UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 21 June 2024
Kartavya Desk Staff
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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• Question 1 of 10 1. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India Post is the largest postal network in the world. The Speed Post service by India Post was introduced in 1986. India Post operates only within India and does not offer international postal services. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans:(b) Explanation: Context: The Post Office Act 2023, effective today, replaces the Indian Post Office Act, 1898. It simplifies the legislative framework for citizen-centric services, banking, and government scheme benefits. S1: India Post has the most extensive postal network globally with over 150,000 post offices across the country. S2: Speed Post, a high-speed postal service for time-sensitive materials, was launched by India Post in 1986. S3 is incorrect. India Post provides international postal services, allowing customers to send and receive mail and parcels globally. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans:(b) Explanation: Context: The Post Office Act 2023, effective today, replaces the Indian Post Office Act, 1898. It simplifies the legislative framework for citizen-centric services, banking, and government scheme benefits. S1: India Post has the most extensive postal network globally with over 150,000 post offices across the country. S2: Speed Post, a high-speed postal service for time-sensitive materials, was launched by India Post in 1986. S3 is incorrect. India Post provides international postal services, allowing customers to send and receive mail and parcels globally. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements:
• India Post is the largest postal network in the world. The Speed Post service by India Post was introduced in 1986. India Post operates only within India and does not offer international postal services.
• India Post is the largest postal network in the world.
• The Speed Post service by India Post was introduced in 1986.
• India Post operates only within India and does not offer international postal services.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Context: The Post Office Act 2023, effective today, replaces the Indian Post Office Act, 1898. It simplifies the legislative framework for citizen-centric services, banking, and government scheme benefits.
• S1: India Post has the most extensive postal network globally with over 150,000 post offices across the country.
• S2: Speed Post, a high-speed postal service for time-sensitive materials, was launched by India Post in 1986.
• S3 is incorrect. India Post provides international postal services, allowing customers to send and receive mail and parcels globally.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: The Post Office Act 2023, effective today, replaces the Indian Post Office Act, 1898. It simplifies the legislative framework for citizen-centric services, banking, and government scheme benefits.
• S1: India Post has the most extensive postal network globally with over 150,000 post offices across the country.
• S2: Speed Post, a high-speed postal service for time-sensitive materials, was launched by India Post in 1986.
• S3 is incorrect. India Post provides international postal services, allowing customers to send and receive mail and parcels globally.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 2 of 10 2. Question 1 points Which of the following statements about Lord Dalhousie is/are correct? Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. He is known for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British East India Company to annex territories of Indian rulers who died without a direct heir. Under his administration, the first Indian railway line between Bombay and Thane was inaugurated in 1853. Lord Dalhousie opposed the introduction of the telegraph system in India, considering it unnecessary and expensive. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is Correct: Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. His tenure was marked by significant administrative and infrastructural developments. S2 is Correct: He implemented the Doctrine of Lapse, a policy that enabled the British to annex Indian states where the ruler died without a natural heir. This policy led to the annexation of several states, including Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur. S3 is Correct: The first railway line in India was inaugurated during his tenure in 1853, connecting Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane. This was a major milestone in the development of the Indian railway system. S4 is Incorrect: Lord Dalhousie was a proponent of the telegraph system and played a crucial role in its introduction in India. He believed in modernizing the communication system, and the first telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was established during his administration. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: S1 is Correct: Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. His tenure was marked by significant administrative and infrastructural developments. S2 is Correct: He implemented the Doctrine of Lapse, a policy that enabled the British to annex Indian states where the ruler died without a natural heir. This policy led to the annexation of several states, including Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur. S3 is Correct: The first railway line in India was inaugurated during his tenure in 1853, connecting Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane. This was a major milestone in the development of the Indian railway system. S4 is Incorrect: Lord Dalhousie was a proponent of the telegraph system and played a crucial role in its introduction in India. He believed in modernizing the communication system, and the first telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was established during his administration. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 2. Question
Which of the following statements about Lord Dalhousie is/are correct?
• Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. He is known for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British East India Company to annex territories of Indian rulers who died without a direct heir. Under his administration, the first Indian railway line between Bombay and Thane was inaugurated in 1853. Lord Dalhousie opposed the introduction of the telegraph system in India, considering it unnecessary and expensive.
• Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856.
• He is known for implementing the Doctrine of Lapse, which allowed the British East India Company to annex territories of Indian rulers who died without a direct heir.
• Under his administration, the first Indian railway line between Bombay and Thane was inaugurated in 1853.
• Lord Dalhousie opposed the introduction of the telegraph system in India, considering it unnecessary and expensive.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
• (a) 1, 2 and 3
• (b) 2, 3 and 4
• (c) 1, 2 and 4
• (d) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation:
• S1 is Correct: Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. His tenure was marked by significant administrative and infrastructural developments.
• S2 is Correct: He implemented the Doctrine of Lapse, a policy that enabled the British to annex Indian states where the ruler died without a natural heir. This policy led to the annexation of several states, including Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
• S3 is Correct: The first railway line in India was inaugurated during his tenure in 1853, connecting Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane. This was a major milestone in the development of the Indian railway system.
• S4 is Incorrect: Lord Dalhousie was a proponent of the telegraph system and played a crucial role in its introduction in India. He believed in modernizing the communication system, and the first telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was established during his administration.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is Correct: Lord Dalhousie served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856. His tenure was marked by significant administrative and infrastructural developments.
• S2 is Correct: He implemented the Doctrine of Lapse, a policy that enabled the British to annex Indian states where the ruler died without a natural heir. This policy led to the annexation of several states, including Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
• S3 is Correct: The first railway line in India was inaugurated during his tenure in 1853, connecting Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane. This was a major milestone in the development of the Indian railway system.
• S4 is Incorrect: Lord Dalhousie was a proponent of the telegraph system and played a crucial role in its introduction in India. He believed in modernizing the communication system, and the first telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was established during his administration.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 3 of 10 3. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023 aims to achieve exports of USD 1 trillion by 2030. The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: S1: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 aims to boost India’s exports to USD 2 trillion by 2030. S2: The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: S1: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 aims to boost India’s exports to USD 2 trillion by 2030. S2: The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements:
• India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023 aims to achieve exports of USD 1 trillion by 2030. The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level.
• India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023 aims to achieve exports of USD 1 trillion by 2030.
• The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• S1: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 aims to boost India’s exports to USD 2 trillion by 2030.
• S2: The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• S1: The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023 aims to boost India’s exports to USD 2 trillion by 2030.
• S2: The policy introduces the concept of “Districts as Export Hubs” to promote exports at the district level.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 4 of 10 4. Question 1 points The Bletchley Declaration is related to: (a) Cybersecurity and Digital Threats (b) Global Economic Policies (c) Climate Change and Environmental Protection (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: The Bletchley Declaration, named after the historic code-breaking site, signifies a global commitment to addressing AI’s ethical and security challenges, particularly generative AI. Signed at the AI Safety Summit (in 2023), it highlights the increasing global recognition of AI risks and involves major world powers like China, the EU, India, and the US. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: The Bletchley Declaration, named after the historic code-breaking site, signifies a global commitment to addressing AI’s ethical and security challenges, particularly generative AI. Signed at the AI Safety Summit (in 2023), it highlights the increasing global recognition of AI risks and involves major world powers like China, the EU, India, and the US. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 4. Question
The Bletchley Declaration is related to:
• (a) Cybersecurity and Digital Threats
• (b) Global Economic Policies
• (c) Climate Change and Environmental Protection
• (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation
Explanation:
• The Bletchley Declaration, named after the historic code-breaking site, signifies a global commitment to addressing AI’s ethical and security challenges, particularly generative AI. Signed at the AI Safety Summit (in 2023), it highlights the increasing global recognition of AI risks and involves major world powers like China, the EU, India, and the US.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• The Bletchley Declaration, named after the historic code-breaking site, signifies a global commitment to addressing AI’s ethical and security challenges, particularly generative AI. Signed at the AI Safety Summit (in 2023), it highlights the increasing global recognition of AI risks and involves major world powers like China, the EU, India, and the US.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 5 of 10 5. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: An “exclusive economic zone,” or “EEZ” extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living and non-living. The EEZ is considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans:(b) Explanation: S1 is correct. An EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state, as defined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). S2 is correct. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living (like fish) and non-living (like oil and gas). S3 C is incorrect. The EEZ is not considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state; rather, it is a zone where the state has special rights over the use of marine resources. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans:(b) Explanation: S1 is correct. An EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state, as defined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). S2 is correct. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living (like fish) and non-living (like oil and gas). S3 C is incorrect. The EEZ is not considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state; rather, it is a zone where the state has special rights over the use of marine resources. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements:
• An “exclusive economic zone,” or “EEZ” extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living and non-living. The EEZ is considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state.
• An “exclusive economic zone,” or “EEZ” extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state.
• Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living and non-living.
• The EEZ is considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• S1 is correct. An EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state, as defined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
• S2 is correct. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living (like fish) and non-living (like oil and gas).
• S3 C is incorrect. The EEZ is not considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state; rather, it is a zone where the state has special rights over the use of marine resources.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• S1 is correct. An EEZ extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline of a coastal state, as defined by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
• S2 is correct. Within its EEZ, a coastal state has exclusive rights to explore and exploit natural resources, both living (like fish) and non-living (like oil and gas).
• S3 C is incorrect. The EEZ is not considered part of the sovereign territory of the coastal state; rather, it is a zone where the state has special rights over the use of marine resources.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 6 of 10 6. Question 1 points Which organization is responsible for allocating deep-sea mining permits? (a) International Maritime Organization (IMO) (b) International Seabed Authority (ISA) (c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) (d) World Trade Organization (WTO) Correct Ans: (b) Explanation: The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is responsible for regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, which lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. This includes the allocation of permits for deep-sea mining, ensuring that these activities are conducted for the benefit of mankind as a whole while protecting the marine environment. The ISA’s mandate covers the exploration and exploitation of resources such as polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (b) Explanation: The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is responsible for regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, which lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. This includes the allocation of permits for deep-sea mining, ensuring that these activities are conducted for the benefit of mankind as a whole while protecting the marine environment. The ISA’s mandate covers the exploration and exploitation of resources such as polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 6. Question
Which organization is responsible for allocating deep-sea mining permits?
• (a) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
• (b) International Seabed Authority (ISA)
• (c) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
• (d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Explanation:
• The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is responsible for regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, which lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. This includes the allocation of permits for deep-sea mining, ensuring that these activities are conducted for the benefit of mankind as a whole while protecting the marine environment. The ISA’s mandate covers the exploration and exploitation of resources such as polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is responsible for regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area, which lies beyond the limits of national jurisdiction. This includes the allocation of permits for deep-sea mining, ensuring that these activities are conducted for the benefit of mankind as a whole while protecting the marine environment. The ISA’s mandate covers the exploration and exploitation of resources such as polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 7 of 10 7. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: The Speaker Pro tem is appointed by the President of India. The main duty of the Speaker Pro tem is to conduct the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. The Speaker Pro tem administers the oath to new members of the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Ans:(c) Explanation: Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha. What is Speaker Pro-tem? The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected. Role of Pro-tem Speaker: Administers oaths to new MPs. Presides over the House’s initial proceedings. Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans:(c) Explanation: Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha. What is Speaker Pro-tem? The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected. Role of Pro-tem Speaker: Administers oaths to new MPs. Presides over the House’s initial proceedings. Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 7. Question
Consider the following statements:
• The Speaker Pro tem is appointed by the President of India. The main duty of the Speaker Pro tem is to conduct the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. The Speaker Pro tem administers the oath to new members of the Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker Pro tem is appointed by the President of India.
• The main duty of the Speaker Pro tem is to conduct the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
• The Speaker Pro tem administers the oath to new members of the Lok Sabha.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Explanation:
• Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha.
• What is Speaker Pro-tem? The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected.
• The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected.
• Role of Pro-tem Speaker: Administers oaths to new MPs. Presides over the House’s initial proceedings. Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties.
• Administers oaths to new MPs.
• Presides over the House’s initial proceedings.
• Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha.
• What is Speaker Pro-tem? The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected.
• The Speaker pro-tem is a temporary presiding officer in the Lok Sabha, appointed by the President before the first session of a new Lok Sabha. This role is typically given to the senior member. The Speaker pro-tem’s main duty is to administer oaths to the new MPs until a permanent Speaker is elected.
• Role of Pro-tem Speaker: Administers oaths to new MPs. Presides over the House’s initial proceedings. Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties.
• Administers oaths to new MPs.
• Presides over the House’s initial proceedings.
• Ensures the smooth transition of parliamentary duties.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 8 of 10 8. Question 1 points In the context of the Indian Parliament, who administers the oath to the Pro-tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) The President of India (b) The Prime Minister of India (c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha. Selection Process: Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha. Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration. The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha. Selection Process: Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha. Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration. The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 8. Question
In the context of the Indian Parliament, who administers the oath to the Pro-tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
• (a) The President of India
• (b) The Prime Minister of India
• (c) The Chief Justice of India
• (d) The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
• Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha.
• Selection Process: Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha. Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration. The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs.
• Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha.
• Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration.
• The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: Senior Congress leader K Suresh, as the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, is expected to be appointed as the pro-tem Speaker for the first session of the 18th Lok Sabha.
• Selection Process: Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha. Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration. The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs.
• Chosen by the President from the senior most members of the Lok Sabha.
• Assisted by three other senior members for oath administration.
• The President administers the oath to the pro-tem Speaker, who then swears in other MPs.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 9 of 10 9. Question 1 points Consider the following statements: Angel Tax is imposed on the excess capital raised by unlisted companies through the sale of shares over their fair market value. Angel Tax applies only to investments received from foreign investors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has recommended removing the ‘Angel Tax’ to boost capital formation, citing its negative impact on start-up funding. What is Angel Tax? Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has recommended removing the ‘Angel Tax’ to boost capital formation, citing its negative impact on start-up funding. What is Angel Tax? Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 9. Question
Consider the following statements:
• Angel Tax is imposed on the excess capital raised by unlisted companies through the sale of shares over their fair market value. Angel Tax applies only to investments received from foreign investors.
• Angel Tax is imposed on the excess capital raised by unlisted companies through the sale of shares over their fair market value.
• Angel Tax applies only to investments received from foreign investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
• Context: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has recommended removing the ‘Angel Tax’ to boost capital formation, citing its negative impact on start-up funding.
• What is Angel Tax? Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms.
• Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) has recommended removing the ‘Angel Tax’ to boost capital formation, citing its negative impact on start-up funding.
• What is Angel Tax? Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms.
• Angel Tax, introduced in 2012 under the Income-tax Act, 1961, is levied on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares if the share price exceeds the fair market valu This tax aims to curb money laundering and ensure compliance with tax norms.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
• Question 10 of 10 10. Question 1 points In which of the following states is Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary located? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Odisha (d) Jharkhand Correct Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Madhya Pradesh is developing the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary as India’s second home for cheetahs, following Kuno National Park. Why develop a second home? The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died. Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh (adjoining Rajasthan) Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/ Incorrect Ans: (a) Explanation: Context: Madhya Pradesh is developing the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary as India’s second home for cheetahs, following Kuno National Park. Why develop a second home? The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died. Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh (adjoining Rajasthan) Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
#### 10. Question
In which of the following states is Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary located?
• (a) Madhya Pradesh
• (b) Karnataka
• (c) Odisha
• (d) Jharkhand
Explanation:
• Context: Madhya Pradesh is developing the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary as India’s second home for cheetahs, following Kuno National Park.
• Why develop a second home? The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died.
• The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died.
• Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh (adjoining Rajasthan)
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
Explanation:
• Context: Madhya Pradesh is developing the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary as India’s second home for cheetahs, following Kuno National Park.
• Why develop a second home? The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died.
• The move comes after experts suggested that Kuno National Park, the current home for cheetahs, does not have enough space for all of them. Recently, two cheetahs (translocated under The Cheetah Project) died.
• Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of the Mandsaur and Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh (adjoining Rajasthan)
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/06/20/upsc-current-affairs-20-june-2024/
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