) | ₹2 Lakh life cover for death due to any reason | ₹2 Lakh for accidental death or total permanent disability; ₹1 Lakh for partial permanent disability. | Guaranteed minimum monthly pension of ₹1,000, ₹2,000, ₹3,000, ₹4,000, or ₹5,000 after age 60.
Administering/Key Implementing Agencies | Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and other participating life insurers, through banks/post offices. | Public Sector General Insurance Companies (PSGICs) and other insurers, through banks/post offices. | Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under NPS architecture, through banks/post offices.
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points The Gomti River, a significant tributary of the Ganga, originates from which of the following water bodies/locations? (a) Yamunotri Glacier (b) Amarkantak Plateau (c) Triambakeshwar (d) Gomat Taal Correct Solution: d) The Gomti River originates from Gomat Taal, also known as Fulhaar Jheel, located near Madho Tanda in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. It is primarily a plains-fed river, receiving water from both rainfall and groundwater, unlike many Himalayan tributaries of the Ganga which are snow-fed. The river flows entirely through Uttar Pradesh for approximately 960 km before joining the Ganga River near Kaithi in Ghazipur district. Incorrect Solution: d) The Gomti River originates from Gomat Taal, also known as Fulhaar Jheel, located near Madho Tanda in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. It is primarily a plains-fed river, receiving water from both rainfall and groundwater, unlike many Himalayan tributaries of the Ganga which are snow-fed. The river flows entirely through Uttar Pradesh for approximately 960 km before joining the Ganga River near Kaithi in Ghazipur district.
#### 5. Question
The Gomti River, a significant tributary of the Ganga, originates from which of the following water bodies/locations?
• (a) Yamunotri Glacier
• (b) Amarkantak Plateau
• (c) Triambakeshwar
• (d) Gomat Taal
Solution: d)
The Gomti River originates from Gomat Taal, also known as Fulhaar Jheel, located near Madho Tanda in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. It is primarily a plains-fed river, receiving water from both rainfall and groundwater, unlike many Himalayan tributaries of the Ganga which are snow-fed. The river flows entirely through Uttar Pradesh for approximately 960 km before joining the Ganga River near Kaithi in Ghazipur district.
Solution: d)
The Gomti River originates from Gomat Taal, also known as Fulhaar Jheel, located near Madho Tanda in the Pilibhit district of Uttar Pradesh. It is primarily a plains-fed river, receiving water from both rainfall and groundwater, unlike many Himalayan tributaries of the Ganga which are snow-fed. The river flows entirely through Uttar Pradesh for approximately 960 km before joining the Ganga River near Kaithi in Ghazipur district.
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF): The UNSPF was adopted by the UN General Assembly and includes voluntary Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and associated targets to be achieved by 2030. One of the Global Forest Goals aims to increase global forest area by 3% worldwide by 2030. The UNSPF is a legally binding international treaty requiring member states to meet specific afforestation quotas. The implementation of the UNSPF is primarily supported by the Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) and the Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 27 April 2017. It features a set of six Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and 26 associated targets to be achieved by 2030, which are voluntary and universal. Statement 2 is correct. Global Forest Goal 1 of the UNSPF includes Target 1.1, which aims to increase forest area by 3 per cent worldwide by 2030. This signifies an ambitious target of adding 120 million hectares of forest. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNSPF and its Global Forest Goals and targets are voluntary and not legally binding. It provides a global framework for action and encourages voluntary national contributions (VNCs) from member states, rather than imposing mandatory quotas. Statement 4 is correct. The implementation of the UNSPF is significantly supported by mechanisms within the International Arrangement on Forests. The Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) assists countries in mobilizing resources and accessing financing for sustainable forest management. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), comprising 16 international organizations, supports the work of the UNFF and helps enhance the contribution of forests to global goals. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 27 April 2017. It features a set of six Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and 26 associated targets to be achieved by 2030, which are voluntary and universal. Statement 2 is correct. Global Forest Goal 1 of the UNSPF includes Target 1.1, which aims to increase forest area by 3 per cent worldwide by 2030. This signifies an ambitious target of adding 120 million hectares of forest. Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNSPF and its Global Forest Goals and targets are voluntary and not legally binding. It provides a global framework for action and encourages voluntary national contributions (VNCs) from member states, rather than imposing mandatory quotas. Statement 4 is correct. The implementation of the UNSPF is significantly supported by mechanisms within the International Arrangement on Forests. The Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) assists countries in mobilizing resources and accessing financing for sustainable forest management. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), comprising 16 international organizations, supports the work of the UNFF and helps enhance the contribution of forests to global goals.
#### 6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF):
• The UNSPF was adopted by the UN General Assembly and includes voluntary Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and associated targets to be achieved by 2030.
• One of the Global Forest Goals aims to increase global forest area by 3% worldwide by 2030.
• The UNSPF is a legally binding international treaty requiring member states to meet specific afforestation quotas.
• The implementation of the UNSPF is primarily supported by the Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) and the Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: c)
• Statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 27 April 2017. It features a set of six Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and 26 associated targets to be achieved by 2030, which are voluntary and universal.
• Statement 2 is correct. Global Forest Goal 1 of the UNSPF includes Target 1.1, which aims to increase forest area by 3 per cent worldwide by 2030. This signifies an ambitious target of adding 120 million hectares of forest.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNSPF and its Global Forest Goals and targets are voluntary and not legally binding. It provides a global framework for action and encourages voluntary national contributions (VNCs) from member states, rather than imposing mandatory quotas.
• Statement 4 is correct. The implementation of the UNSPF is significantly supported by mechanisms within the International Arrangement on Forests. The Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) assists countries in mobilizing resources and accessing financing for sustainable forest management. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), comprising 16 international organizations, supports the work of the UNFF and helps enhance the contribution of forests to global goals.
Solution: c)
• Statement 1 is correct. The United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests 2017–2030 (UNSPF) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 27 April 2017. It features a set of six Global Forest Goals (GFGs) and 26 associated targets to be achieved by 2030, which are voluntary and universal.
• Statement 2 is correct. Global Forest Goal 1 of the UNSPF includes Target 1.1, which aims to increase forest area by 3 per cent worldwide by 2030. This signifies an ambitious target of adding 120 million hectares of forest.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The UNSPF and its Global Forest Goals and targets are voluntary and not legally binding. It provides a global framework for action and encourages voluntary national contributions (VNCs) from member states, rather than imposing mandatory quotas.
• Statement 4 is correct. The implementation of the UNSPF is significantly supported by mechanisms within the International Arrangement on Forests. The Global Forest Financing Facilitation Network (GFFFN) assists countries in mobilizing resources and accessing financing for sustainable forest management. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), comprising 16 international organizations, supports the work of the UNFF and helps enhance the contribution of forests to global goals.
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points As of April 2025, which of the three Jan Suraksha Schemes – Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), and Atal Pension Yojana (APY) – has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments? (a) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) (b) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) (c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) (d) All three schemes have nearly equal cumulative enrolments. Correct Solution: c) As per the data released on the 10th anniversary of the Jan Suraksha Schemes (celebrated in May 2025, with data up to April 2025), the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments. The figures are as follows: PMSBY: Over 51.06 crore enrolments. PMJJBY: Over 23.63 crore enrolments. APY: Over 7.66 crore enrolments. The significantly higher enrolment in PMSBY can be attributed to its very low premium of ₹20 per annum and its broad eligibility criteria (18-70 years) for accidental death and disability cover, making it highly accessible to a large segment of the population. PMJJBY, with a slightly higher premium and a more specific life cover, has the next highest, followed by APY, which is a pension scheme with a longer commitment period and variable contributions. Incorrect Solution: c) As per the data released on the 10th anniversary of the Jan Suraksha Schemes (celebrated in May 2025, with data up to April 2025), the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments. The figures are as follows: PMSBY: Over 51.06 crore enrolments. PMJJBY: Over 23.63 crore enrolments. APY: Over 7.66 crore enrolments. The significantly higher enrolment in PMSBY can be attributed to its very low premium of ₹20 per annum and its broad eligibility criteria (18-70 years) for accidental death and disability cover, making it highly accessible to a large segment of the population. PMJJBY, with a slightly higher premium and a more specific life cover, has the next highest, followed by APY, which is a pension scheme with a longer commitment period and variable contributions.
#### 7. Question
As of April 2025, which of the three Jan Suraksha Schemes – Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), and Atal Pension Yojana (APY) – has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments?
• (a) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
• (b) Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
• (c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
• (d) All three schemes have nearly equal cumulative enrolments.
Solution: c)
As per the data released on the 10th anniversary of the Jan Suraksha Schemes (celebrated in May 2025, with data up to April 2025), the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments. The figures are as follows:
• PMSBY: Over 51.06 crore enrolments.
• PMJJBY: Over 23.63 crore enrolments.
• APY: Over 7.66 crore enrolments.
The significantly higher enrolment in PMSBY can be attributed to its very low premium of ₹20 per annum and its broad eligibility criteria (18-70 years) for accidental death and disability cover, making it highly accessible to a large segment of the population. PMJJBY, with a slightly higher premium and a more specific life cover, has the next highest, followed by APY, which is a pension scheme with a longer commitment period and variable contributions.
Solution: c)
As per the data released on the 10th anniversary of the Jan Suraksha Schemes (celebrated in May 2025, with data up to April 2025), the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) has recorded the highest number of cumulative enrolments. The figures are as follows:
• PMSBY: Over 51.06 crore enrolments.
• PMJJBY: Over 23.63 crore enrolments.
• APY: Over 7.66 crore enrolments.
The significantly higher enrolment in PMSBY can be attributed to its very low premium of ₹20 per annum and its broad eligibility criteria (18-70 years) for accidental death and disability cover, making it highly accessible to a large segment of the population. PMJJBY, with a slightly higher premium and a more specific life cover, has the next highest, followed by APY, which is a pension scheme with a longer commitment period and variable contributions.
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points Regarding India’s engagement with the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) and its commitments, consider the following statements: India reported at UNFF20 (2025) that its forest and tree cover has decreased to below 20% of its geographical area due to developmental pressures. India has invited UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), a platform to support the conservation of seven big cat species. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. At the 20th Session of the UNFF (UNFF20) in May 2025, India reported a consistent increase in its forest and tree cover, which now encompasses 25.17% of its geographical area, according to the latest India State of Forest Report. This is a result of various national initiatives. Statement 2 is correct. A key highlight of India’s participation at UNFF20 was the invitation extended to all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA). The IBCA is a global platform launched by India aimed at supporting the conservation of the world’s seven major big cat species through collaborative efforts in research, knowledge exchange, and capacity-building. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. At the 20th Session of the UNFF (UNFF20) in May 2025, India reported a consistent increase in its forest and tree cover, which now encompasses 25.17% of its geographical area, according to the latest India State of Forest Report. This is a result of various national initiatives. Statement 2 is correct. A key highlight of India’s participation at UNFF20 was the invitation extended to all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA). The IBCA is a global platform launched by India aimed at supporting the conservation of the world’s seven major big cat species through collaborative efforts in research, knowledge exchange, and capacity-building.
#### 8. Question
Regarding India’s engagement with the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) and its commitments, consider the following statements:
• India reported at UNFF20 (2025) that its forest and tree cover has decreased to below 20% of its geographical area due to developmental pressures.
• India has invited UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), a platform to support the conservation of seven big cat species.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. At the 20th Session of the UNFF (UNFF20) in May 2025, India reported a consistent increase in its forest and tree cover, which now encompasses 25.17% of its geographical area, according to the latest India State of Forest Report. This is a result of various national initiatives.
Statement 2 is correct. A key highlight of India’s participation at UNFF20 was the invitation extended to all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA). The IBCA is a global platform launched by India aimed at supporting the conservation of the world’s seven major big cat species through collaborative efforts in research, knowledge exchange, and capacity-building.
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect. At the 20th Session of the UNFF (UNFF20) in May 2025, India reported a consistent increase in its forest and tree cover, which now encompasses 25.17% of its geographical area, according to the latest India State of Forest Report. This is a result of various national initiatives.
Statement 2 is correct. A key highlight of India’s participation at UNFF20 was the invitation extended to all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA). The IBCA is a global platform launched by India aimed at supporting the conservation of the world’s seven major big cat species through collaborative efforts in research, knowledge exchange, and capacity-building.
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding the Anak Krakatau volcano and its activity: Anak Krakatau is a stratovolcano, characterized by a conical shape built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and volcanic ash. Tsunamis generated by Anak Krakatau’s eruptions are primarily caused by pyroclastic flows entering the sea and causing flank collapse of the volcano. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. Anak Krakatau, like its parent, is a stratovolcano (or composite volcano). These volcanoes are characterized by their steep profiles and periodic, explosive eruptions, leading to the accumulation of layers of different volcanic materials. Statement 2 is correct. A significant hazard associated with Anak Krakatau’s eruptions is the generation of tsunamis. These are often triggered when large volumes of material from pyroclastic flows rapidly enter the sea or when eruptions lead to the instability and collapse of parts of the volcano’s flank into the water, displacing a massive volume of seawater. The 2018 tsunami was a notable example of such a flank collapse. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. Anak Krakatau, like its parent, is a stratovolcano (or composite volcano). These volcanoes are characterized by their steep profiles and periodic, explosive eruptions, leading to the accumulation of layers of different volcanic materials. Statement 2 is correct. A significant hazard associated with Anak Krakatau’s eruptions is the generation of tsunamis. These are often triggered when large volumes of material from pyroclastic flows rapidly enter the sea or when eruptions lead to the instability and collapse of parts of the volcano’s flank into the water, displacing a massive volume of seawater. The 2018 tsunami was a notable example of such a flank collapse.
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Anak Krakatau volcano and its activity:
• Anak Krakatau is a stratovolcano, characterized by a conical shape built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and volcanic ash.
• Tsunamis generated by Anak Krakatau’s eruptions are primarily caused by pyroclastic flows entering the sea and causing flank collapse of the volcano.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: c)
• Statement 1 is correct. Anak Krakatau, like its parent, is a stratovolcano (or composite volcano). These volcanoes are characterized by their steep profiles and periodic, explosive eruptions, leading to the accumulation of layers of different volcanic materials.
• Statement 2 is correct. A significant hazard associated with Anak Krakatau’s eruptions is the generation of tsunamis. These are often triggered when large volumes of material from pyroclastic flows rapidly enter the sea or when eruptions lead to the instability and collapse of parts of the volcano’s flank into the water, displacing a massive volume of seawater. The 2018 tsunami was a notable example of such a flank collapse.
Solution: c)
• Statement 1 is correct. Anak Krakatau, like its parent, is a stratovolcano (or composite volcano). These volcanoes are characterized by their steep profiles and periodic, explosive eruptions, leading to the accumulation of layers of different volcanic materials.
• Statement 2 is correct. A significant hazard associated with Anak Krakatau’s eruptions is the generation of tsunamis. These are often triggered when large volumes of material from pyroclastic flows rapidly enter the sea or when eruptions lead to the instability and collapse of parts of the volcano’s flank into the water, displacing a massive volume of seawater. The 2018 tsunami was a notable example of such a flank collapse.
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points Consider the following statements regarding Mission Sankalp: The operation is exclusively conducted by the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and its CoBRA units. A primary objective of the mission is to facilitate infrastructure development projects in the cleared areas. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Sankalp is a joint operation involving multiple security forces. It is conducted under the joint command of Chhattisgarh Police, Telangana Police, the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and its elite CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) unit. Additionally, personnel from District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and Bastar Fighters are part of this massive mobilisation. It is not exclusively a CRPF/CoBRA operation. Statement 2 is correct. One of the strategic significances of Mission Sankalp is to pave the way for infrastructure development and welfare delivery in Maoist-hit tribal belts. By clearing areas of Maoist dominance and dismantling their command structures, the operation aims to create a secure environment conducive to civil governance and development activities. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Sankalp is a joint operation involving multiple security forces. It is conducted under the joint command of Chhattisgarh Police, Telangana Police, the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and its elite CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) unit. Additionally, personnel from District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and Bastar Fighters are part of this massive mobilisation. It is not exclusively a CRPF/CoBRA operation. Statement 2 is correct. One of the strategic significances of Mission Sankalp is to pave the way for infrastructure development and welfare delivery in Maoist-hit tribal belts. By clearing areas of Maoist dominance and dismantling their command structures, the operation aims to create a secure environment conducive to civil governance and development activities.
#### 10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Mission Sankalp:
• The operation is exclusively conducted by the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and its CoBRA units.
• A primary objective of the mission is to facilitate infrastructure development projects in the cleared areas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Sankalp is a joint operation involving multiple security forces. It is conducted under the joint command of Chhattisgarh Police, Telangana Police, the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and its elite CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) unit. Additionally, personnel from District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and Bastar Fighters are part of this massive mobilisation. It is not exclusively a CRPF/CoBRA operation.
• Statement 2 is correct. One of the strategic significances of Mission Sankalp is to pave the way for infrastructure development and welfare delivery in Maoist-hit tribal belts. By clearing areas of Maoist dominance and dismantling their command structures, the operation aims to create a secure environment conducive to civil governance and development activities.
Solution: b)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mission Sankalp is a joint operation involving multiple security forces. It is conducted under the joint command of Chhattisgarh Police, Telangana Police, the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), and its elite CoBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) unit. Additionally, personnel from District Reserve Guard (DRG), Special Task Force (STF), and Bastar Fighters are part of this massive mobilisation. It is not exclusively a CRPF/CoBRA operation.
• Statement 2 is correct. One of the strategic significances of Mission Sankalp is to pave the way for infrastructure development and welfare delivery in Maoist-hit tribal belts. By clearing areas of Maoist dominance and dismantling their command structures, the operation aims to create a secure environment conducive to civil governance and development activities.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates for
Join our Twitter Channel HERE
Follow our Instagram Channel HERE